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Introduction to Nursing Practice Test Preparation - 676 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Nursing Practice Test Preparation

Course Introduction

Introduction to Nursing Practice provides students with foundational knowledge and skills essential for a nursing career. The course explores the principles and practices of patient-centered care, nursing ethics, effective communication, and safety in healthcare settings. Students gain practical experience through simulation labs and clinical placements, learning basic nursing procedures such as hygiene, mobility assistance, vital sign assessment, and documentation. Emphasis is placed on developing professional behaviors, understanding the healthcare teams role, and fostering critical thinking to meet the holistic needs of patients across the lifespan.

Recommended Textbook

Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen

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17 Chapters

676 Verified Questions

676 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1169

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140

Sample Questions

Q1) ____ explains the processes and functions of many structures of the body and how they interact with one another.

A) Anatomy

B) Mitosis

C) Filtration

D) Physiology

Answer: D

Q2) Cardiac tissue is striated, involuntary tissue that branches out to form networks found only in the wall of the heart. This type of tissue is

A) epithelial.

B) connective.

C) muscle.

D) nervous.

Answer: C

Q3) A muscle that separates the ventral cavity into the thoracic and abdominal cavity is called the ________________________.

Answer: diaphragm

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23141

Sample Questions

Q1) Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the ______________ period and continues through the _____________ period.

Answer: preoperative, recuperative

Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the preoperative and continues through the recuperative period.

Q2) ______________ therapy is performed to alleviate or decrease uncomfortable symptoms without curing the problem.

Answer: Palliative

Palliative therapy is designed to relieve or reduce intensity of uncomfortable symptoms without cure.

Q3) The Patient's Bill of Rights states that a patient must give his or her permission for any specific test or procedure to be performed. What is the legal term for this permission?

A) Verbal consent

B) Medical documentation

C) Informed consent

D) Informed decision

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Care of the Patient With an Integumentary Disorder

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23142

Sample Questions

Q1) A common diagnostic criterion for identifying systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is: (Select all that apply.)

A) butterfly rash over nose and cheeks

B) photosensitivity.

C) severe abdominal pain.

D) skin ulcers.

E) polyarthralgias and polyarthritis.

F) immobility.

Answer: A, B, E

Q2) A patient, age 63, has cancer of the left breast. After a modified radical mastectomy, she has been receiving chemotherapy. Her grandson, who visited a few days ago, now has varicella (chickenpox). The nurse should observe her carefully for signs of

A) herpes zoster.

B) herpes simplex type I.

C) herpes simplex type II.

D) impetigo.

Answer: A

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5

Chapter 4: Care of the Patient With a Musculoskeletal Disorder

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46 Verified Questions

46 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient, age 89, has had a right below-the-knee amputation. He is progressing well but continues to complain of pain in the toes on his right foot. The physician told him that he is suffering from "phantom pain" in his amputated extremity. He asks the nurse to explain phantom pain. The most appropriate response would be

A) "Phantom pain does not exist except in your mind."

B) "I can't answer that. You'll have to ask the physician."

C) "Phantom pain occurs because the nerve tracts that register pain in the amputated limb continue to send a message to the brain."

D) "Phantom pain occurs when you start thinking about your loss. It's best to keep your mind occupied with other things."

Q2) Which diagnostic exam is used to find pathological abnormalities of the brain?

A) CT scan

B) Nuclear medicine scan

C) MRI

D) Radiograph

Q3) A patient's patellar-femoral cartilage has deteriorated due to arthritis. The medial and lateral cartilage is undamaged. This patient is likely to undergo _________ knee replacement surgery.

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Chapter 5: Care of the Patient With a Gastrointestinal Disorder

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23144

Sample Questions

Q1) The most lethal complication of a peptic ulcer is

A) bleeding.

B) perforation.

C) severe pain.

D) gastric outlet obstruction.

Q2) After barium swallow contrast studies are performed, the nurse should ensure that the patient

A) drinks adequate amounts of water.

B) remains in bed for 6 hours.

C) eats nothing until the gag reflex returns.

D) expels all barium rectally.

Q3) A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Crohn's disease. What nursing interventions would be appropriate when caring for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) Daily weight

B) Monitor I & O every shift

C) Fluid restriction

D) Accessibility to bedside commode

Q4) Colonoscopy should be performed every ________ years.

Q5) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.

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Chapter

6: Care of the Patient With a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses a patient with cholecystitis. Which pain description is typical of biliary colic?

A) Substernal, radiating to the left shoulder and arm

B) Epigastric, radiating to the back

C) Right upper abdomen, radiating to the back or right shoulder

D) Left upper abdomen, radiating to the jaw and neck

Q2) The patient's cirrhosis of the liver has also caused a dilation of the veins of her lower esophagus secondary to vessel hypertension, resulting in her developing the complications of:

A) Varices

B) Diverticulosis

C) Crohn's disease

D) Achalasia cyst

Q3) When a patient has hepatic encephalopathy, medications often administered to relieve toxic blood chemistry include:

A) vasopressin, Capoten.

