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Introduction to Nursing Research provides an overview of the fundamental concepts, methods, and processes involved in conducting research within the nursing profession. The course emphasizes the importance of evidence-based practice in improving patient care and healthcare outcomes. Students are introduced to the steps of the research process, including formulating research questions, reviewing literature, designing studies, collecting and analyzing data, and interpreting findings. Ethical considerations in nursing research, critical appraisal of published studies, and the role of nurses as research consumers and contributors are also explored, preparing students to integrate research evidence into clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Nursing Research 8th Edition by
Geri LoBiondoWood
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Q1) Which statement describes the role of the nurse in research?
A) Nurses must be prepared at the baccalaureate or higher level of education to have any role in nursing research.
B) Nurses with master's or higher levels of education are solely responsible for applying research to clinical practice.
C) The research role of nurses prepared at both baccalaureate and master's levels of education includes critical appraisal skills.
D) Regardless of the nursing education level, only the nurse with the most comprehensive understanding of statistical methods should interpret research findings.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the primary value of evidence-based nursing practice?
A) Implementing the most cost-effective nursing practices when providing patient care
B) Incorporating research findings with clinical expertise when individualizing patient care
C) Separating nursing research as unique from the research of other disciplines
D) Developing new nursing theories to promote the growth of nursing science
Answer: B
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Q1) How is a hypothesis related to a theory?
A) Hypotheses can be developed in the absence of a theoretical framework.
B) Hypotheses must be consistent with an existing theoretical framework.
C) A theory can determine the validity of a hypothesis.
D) A theory can be used to evaluate the merit of a hypothesis.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of these statements is correctly phrased as a clinical question for evidence-based practice?
A) What is the best method to insert an enteral feeding tube in an adult patient?
B) Are there differences in the characteristics of various brands of enteral feeding tubes?
C) In addition to aspiration, what are the most problematic complications of enteral tube feedings?
D) What method of determining stomach placement of enteral feeding tubes helps to prevent aspiration in adult patients?
Answer: D
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Q1) A general timeline for a literature search for an academic paper or project is to go back how far in the literature?
A) At least the last 6 months to 2 years
B) At least the past 3 to 5 years
C) At least the past 6 to 10 years
D) At least the past 12 to 15 years
Answer: B
Q2) A research article has undergone a blind review for a peer-reviewed journal. The nurse reading the research article should understand which of the following about this review process?
A) The reviewers of the article did not know the identity of the other reviewers.
B) The reviewers of the article did not know the identity of the author.
C) The criteria used to review the article were not known to the author.
D) The criteria used to review the article were determined by the reviewers.
Answer: B
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Q1) How is a model related to a concept or concepts?
A) A model tests conceptual theories.
B) A concept defines the purpose of a model.
C) Relationships between or among concepts are demonstrated in a model.
D) Concepts generate the theoretical basis for knowledge depicted in a model.
Q2) Situation-specific nursing theories are becoming more popular in nursing research for which of these reasons?
A) Increased emphasis on evidence-based practice
B) Increased need for broad and generalizable models to explain phenomena
C) Decreased resources for funding of grand theory development
D) Decreased use of theories borrowed from other disciplines
Q3) A graphic or symbolic representation of a phenomenon not directly observable, which allows the reader to visualize key constructs and their interrelationships, is called what?
A) A concept
B) A conceptual definition
C) An operational definition
D) A model
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Q1) Which type of clinical application of qualitative research would help a nurse describe the trajectory of an illness?
A) Insight or empathy
B) Assessment of status or progress
C) Anticipatory guidance
D) Coaching
Q2) Which of Kearney's categories of qualitative findings describes a synthesis of a shared experience or process or integration of concepts that provides a complex picture of a phenomenon?
A) Restricted by a priori frameworks
B) Descriptive categories
C) Shared pathway or meaning
D) Depiction of experiential variation
Q3) Which of these terms is synonymous with paradigm?
A) Empiricism
B) Worldview
C) Holism
D) Viewpoint
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Q1) Why is the literature review often limited in a study using grounded theory methods?
A) Research using grounded theory methods is sparse.
B) Grounded theory is more sensitive to cultural values than to the researcher's values.
C) Theories are expected to emerge directly from the data and not from previous research.
D) Limiting the literature review ensures that the researcher's personal biases are bracketed.
Q2) When reviewing the report of a phenomenologic study, the nurse finds there is no section that describes or reports the research question. What approach should be used to determine the research question?
A) Examination of the themes that emerged from the study
B) Examination of the data analysis methods used in the study
C) Examination of the questions or statements posed to the study participants
D) Examination and critical analysis of the articles reported in the literature review
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Q1) Which outcome or overall purpose would be consistent with a qualitative study?
A) Development of creative solutions to practical problems
B) Prediction and control of a human phenomenon
C) Description of behavior within a context-free theoretical framework
D) Use of statistical analyses to determine significant differences between variables
Q2) When critiquing a qualitative research study, the nurse asks, "Has the researcher remained true to the data?" This question is critiquing which area of the report?
