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Introduction to Nutrition provides a foundational understanding of the essential principles of human nutrition and its role in health and disease. The course explores the functions, sources, and requirements of macronutrients and micronutrients, as well as the physiological and biochemical processes involved in nutrient metabolism. Students learn about dietary guidelines, nutritional assessment, and the impact of nutrition on growth, development, and chronic disease prevention. Current issues such as food safety, nutrition labeling, and special dietary needs are also discussed, enabling students to make informed decisions about personal and public health nutrition practices.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition Science and Applications 4th Edition 4th Edition by Lori A. Smolin
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Q1) Which of the following describes a hypothesis?
A)A conclusion based on many studies with similar outcomes.
B)An idea based upon no observable phenomena.
C)A fact stated in a textbook.
D)An educated guess made to explain an observation.
Answer: D
Q2) One group of individuals is asked to eat a diet high in fruits,vegetables and dairy foods while a second group of individuals is asked to eat a diet with lower amounts of fruits,vegetables and dairy foods.The two groups' blood pressure readings are monitored and compared.This is an example of a(an):
A)case-control study.
B)epidemiological study.
C)intervention study.
D)laboratory study.
Answer: C
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Q1) Empty calories are:
A)from added sugars and/or solid fats.
B)contributed by junk foods and are completely banned in a healthy diet.
C)suggested to be limited to 50% of the kcals in a healthy diet.
D)the kcals consumed when an eating plan other than MyPlate is followed.
Answer: A
Q2) The three main categories in the Exchange List are carbohydrate,meat and meat substitutes,and:
A)protein.
B)fiber.
C)fruits & vegetables.
D)fat.
Answer: D
Q3) Food Disappearance Surveys are used to identify:
A)general trends in food intake among a population.
B)processing losses.
C)at-risk groups in the population.
D)marketing trends.
Answer: A
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Q1) The internal lining of the gastrointestinal tract is the: A)submucosa.
B)serosa.
C)muscularis.
D)mucosa.
Answer: D
Q2) The most important roles of the digestive system include digestion and:
A)metabolism.
B)absorption.
C)circulation.
D)excretion.
Answer: B
Q3) During ________________,the digestive system can absorb whole intact proteins.
A)infancy
B)aging adulthood
C)adulthood
D)childhood
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is likely to increase ketone production?
A)Untreated diabetes
B)Starvation
C)A very low carbohydrate diet
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) The concentration of glucose in the blood is primarily regulated by:
A)pancreatic enzymes.
B)pancreatic hormones.
C)enzymes in the membranes of cells lining the small intestine.
D)hormones released by the GI tract.
Q3) A well-documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is:
A)dental caries.
B)Type 1 diabetes.
C)diverticular disease.
D)constipation.
Q4) Which of the following is true of colon cancer?
A)High fiber and whole grain intake may reduce the risk.
B)Changes in DNA underlie the development of colonic tumors.
C)Environmental carcinogens are thought to cause many cancers.
D)All of these statements are true.
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Q1) Most fatty acids in food and in the body are bound to a molecule called: A)cholesterol.
B)phospholipids.
C)lecithin.
D)glycerol.
Q2) What is hydrogenation and why do food manufacturers use hydrogenated fats in food production?
Q3) The end of a fatty acid chain containing a methyl group is also referred to as the __________ end.
A)omega
B)alpha
C)delta
D)acid
Q4) A strong correlation exists between the development of colon cancer and diets: A)high in fish.
B)high in grains and cereals.
C)with moderate amounts of alcohol.
D)high in animal fats.

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Q5) Explain what happens after lipids are digested and absorbed into the intestinal cell.
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Q1) Isoflavones are chemically similar to the hormone:
A)testosterone.
B)cortisol.
C)estrogen.
D)insulin.
Q2) Which of the following functions is performed by proteins in the body?
A)Transport
B)Structure
C)Immunity
D)All of these functions are performed by proteins.
Q3) The process of ___________ involves copying the DNA code from the gene to a molecule of mRNA.
A)transcription.
B)nuclear shuttling.
C)transamination.
D)translation.
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Q1) The three components of energy expenditure are:
A)basal metabolism,energy consumption and protein metabolism.