B) milk of magnesia, Metamucil.

C) neomycin, lactulose.

D) HydroDIURIL.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Care of the Patient With a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23146

Sample Questions

Q1) The element that makes up 55% of the blood is A) plasma.

B) RBCs.

C) WBCs.

D) platelets.

Q2) Many older adults suffer from conditions such as colonic diverticula, hiatal hernia, and ulcerations that can cause occult bleeding. Older adults with these conditions should be observed for A) leukemia.

B) iron deficiency anemia.

C) sickle cell anemia.

D) polycythemia.

Q3) Needed for adequate nerve functioning

A) Folic acid

B) Ferrous sulfate

C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>

D) Neupogen

Q4) _____________ are leukocytes which destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles.

Q5) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.

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Chapter 8:

Care of the Patient With a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23147

Sample Questions

Q1) A 56-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department with a myocardial infarction. Cardiac enzymes were drawn. In a patient with a myocardial infarction, which laboratory values would be abnormal?

A) Elevated levels of serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (AST), creatine phosphokinase (CPK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH), troponin 1

B) Decreased levels of SGOT (AST), CPK and LDH, troponin 1

C) Elevated levels of SGOT (AST), decreased levels of CPK and LDH, troponin 1

D) Decreased levels of SGOT (AST), increased levels of CPK and LDH, troponin 1

Q2) A patient has been admitted after the insertion of a pacemaker because of bradycardia. She asks what third-degree heart block is, and the nurse replies

A) "Coronary blood vessel occlusion causing slow contraction of the right ventricles."

B) "Sclerosis of cardiac valves causing slow pulse."

C) "A defect in AV junctions slows and impairs conduction of impulses from the SA node to the ventricles."

D) "Increased pressure in the pulmonary vessels."

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Care of the Patient With a Respiratory Disorder

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36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23148

Sample Questions

Q1) The appropriate nursing intervention for a patient, age 40, who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis would be to

A) place the patient in drainage and secretion precautions.

B) place the patient in acid-fast bacillus (AFB) isolation precautions.

C) maintain the patient in enteric isolation.

D) place the patient in any isolation precautions.

Q2) The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective airway clearance for a patient, age 64, who has undergone a pneumonectomy. A common etiology for this nursing diagnosis in patients who have had a pneumonectomy is

A) thick, copious secretions.

B) surgical incision pain.

C) presence of chest tubes.

D) mechanical ventilation.

Q3) Which test is a quick and reliable aid to diagnosis latent TB?

A) PPD skin test

B) Sputum smears

C) QFT-G

D) TB tine test

Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.

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Chapter 10: Care of the Patient With a Urinary Disorder

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23149

Sample Questions

Q1) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.

Q2) Which can reduce the risk of skin impairment secondary to urinary incontinence?

A) Decreasing fluid intake

B) Catheterization of the elderly patient

C) Limiting the use of medication (diuretics, etc.)

D) Frequent toileting and meticulous skin care

Q3) The amount of water that is eliminated with the urine is regulated by a complex mechanism within the nephron and influenced by a hormone from the posterior pituitary gland called

A) pitocin.

B) rennin hormone.

C) antidiuretic hormone.

D) ACTH.

Q4) Urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, retention, and incontinence are common with aging. These occur because of (Select all that apply.)

A) weakened musculature in the bladder and urethra.

B) 1,000 to 2,000 mL fluids per 24 hours.

C) diminished neurologic sensation combined with decreased bladder capacity.

D) increased hormonal changes and muscle strength.

E) the effects of medications such as diuretics.

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Chapter 11: Care of the Patient With an Endocrine Disorder

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23150

Sample Questions

Q1) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called _____________

Q2) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.

Q3) To prevent lipodystrophy, the nurse should administer insulin

A) at room temperature.

B) at body temperature.

C) straight from the refrigerator.

D) at any convenient temperature.

Q4) Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: (Select all that apply.)

A) irritability.

B) dry mouth.

C) tremors.

D) personality changes.

E) fruity breath.

F) deep respirations.

Q5) Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are tests to determine:

A) low levels of blood calcium.

B) high levels of blood calcium.

C) low levels of blood sodium.

D) high levels of blood sodium.

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Chapter 12: Care of the Patient With a Reproductive Disorder

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23151

Sample Questions

Q1) The patient, age 52, is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. After this procedure, the postoperative elevation of a patient's arm with proper positioning is important to prevent

A) vascular and lymph stasis, thus lymphedema.

