Introduction to Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Nursing provides students with a comprehensive overview of the nursing profession, emphasizing the core principles, ethical responsibilities, and fundamental skills required in patient care. The course explores the historical development of nursing, the roles and functions of nurses within the healthcare system, and the importance of effective communication, critical thinking, and cultural sensitivity in clinical practice. Students are introduced to basic nursing theories, healthcare terminology, and foundational procedures, preparing them for further study and practical experience in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing 6th Edition by Linton
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56 Chapters
1705 Verified Questions
1705 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse could best refer an unemployed 42-year-old patient with renal failure who has lost his job-related private insurance to which health care plan for his medical care?
A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) Public health facility
D) Community-based outpatient clinic
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse explains that the mission of the Public Health Service (PHS)is to:(select all that applay)
A) Ensure safety of foods and cosmetics.
B) Provide access to health care services for low-income individuals.
C) Support medical research.
D) Support substance abuse prevention and treatment.
E) Monitor and prevent disease outbreaks.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
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Chapter 2: Patient Care Settings
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 80-year-old man newly admitted to a long-term care facility has suddenly become incontinent of urine at night.The nurse plans interventions to help restore self toileting by:
A) Waking the resident every 2 hours and escorting him to the bathroom.
B) Leaving a night light on.
C) Discouraging the use of long-legged pajama bottoms.
D) Placing a urinal at the bedside.
E) Keeping the room uncluttered.
Answer: B,C,D,E
Q2) When their grandmother was admitted to a long-term residential care facility,the family was assured by the admitting nurse that care,in keeping with the concepts of long-term care,would be based on:
A) Amount of activities the resident can do for herself
B) Maintenance care with an emphasis on incontinence
C) Successful adaptation to the regulations of the home
D) Maintenance of as much function as possible
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Legal and Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prioritize the steps in solving an ethical dilemma.
A) Evaluate the outcome.
B) Plan an approach.
C) Visualize the consequences.
D) Take action.
E) Identify the problem.
Answer: E,B,C,D,A
To solve an ethical dilemma,one must clearly identify the problem,plan an approach,visualize the consequences,take action,and evaluate the outcome.
Q2) The LPN/LVN reminds a group of nursing students that the values they demonstrate in their practice have their roots in:
A) Nursing school education
B) Family influence
C) Peer relationships
D) Agency policies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Leadership Role of the Licensed Practical
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To establish an effective team,the team leader must be able to:
A) Establish a clear purpose, and clarify its significance.
B) Be firm to maintain focus on one idea, not sidetracked by the ideas of others.
C) Listen to all input in an active manner.
D) Demonstrate concern for stress of the team members.
E) Be honest concerning own opinions and attitudes.
Q2) Some characteristics of both leaders and managers are the same.Such a characteristic is:
A) Motivational skills
B) Sympathy skills
C) Authoritarian style
D) Participative style
Q3) Planning,organizing,directing,and controlling are major functions of
Q4) Laissez-faire leadership is the opposite of:
A) Authoritarian
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Participative
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Chapter 5: The Nurse-Patient Relationship
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that a pamphlet called the "Patient Care Partnership" was created by the:
A) Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals
B) Medicare/Medicaid Act
C) Social Security Act
D) American Hospital Association
Q2) The nurse,as a unique person,brings to each practice-patient relationship qualities such as knowledge,experiences,strengths,and weaknesses.The inclusive term used to describe this phenomenon is:
A) Personhood experiences
B) Physiologic influence
C) Sociologic influence
D) Use of self in nursing
Q3) The nurse assessing a patient's affect is trying to discern the patient's:
A) Problem
B) Mood
C) Orientation
D) Needs
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Chapter 6: Cultural Aspects of Nursing Care
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many Latino individuals believe in alternate health care practices,among which are:
A) Use of a folk healer
B) Folk remedies
C) Self-mutilation
D) Sweating in a smoke tent
E) Use of peyote
Q2) A practicing Hindu patient is dying but has orders for a full diet.However,the patient will accept only soups.The nurse should order which one of the following from the diet kitchen?
A) Beef broth with bits of tomatoes and potatoes
B) Puréed tomatoes, carrots, celery, and potatoes in a vegetable stock
C) Chicken stock with rice noodles and celery
D) Finely chopped roast beef and mashed rice with vegetable broth gravy
Q3) The nurse explains that a Hindu refers to the record of his or her life and its accomplishments as ____________________.
Q4) The Asian theory of hot and cold as a source of illness is based on the imbalance of the four ____________________.