B)basal metabolism,physical activity and diet-induced thermogenesis.
C)basal metabolism,resting heat conductance and consumptive capacity.
D)physical activity,sleeping and eating.
Q2) Which individual would have the lowest recommended energy intake,per unit of body weight?
A)A 2-month old infant
B)An 80-year old female
C)A 26- year old woman,in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy
D)An adolescent male
Q3) Energy is stored in the body primarily as __________ and ___________.
A)glycogen,triglycerides
B)protein,glucose
C)muscle,glycogen
D)glucose,triglycerides
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Q1) Which physiologic process requires vitamin B ?
A)Division of red blood cells
B)Synthesis of proteins
C)Activation of niacin
D)Maintenance of myelin and normal nerve transmission
Q2) Which statement about niacin is true?
A)There is no UL established for niacin intake.
B)Niacin is important in the production of energy from dietary nutrients.
C)Niacin deficiency causes adverse effects in limited areas of the body.
D)Niacin is needed to synthesize tryptophan.
Q3) Which food is the best source of folate?
A)Lentils
B)Chicken
C)Cheese
D)Brown rice
Q4) Which group of people is most at risk for developing thiamin deficiency?
A)Tobacco users
B)Endurance athletes
C)Older adults
D)Chronic alcoholics

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Q1) Which form of vitamin A is involved in vision?
A)Beta-carotene
B)Lycopene
C)Retinal
D)Retinoic acid
Q2) The primary function of vitamin E is:
A)to act as an antioxidant.
B)to increase absorption of calcium in the small intestine.
C)to regulate acid-base balance.
D)to regulate glucose levels.
Q3) Which is NOT considered a good dietary source of vitamin E?
A)Fortified breakfast cereals
B)Soybean oil
C)Peanuts
D)Dark orange and yellow vegetables
Q4) Which food contains the highest amount of vitamin E?
A)Almonds
B)Cheese
C)Oatmeal
D)Beef liver
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Q1) Which property makes water a good solvent?
A)Covalent nature
B)Electroneutrality
C)Hydrophobicity
D)Polarity
Q2) The UL for sodium intake is _______ mg/day.
A)1000
B)1850
C)2300
D)One has not been established
Q3) Sodium,chloride,and potassium in cells and body fluids are examples of:
A)phytates.
B)electrolytes.
C)condensates.
D)solvents.
Q4) Which statement concerning electrolyte imbalance is true?
A)It can cause sudden heart failure.
B)It can occur in anorexia nervosa.
C)It can disturb acid base balance.
D)All of these statements are true.
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Q1) Calcium absorption is highest in:
A)infancy.
B)young adults.
C)older adults.
D)after menopause.
Q2) Which of the following has been the most effective in decreasing post-menopausal bone loss?
A)Fluoride treatment
B)Hormone replacement therapy
C)Supplemental vitamin C
D)Aerobic exercise plus multi-vitamins
Q3) How do the phosphorus content of oranges,yogurt,and chicken compare? Which is the BEST source of phosphorus?
Q4) The recommended intake of sulfur for adults is _____ mg/d.
A)500
B)700
C)1000
D)There is no recommended intake.
Q5) How do parathyroid hormone and calcitonin maintain blood calcium levels?
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Q6) What functions does phosphorus have in the body?
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Q1) Of the following,_______ is (are)the best source of zinc.
A)apples
B)refined grains
C)chocolate
D)red meat
Q2) Which is the most sensitive indicator of iron stores in the body?
A)Ferritin
B)Hematocrit
C)Hemoglobin
D)Transferrin
Q3) The richest source(s)of copper in the diet is (are):
A)organ meats such as liver and kidney.
B)brewer's yeast.
C)avocados.
D)chicken and turkey.
Q4) What role does soil selenium content play in Keshan Disease?
Q5) What is the role of selenium in Keshan disease?
Q6) What is the function of hemoglobin in the body?
Q7) Why is fluoride commonly added to drinking water?
Q8) What are consequences of a zinc deficient diet?
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Q1) Which macronutrient(s)can be utilized to produce ATP in the absence of oxygen?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fats
C)Proteins
D)All of the above
Q2) For exercise lasting less than one hour,the preferred drink is:
A)water.
B)half water and half fruit juice.