A) Method
B) Data collection
C) Data analysis
D) Findings
Q3) One outcome of collecting evidence about a phenomenon of interest in a qualitative research study may be what?
A) Triangulation
B) Participant cross-checking
C) Metasynthesis
D) Instrument development
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Q1) A nurse researcher is designing a quantitative research study involving a specific group of patients admitted to local hospitals. Which factor would negatively affect the feasibility of this study?
A) The local region has a high percentage of families that could participate in the study.
B) Potential study subjects represented less than 1% of hospital admissions during the year previous to the study.
C) Study participants who were hospitalized children younger than 5 years could not give direct informed consent to participate in the study.
D) A comprehensive review of the literature revealed no studies were conducted that examined this question during the past 15 years.
Q2) How could a nurse researcher's use of a homogeneous sample weaken a research study?
A) By decreasing the reliability of the findings
B) By decreasing the generalizability of the findings
C) By increasing the number of subjects needed to reach statistical significance
D) By increasing the risk that the findings were the result of chance alone
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Q1) How are threats to validity affected when studies are conducted in real-world settings?
A) Threats to both internal and external validity are increased.
B) Threats to both internal and external validity are decreased.
C) Threats to internal validity are decreased, whereas threats to external validity are increased.
D) Threats to internal validity are increased, while threats to external validity are decreased.
Q2) Which factor should be the primary consideration when determining the validity of experimental study findings?
A) The extent to which the researcher controlled intervening variables
B) The number of subjects who dropped out of the control and experimental groups
C) The credentials and previous experience of the researcher
D) The number of persons involved in the data collection process
Q3) In a true experimental study, the control group is the group that does what?
A) Receives the experimental treatment
B) Receives the placebo treatment
C) Experiences the adverse results
D) Experiences the reactive effects
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Q1) What study design allows study participants to serve as their own controls, allowing early trends in the data to emerge?
A) Cross-sectional
B) Ex post facto
C) Retrospective
D) Longitudinal
Q2) Why would a nurse researcher choose not to use a survey study design?
A) Data analysis is limited with a survey design.
B) Information collected is relatively superficial.
C) Results are never applicable beyond the study population.
D) More subjects are required to reach statistical significance than for other study designs.
Q3) A nurse researcher would choose to use a correlational study of multiple variables for which purpose?
A) To identify the independent variable
B) To test whether one variable causes another variable
C) To examine relationships between or among variables
D) To distinguish how different one variable is from another variable
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Q1) ___ abstract
Q2) ____ types of participants
Q3) ___ objectives of the search
Q4) ___ plain language summary
Q5) ___ results
Q6) Which are methods for searching and integrating the literature related to a specific clinical issue? (Select all that apply.)
A) Meta-analysis
B) Systematic review
C) Cochrane collaboration
D) Integrative review
Q7) ___ discussion
Q8) ___ authors and contact person
Q9) ___ data collection
Q10) ___ references and tables

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Q11) The highest level of evidence is known to be provided by what?
A) Meta-analysis
B) Systematic review
C) Effect size
D) Integrative review
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Q1) A nurse researcher should attempt to clearly specify exclusion criteria for a study sample because such criteria will do what?
A) Limit the time needed to complete the study
B) Reduce the effect of extraneous variables on the accurate evaluation of the outcome variable
C) Eliminate the outside influences and inferences regarding the effectiveness of a behavioral intervention
D) Ensure that an adequate sample size is accrued to meet assumptions for accurate statistical analysis
Q2) The nurse researcher is deciding on a sampling strategy for the research study. Which type(s) of strategies would be considered to be probability sampling strategies? (Select all that apply.)
A) Convenience
B) Quota
C) Simple random
D) Cluster
E) Purposive
F) Stratified random
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Q1) An adult participant receives an informed consent form to participate in a study on breast cancer in women younger than the age of 35. The study's informed consent process should include which elements? (Select all that apply.)
A) The participant's meeting the IRB members who approved the study
B) The participant's being informed of risks associated with the study
C) The participant's being informed of the study protocol
D) The participant's being given the right to decline participation at any time
E) The participant's being assured that her confidentiality will be maintained
Q2) The issue of personal privacy may be more difficult for nurse researchers to protect in qualitative studies than it is in quantitative studies for which reason?
A) Participants may be related to each other.
B) The researcher meets face to face with most participants.
C) Participants are not asked to sign an informed consent statement.
D) Verbatim quotations from participants may reveal personal information.
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Q1) The nurse researcher's use of a focus group interview with audio recording of group interactions would be considered to be an observational role of what?
A) Concealment with intervention
B) Concealment without intervention
C) No concealment with intervention
D) No concealment without intervention
Q2) What should the nurse researcher expect to be the difference between data collection for patient care and data collection for the purposes of research?
