Introduction to Nutrition
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Nutrition offers a foundational understanding of the essential principles of human nutrition and its impact on health and well-being. This course explores the function and sources of major nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, and examines their roles in supporting bodily processes. Students will gain insights into digestion, absorption, metabolism, and the relationship between diet and chronic diseases. The course also addresses guidelines for healthy eating, nutritional needs across the lifespan, and the influence of cultural and societal factors on food choices, equipping students with practical knowledge for making informed nutrition decisions.
Recommended Textbook
NUTR 1st Edition by Michelle McGuire
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15 Chapters
825 Verified Questions
825 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Why Does Nutrition Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) If someone wants to know how many people have died in a certain population during a specific time period, he or she would ask about the A) mortality rate.
B) morbidity rate.
C) life expectancy.
D) life span.
Answer: A
Q2) A relationship where one variable is directly altered by another is called A) an intervention.
B) a cause-and-effect relationship.
C) a correlation.
D) an epidemiological relationship.
Answer: B
Q3) The main source of energy for cells under normal conditions is A) glucose.
B) protein.
C) lipids.
D) vitamins.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Choosing Foods Wisely
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Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating nutritional status, the goal is to
A) determine how well one's diet is meeting individual requirements.
B) be assured of no potential nutritional deficiencies.
C) be assured of no potential nutritional toxicities.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Besides height and body weight, anthropometric measurements include A) blood levels of nutrients.
B) 24-hour dietary recall assessment.
C) evaluation of signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiencies.
D) body composition.
Answer: D
Q3) In order to determine if a food is a good source of a particular nutrient, you should check the _____ for that nutrient on the Nutrition Facts panel.
A) RDA comparison
B) Daily Value
C) Adequacy Scale
D) Nutrient Content Index
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Body Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peristalsis is the
A) wavelike muscular contractions that propel food from one region of the GI tract to the next.
B) process of chewing food.
C) process of churning food in the stomach.
D) final muscular movement that results in the elimination of waste.
Answer: A
Q2) The first segment of the small intestine is called the A) duodenum.
B) jejunum.
C) ileum.
D) colon.
Answer: A
Q3) The symptoms associated with inflammation of the intestinal lining include A) weight loss.
B) diarrhea.
C) fatigue.
D) diminished appetite.
E) All of the above
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary fiber is classified as a complex carbohydrate because
A) it is an energy storage molecule much like starch and glycogen.
B) it consists of a group of plant polysaccharides.
C) it is not digestible by human enzymes.
D) it uses the same types of chemical bonds as are found in starch.
Q2) Symptoms of lactose intolerance include gas, bloating, and cramping. These symptoms are attributable to
A) an immune response to lactose in the intestine.
B) bacterial metabolism of lactose in the large intestine.
C) inflammation of the intestines due to the presence of lactose.
Q3) In both type 1 and type 2 diabetes, cells do not take up glucose appropriately. The cause for this is different in each disease. In type 1 diabetes insulin _____, while in type 2 diabetes insulin _____.
A) from the pancreas is not recognized by cells; is not produced
B) is no longer produced by the pancreas; cannot interact with cells due to defects in the insulin receptor
C) from the pancreas is rapidly degraded; is made improperly
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phenomenon that explains why identical twins may differ in certain ways is most appropriately called
A) a mutation.
B) epigenetic variation.
C) sequential variation.
D) transcriptional variation.
Q2) The hormones released by cells in the small intestine in response to the arrival of amino acids and smaller peptides are secretin and cholecystokinin. Together, these hormones stimulate
A) the production of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen in the stomach.
B) the release of active enzymes from the pancreas.
C) the release of bicarbonate and proenzymes from the pancreas.
D) the release of di- and tripeptides from the absorptive cells that line the small intestine.
Q3) Foods supplying low amounts of one or more essential amino acids are called
A) incomplete protein sources.
B) complementary protein sources.
C) limiting foods.
D) nonessential foods.
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Chapter 6: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Micelles are
A) small droplets of bile released into the duodenum from the gallbladder.
B) small droplets of dietary cholesterol that move rapidly through the intestinal tract.
C) small droplets of fat resulting from emulsification of large droplets that come from the stomach.
D) small droplets of triglycerides that have reformed from the fatty acids and diglycerides produced by lipase activity.
Q2) The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for lipids is
A) <30% of total energy intake.
B) 10-35% of total energy intake.
C) 20-35% of total energy intake.
D) 45-65% of total energy intake.
Q3) Triglyceride digestion begins in the mouth because of the activity of A) salivary amylase.
B) lingual lipase.
C) gastric lipase.
D) pancreatic lipase.
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Chapter 7: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all newborns in the United States receive a vitamin K injection for all of the following reasons except:
A) to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding.
B) newborns do not have vitamin K-producing bacteria in their intestines.
C) human milk contains very little vitamin K.
D) vitamin K is lost as a result of bleeding during birth.
Q2) Whole-grain foods are poor sources of water-soluble B vitamins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dietary supplements may be worth taking when
A) you become an adult and you have stopped growing.
B) you are able to purchase, prepare, and consume a diet that is balanced and adequate.
C) you are changing to a dietary pattern that eliminates animal products.
Q4) Vitamins and minerals are complex organic compounds required in small amounts to maintain a healthy body.
A)True
B)False
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9
Chapter 8: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary hemochromatosis is caused by a genetic defect that results in
A) insufficient iron excretion.