C)sports drinks.
D)any type of fruit juice.
Q3) ______________ is needed for transport of fatty acids into mitochondria.
A)Acetyl-CoA
B)Fatty acid interacting protein (FAIP)
C)Carnitine
D)Creatine
Q4) The health benefits of exercise include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)decreased blood pressure.
B)increased HDL cholesterol.
C)decreased insulin sensitivity of tissues.
D)reduced risk of osteoporosis.

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Q1) Describe the function of the placenta during pregnancy.
Q2) During pregnancy,critical periods correspond to:
A)times during growth and development when an organism is more susceptible to harm from poor nutrition or other environmental factors.
B)socioeconomic factors that increase the risk of poor pregnancy outcomes.
C)maternal weight gain.
D)the positioning of the infant in the pelvic cavity.
Q3) Energy requirements per unit of body weight in newborn infants are __________ those of an adult.
A)greater than B)less than
C)approximately equal to D)dependent on the size of the infant
Q4) Neural tube defects in offspring are most closely associated with:
A)maternal folate status.
B)inadequate calcium intake.
C)alcohol consumption during pregnancy.
D)excess protein intake.
Q5) Explain how maternal age can influence pregnancy outcomes.
Q6) How does gaining TOO LITTLE weight during pregnancy affect fetal birth weight?
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Q1) Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient in a vegetarian diet?
A)Iron
B)Complex carbohydrates
C)Vitamin C
D)Potassium
Q2) What are limitations associated with growth charts in terms of assessing growth (weight and height)in children?
Q3) Which of the following is a TRUE statement?
A)Obesity is uncommon in American children.
B)Obese children should be put on a very low-kcal diet (<500 kcal/day)
C)Children in the 10th percentile or below on growth charts are classified as obese.
D)Obese children are more likely to develop the chronic diseases common in obese adults (type 2 diabetes,high blood cholesterol,high blood pressure).
Q4) What growth parameters are used to assess nutritional status in children? How do these parameters change in response to inadequate energy intake?
Q5) Differentiate between a food intolerance and a food allergy.
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Q1) Of the following choices,which is MOST likely to result in a decreased risk of a fractured bone in an older person?
A)Eating plenty of calcium-containing foods as a teenager
B)Eating plenty of eggs and dairy foods after the age of 50
C)Taking a glucosamine supplement
D)Limiting one's exposure to the sun
Q2) Inadequate zinc status in older adults can cause which of the following?
A)Reduced immune function
B)Reduced wound healing
C)Loss of taste acuity
D)All of these
Q3) Explain why older adults have differing nutritional needs due to physiological changes as well as disease and prescription drug use.How can good exercise and dietary habits prevent deterioration due to aging?
Q4) Which of the following physical changes is NOT common in the elderly?
A)Decreased capacity to smell
B)Increased sensitivity to taste
C)Increased incidence of blindness
D)Decreased stomach acid
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Q1) Why are hikers particularly susceptible to Giardia? How can they prevent being infected?
Q2) Which statement about organic farming techniques is FALSE?
A)Organic produce can cause microbial food-borne illness.
B)Organic farming is more ecologically sound than standard farming methods.
C)Organic foods are usually cheaper.
D)Organic farming decreases,but does not eliminate,pesticides in foods.
Q3) Alicia recently became pregnant.She read that women who are pregnant should avoid some types of fish because of possible danger to the growing fetus.Why do you think this recommendation exists? What recommendations do you have for Alicia?
Q4) A case of foodborne illness is suspected to have originated in a local fast food restaurant.If a HACCP system were in place at the restaurant,what records might the investigators be interested in? How might having a HACCP system make the investigation more efficient?
Q5) The hormone,bovine somatotropin (bST),is injected into cows to:
A)accelerate muscle (meat)growth.
B)increase milk production.
C)increase the likelihood of multiple births.
D)reduce infections.
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Q1) Which is NOT a true statement about organizations dedicated to relieving world hunger?
A)The goal of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)is to provide assistance in disasters.
B)The World Bank finances food supplementation and fortification projects.
C)UNICEF works to improve the health and lives of children.
D)World Health Organization (WHO)emphasizes prevention of nutritional problems.