A) For patient care, data are obtained from the patient and medical record; for research, data are obtained only from the patient.
B) Data collection for research may include direct patient quotations; in patient care, recording of direct quotations is avoided.
C) During research data collection, there is no direct interaction between the nurse and the patient.
D) Data collection for research purposes must be objective and systematic.
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Q1) A group of researchers developing an instrument performed a test-retest on the instrument with an interval of 5 days. This testing resulted in a correlation coefficient of 0.38. The nurse researcher interprets this as being indicative of what?
A) Instrument is stable; high reliability
B) Instrument is stable; low reliability
C) Instrument is unstable; high reliability
D) Instrument is unstable; low reliability
Q2) A newly developed instrument is found to have a Cronbach's alpha of 0.82. The nurse researcher interprets this to mean what?
A) The instrument has no internal consistency.
B) The instrument has a low degree of internal consistency.
C) The instrument has a moderate degree of internal consistency.
D) The instrument has a relatively high degree of internal consistency.
Q3) When the nurse researcher demonstrates that an instrument is highly reliable, which type of error is reduced?
A) Random error
B) Variance error
C) Persistent error
D) Systematic error
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Q1) The nurse researcher is interested in using nominal level data. The object or event that could be used if nominal-level data are of primary interest is what?
A) Test scores
B) Education level
C) Marital status
D) Weight
Q2) The nurse researcher is using the percentage of nurses holding various nursing degrees as a variable in a research study. Which type of statistics is most appropriate in this case?
A) Inferential statistics
B) Descriptive statistics
C) Nonparametric statistics
D) Mathematical statistics
Q3) The nurse researcher opts to use a measure of variability. Which measure of variability does the researcher recognize as being most unstable?
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) Semiquartile range

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Q1) Which section of the report allows a nurse researcher to review reduction of data in the form of tables and figures?
A) Results
B) Discussion
C) Literature review
D) Methods
Q2) Which section of the report allows a nurse researcher to review all data, including data that are not significant?
A) Results
B) Discussion
C) Literature review
D) Methods
Q3) When presenting results, it is essential that investigators avoid what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Opinion
B) Bias
C) Reactionary statements
D) Data
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Q1) A comparison study investigating the levels of depression in blind and sighted adolescents does not use a hypothesis. Does the lack of a hypothesis in this study represent a weakness? Why or why not?
A) Not a weakness; study is descriptive
B) Not a weakness; study is quasi-experimental
C) Is a weakness; study is descriptive
D) Is a weakness; study is quasi-experimental
Q2) A study includes this statement: "The fact that the inventory [instrument] was administered verbally introduced a potential bias of social desirability." This is indicative of what?
A) Implications for practice
B) Limitations of the study
C) Generalizability of the study
D) Recommendations for future research
Q3) The critique of a quantitative research report should include what?
A) Applying the findings in clinical practice
B) Summarizing the major steps of the research process
C) Constructively evaluating a study for its strengths and weaknesses
D) Determining whether the phenomenon studied by participants can be recognized as their own
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Q1) How should the nurse researcher most accurately interpret a relative risk that is equal to 1.0?
A) There is no difference between the experimental and control group outcomes.
B) The risk of the event is reduced in EER compared with CER.
C) The risk of an event is greater in EER compared with CER.
D) Difference in risk of outcome between patients who have had the event and those who have not.
Q2) Absolute risk reduction is most accurately calculated as what?
A) EER + CER
B) EER - CER/CER
C) EER - CER
D) EER/CER
Q3) Relative risk reduction is most accurately calculated as what?
A) EER + CER
B) EER - CER/CER
C) EER - CER
D) EER/CER
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Q1) Which approach is useful to evaluate an EBP standard after providers have written it?
A) Nursing staff meeting
B) Focus group
C) Patient safety committee
D) Quality improvement committee
Q2) To determine the guiding steps involved in actualizing EBP, the researcher should expect to study the Iowa Model of Evidence-Based Practice to Promote Quality Care in conjunction with what?
A) Evidence-Based Medicine Reviews
B) Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews
C) Rogers' Diffusion of Innovation Model
D) The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)'s National Guideline Clearinghouse
Q3) ___ determine methods and frequency of data collection
Q4) Steps of Evaluation for Evidence-Based Projects
Q5) ___ identify process and outcome variables of interest
Q6) ___ provide "on-site" feedback to staff regarding the progress in achieving the practice change
Q7) ___ collect data at specified intervals

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Q1) What is a standardized survey and data collection method for measuring patients' perspectives on hospital care?
A) Physician Quality Reporting Initiative
B) Home Health Compare
C) The Leapfrog Group
D) Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems
Q2) Alignment of improvement activities at all levels to an organization's strategic intent
A)Customer focus/patient focus
B)Leadership
C)Involvement of people
D)Process approach
E)System approach to management
F)Continual improvement
G)Factual approach to decision making
H)Mutually beneficial supplier relationships
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