B) insufficient storage of iron.
C) excessive iron absorption.
D) excessive desire for iron-rich foods.
Q2) Renin is released by the _____ in response to _____ blood pressure.
A) adrenal glands, high
B) adrenal glands, low
C) kidneys, low
D) kidneys, high
Q3) Which of the following statements about hydroxyapatite is false?
A) It is a reservoir for calcium in the body.
B) It regulates bone remodeling.
C) It is broken down by osteoclasts.
D) It is synthesized by osteoblasts.
Q4) Only women are susceptible to age-related bone loss.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Energy Balance and Body Weight Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adaptive thermogenesis and nonexercise activity thermogenesis are
A) components of total energy expenditure.
B) different names for the same energy expenditure.
C) components of basal metabolism.
D) heat-generating activities that improve or maintain physical fitness.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding leptin is false?
A) When adipose tissue mass increases, less leptin is produced, and when adipose tissue mass decreases, more leptin is produced.
B) Leptin is produced by adipose tissue.
C) Leptin generates signals in the brain that regulate food intake and energy expenditure.
D) Blood leptin levels are reflective of changes in the body's main energy reserve.
Q3) Physical activity is defined as any bodily movement that results in energy expenditure. According to this definition, _____ would be considered physical activity.
A) basal metabolism
B) thermic effect of food
C) nonexercise activity thermogenesis
D) adaptive thermogenesis
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11
Chapter 10: Life Cycle Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The growth and development of toddlers and young children are monitored and assessed using growth charts. What is charted on the growth charts to assess weight in 3 year olds?
A) Waist-to-hip ratio
B) Weight, length, and head circumference
C) Body mass index
D) Weight and height
Q2) All of the following statements about gestational diabetes are true except:
A) It usually develops after the second trimester.
B) It is associated with insulin resistance rather than reduced insulin secretion.
C) It is caused by fetal demands for glucose.
D) It increases the mother's risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life.
Q3) Body composition changes that commonly occur in adults as they age include
A) increases in lean mass and reductions in fat mass.
B) increases in fat mass and reductions in lean mass.
C) reductions in both fat and lean mass.
D) increases in both fat and lean mass.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition and Physical Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of sweating is to
A) dissipate heat.
B) remove electrolytes from the body.
C) aid in weight loss.
D) reduce urination.
Q2) A person who wants to improve his or her aerobic capacity should
A) put an emphasis on strength training.
B) put an emphasis on endurance training.
C) put an emphasis on flexibility sessions.
D) put an emphasis on muscle hypertrophy.
Q3) Indirect calorimetry is
A) a method to estimate energy expenditure based on oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.
B) a method used to estimate energy intake based on oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.
C) a method used to estimate energy expenditure based on oxygen production and carbon dioxide consumption.
D) a method used to estimate energy intake based on oxygen production and carbon dioxide consumption.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Disordered Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eating disorders and disordered eating are conditions that can be distinguished from each other because
A) eating disorders are a mild form of disturbed eating behaviors, while disordered eating behaviors are more extreme and dangerous.
B) eating disorders are defined as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, whereas disordered eating includes nocturnal sleep-related eating disorder.
C) eating disorders are characterized by one or more unhealthy eating behaviors that do not persist long enough to cause serious physical harm, while disordered eating describes eating disorders that occur with regularity and because of their duration can cause multiple health problems.
Q2) Treatment goals for people with anorexia nervosa include all of the following except:
A) achieving a healthy body weight.
B) resolving psychological issues.
C) establishing healthy eating patterns.
D) having them rehabilitate from the disorder independently.
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14
Chapter 13: Alcohol, Health, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binge drinking is defined as a minimum consumption of _____ drink(s) for women and _____ drink(s) for men over a two-hour time period, and is associated with cardiac arrhythmia.
A) 2, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 4, 5
D) 5, 6
Q2) Areas of the brain that control _____ become depressed as blood alcohol content increases.
A) speech
B) vision
C) voluntary muscular movement
D) All the above
Q3) While moderate alcohol consumption in adults is associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke, it is not recommended for young adults. This is because, in young adults, alcohol
A) is metabolized differently than in older adults.
B) use is associated with increased risk of injury and death.
C) is rapidly excreted.
D) is toxic to the heart.
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Chapter 14: Keeping Food Safe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Home canning utilizes _____ to kills pathogens within the foods being canned. This process creates a(n) _____ environment that inhibits the growth of most pathogens except C. botulinum.
A) salting, highly acidic
B) salting, highly alkaline
C) heat, oxygen-rich
D) heat, oxygen-free
Q2) The only infectious agent known to cause a foodborne illness whose symptoms include disturbances of the eyes, such as doubled or blurred vision, is
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Clostridium botulinum.
C) Listeria monocytogenes.
D) Escherichia coli O157:H7.
Q3) You should always wash raw meat, poultry, and fish prior to cooking or preparing them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Food Security, Hunger, and Malnutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electronic benefit transfer card can be used to purchase
A) alcohol.
B) paper products.
C) food.
D) tobacco.
Q2) Which of the following is least associated with risk of food insecurity in the United States?
A) Income
B) Ethnicity
C) Family structure
D) Season of year
Q3) Households with income levels above the poverty line never experience food insecurity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The region with the highest percentage of hungry people in the world is A) Asia.
B) sub-Saharan Africa.
C) South America.
D) Central America.
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