B) drainage accumulation at the incisional site.

C) wound infection and dehiscence.

D) pleural effusion and respiratory distress.

Q2) At what age should a male be taught testicular self-exam (TSE)?

A) 10

B) 13

C) 15

D) 20

Q3) The patient, age 56, is a mother of nine children. She undergoes an anterior and posterior colporrhaphy for repair of a cystocele and rectocele. On her return from the postanesthesia care unit, the nurse would expect which finding on assessment?

A) Gauze vaginal packing

B) Rectal tube

C) Perineal dressings

D) Indwelling catheter

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Care of the Patient With a Visual or Auditory Disorder

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23152

Sample Questions

Q1) The priority nursing responsibility while caring for a patient with vertigo is A) safety.

B) comfort.

C) hygiene.

D) quiet.

Q2) A 32-year-old construction worker has suffered a penetrating wound to his right eye. The best intervention for anyone to perform at the scene while waiting to be transported to the hospital is to

A) gently remove the object.

B) wipe away the blood and tears.

C) cover both eyes with a paper cup and tape.

D) do nothing; rush to the hospital.

Q3) A patient has an infectious/inflammatory process of the eyelid. The primary goal of nursing intervention is

A) administering antibiotics.

B) flushing the eye with sterile ophthalmic solution.

C) maintaining bed rest.

D) preventing further infection.

Q4) Schiƶtz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.

Q5) Decreasing visual acuity is a sign of _________ __________.

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Chapter 14: Care of the Patient With a Neurologic Disorder

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23153

Sample Questions

Q1) An 83-year-old patient has had a stroke. He is right-handed and has a history of hypertension and "little" strokes. He presents with right hemiplegia. To afford him the best visual field, the nurse should approach him

A) from the right side.

B) from the left side.

C) from the center.

D) from either side.

Q2) A patient's neurological status deteriorates over hours, and a craniotomy is performed to evacuate the hematoma. Which nursing intervention is indicated to help decrease the threat of increased intracranial pressure?

A) Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.

B) Cluster nursing interventions to provide uninterrupted periods of rest.

C) Teach him to cough and deep breathe to prevent the necessity for suctioning.

D) Teach him to hold his breath and bear down while repositioning in bed.

Q3) The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure is

A) headache.

B) dilated pupil.

C) decreasing level of consciousness.

D) diplopia (double vision).

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Care of the Patient With an Immune Disorder

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient, age 28, is treated at the clinic with an injection of long-acting penicillin for a streptococcal throat infection. Her history reveals that she has received penicillin before with no allergic responses. When the penicillin injection is administered, which information should be given to the patient by the nurse?

A) Because she has taken penicillin before without problems, she can safely take it now.

B) She must wait in the clinic area for 20 minutes before she is discharged.

C) She would have immediate symptoms if she had developed an allergy to penicillin.

D) She should monitor for fever and skin rash typical of serum sickness after taking penicillin.

Q2) A patient, age 42, develops a severe angioedema involving her face, hands, and feet, with burning and stinging of the lesions. During the assessment, which significant risk factor for allergies does the nurse recognize?

A) Family history of allergies

B) History of a recent fungal infection

C) Use of OTC medications

D) Recurrent respiratory infections

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Chapter 16: Care of the Patient With HIV-Aids

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23155

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is concerned about telling others he has HIV infection. In discussing his concerns, which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Care providers and sexual partners should be told about his diagnosis.

B) There is no reason to hide his disease.

C) Secrecy is a poor idea because it will lower his self-esteem.

D) His diagnosis will be obvious to most people with whom he will come into contact.

Q2) Which nutritional intake will assist the patient in regaining lost weight? (Select all that apply.)

A) Increase fluid intake

B) Limit protein and fat intake

C) Offer nutritional supplements (Boost, Sustacal, etc.)

D) Eat several small meals during the day

E) Provide referrals to dietitians and social workers

F) Weigh patient monthly

Q3) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with HIV virus.

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Chapter 17: Care of the Patient With Cancer

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23156

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been told she will have a palliative surgery for her ovarian cancer. She wants to know what type of surgery that is and how it will help her. The nurse tells her that the surgery will

A) reduce symptoms.

B) remove tumors while still in the benign stage.

C) result in a cure.

D) aid in confirming a diagnosis.

Q2) Which of the following foods that are recommended for prevention of colorectal cancer in men. (Select all that apply.)

A) Oranges, peaches, pears

B) Pasta, bread, muffins

C) Bacon, pork, beef

D) Chicken, pinto beans, asparagus

E) Ice cream, cheese, butter

F) Pretzels, gelatin dessert, applesauce

Q3) Men over age 50 should have annual _________ tests and rectal examinations.

Q4) The term ____________ is used for various substances that are known to contribute to cancer.

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