Q2) Worldwide,over ___ of the deaths in children under the age of 5 are due to under-nutrition.
A)10%
B)20%
C)1/3
D)1/2
Q3) Modern,large-scale farming can do all of the following EXCEPT:
A)result in increased yields in food production.
B)result in depleted soil.
C)use very little energy.
D)contaminate groundwater.
Q4) Explain how malnutrition cycles from one generation to the next.
Q5) How does lack of education contribute to food insecurity among the poor?
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Q1) Binge drinking for a male is when ___ or more drinks are consumed on a single occasion.
A)5
B)8
C)10
D)12
Q2) Alcoholism is influenced by all of the following except A)age when drinking starts. B)genetics.
C)environment.
D)type of alcohol consumed.
Q3) Alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol to A)ADH.
B)nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide.
C)pyruvate
D)acetaldehyde.
Q4) Angie is going to a party where she knows alcohol will be served.What strategies can she use to reduce her risk of becoming intoxicated?
Q5) How is alcohol absorbed across the digestive tract? What factors alter the rate of absorption?
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Q1) Eating disorders not otherwise specified (EDNOS)accounts for over ___% of the people with eating disorders
A)5
B)25
C)50
D)75.
Q2) The most dangerous aspect of Anorexia nervosa is:
A)amenorrhea
B)the habit of using body weight and shape as a means of evaluating oneself.
C)excessive exercise
D)If left untreated it can be fatal.
Q3) The starvation associated with anorexia causes which of the following except:
A)cardiac irregularities
B)decline in sex hormones
C)apathy,exhaustion and depression
D).all of the following
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Q1) Including flaxseed in the diets of laying hens
A)increases omega-3 fats in the eggs.
B)provides an egg that is low in cholesterol.
C)increases the indoles in the eggs.
D)increases the flavonoids in the eggs.
Q2) Which statement about the dietary recommendations for whole grains is correct?
A)The recommendation is for 6 servings of whole grains per day.
B)The recommendation is to get half of the grain servings from whole grains.
C)Most Americans consume more whole grains than is recommended.
D)Most Americans consume just the right amount of whole grain servings per day.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct function of alliums?
A)Bind cholesterol in the gut.
B)Boost the activity of cancer destroying enzyme systems.
C)Inactivate the hormone estrogen.
D)Activate sex hormones.
Q4) Which statement about phytoestrogens is incorrect?
A)Phytoestrogens are modified by bacteria in the mouth.
B)Phytoestrogens are found in flaxseed,soybeans and barley.
C)Phytoestrogens may protect against some types of cancer..
D)Phytoestrogens may protect against osteoporosis.
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Q1) Which supplement is a component of phospholipids in cell membranes?
A)carnitine
B)inositol
C)SAM-e
D)glucosamine
Q2) Supplements of the amino acid L-tryptophan
A)taken before exercise boost growth hormone release.
B)increase muscle mass.
C)enhance exercise performance.
D)have been linked to a potentially deadly blood disorder.
Q3) The dietary supplement labels contain all of the following except:
A)the recommended serving size
B)the name and quantity of each ingredient
C)the Daily Value for those ingredients that have one
D)the safety guarantee
Q4) You are at a dinner party and realize that seven of the ten people at the table are taking some type of herbal supplement.Comment on the nutritional impact of taking herbal supplements.
Q5) Why is it unsafe for some people to take beta-carotene supplements?
Q6) Are the benefits of amino acid supplementation worth the risk? Why or why not?
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Q1) Which statement about genetically modified foods and allergens is incorrect?
A)Biotechnology companies monitor the allergenic potential of proteins used for plant genetic engineering.
B)Potentially allergenic soybeans were kept from entering the market in 1996.
C)The products of new genes could cause people to have an allergic reaction to previously safe foods.
D)Because of the mandatory testing system,individuals with food allergies can assume that new foods are safe.
Q2) What proportion of consumers want to have genetically modified food products labeled as such?
A)18%.
B)28%
C)2/3
D)3/4
Q3) How is genetic engineering being used to make foods more nutritious?
Q4) How can vitamin A deficiency be reduced through genetic engineering of staple foods like rice?
Q5) How could the use of GM as illustrated result in foods that may cause harm for consumers?
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