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8
Chapter 7: The Nurse and the Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the nurse is preparing the patient for a colonoscopy,the patient states that she is nervous about the procedure but knows it will help her physician diagnose her problem.The nurse assesses that this patient is using the coping strategy of:
A) Internal family coping by interpreting events in a positive manner
B) Internal family coping by relieving anxiety and tension with humor
C) External family coping by seeking social support
D) External family coping by depersonalizing the procedure
Q2) The current view of the family as a unit would generally best be described as:
A) Functioning together to provide security and support to its members
B) Functioning to meet the needs of society and support its members
C) A unit of two or more that shares common goals and mutual support
D) A unit of two or more joined together by mutual bonds and identity
Q3) The nurse clarifies that the main role of the nurse when assessing families and their coping strategies is:
A) Emotional support and reassurance
B) Information and reassurance
C) Emotional support and referral
D) Elimination of the stressor
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Chapter 8: Health and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is being discharged from same-day surgery after a tonsillectomy.The nurse is aware that the patient will be in the phase of general adaptation syndrome,in which the body begins to heal after injury.This is called the:
A) Alarm stage
B) Resistance stage
C) Exhaustion stage
D) Initial stage
Q2) When the caregiver is frustrated and is complaining of being overwhelmed,the nurse can assist by:
A) Taking over the care.
B) Referring the caregiver to a support group.
C) Seeking assistance from a home health agency.
D) Listening to the caregiver's concerns.
E) Assisting in making a daily schedule for the caregiver to follow.
Q3) A tendency of biologic systems to maintain stability of the internal environment while continually adjusting to changes is ____________________.
Q4) The nurse describes yoga as an alternative therapy that creates a __________________ intervention.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The foods that have the least amount of fat are:
A) Vegetables, cottonseed oil, and safflower oil
B) Fruits, vegetables, and cereal grains
C) Milk, cheese, and ice cream
D) Bagels, cream cheese, and ham
Q2) Because the patient is on a low-fat diet,the nurse takes into consideration that his diet should include water-soluble vitamins such as:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B complex
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin K
Q3) The nurse counsels the patient to avoid saturated fats such as:
A) Butter
B) Olive oil
C) Coconut oil
D) Canola oil
E) Palm oil
Q4) The nurse calculates the needed kilocalories (kcal)for a 150-pound moderately active person to be ____________________.
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Chapter 10: Developmental Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Young adulthood is a time in which an individual:
A) Earns most of his or her money, pays most of the taxes, and has most of the power in business.
B) Settles down to a career, raises a family, and takes on new responsibilities.
C) Experiences personal freedom, and enjoys maximum influence over others.
D) Focuses on many adjustments that must be made to physiologic, psychologic, and social changes.
Q2) The nurse assesses that the 22-year-old woman who is totally committed to her career and who does not date or socialize is experiencing the Eriksonian crises of ____________________.
Q3) The unmarried 21-year-old patient,admitted to the hospital the day before,has had visitors from his work and church who come and go continually.The nurse assesses this display from friends as part of the developmental process of young adults who:
A) Require many superficial relationships
B) Do not require much rest for recovery
C) Are socially oriented
D) Need to combat loneliness
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Older Patient
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 78-year-old resident of a long-term care facility insists on wearing high heels and miniskirts to the dining room for meals and will not leave her room without first applying glamorous makeup.The gerontologic nurse assesses that the behavior is related to:
A) Insecurity about her appearance.
B) Trying to cope with the changes of aging.
C) Denial concerning her advancing age.
D) Her fashion consciousness.
Q2) Prerequisites for the nurse working with the geriatric patient include an understanding that:
A) Specialized knowledge is needed.
B) The geriatric patient will be physically impaired.
C) Most geriatric patients will develop dementia.
D) The geriatric patient will need to be closely supervised.
Q3) The nurse explains that the effects of aging on the nervous system result in:
A) Accelerated loss of neurons in the brain.
B) Gradually declining loss of intellectual capability.
C) Decreased conduction speed of neurons.
D) Loss of long-term memory.
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Chapter 12: The Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of critical thinking include:
A) Interpretation, analysis, and evaluation
B) Patient-centered criteria and problem solving
C) Realistic outcomes and frequent evaluation
D) Data gathering and assessment
Q2) In PIE documentation,a type of POMR,the acronym PIE stands for ____________________,____________________ and ____________________.
Q3) The most effective documentation is:
A) 7/27; 9:45 AM; pt. vomited; pt. looked better after episode-A. Nurse, LPN
B) 7/27; 9:45 AM; pt. vomited large amount; reduced nausea
C) 7/27; 9:45 AM; pt. reported less nausea after vomiting-A. Nurse, LPN
D) 7/27; 0945; pt. vomited 200 ml of partially digested food; pt. states nausea has diminished-A. Nurse, LPN
Q4) The nurse who exhibits an open minded,professionally curious,mature and self confident approach to care would be considered a ________________
Q5) Examine this goal statement: Patient will walk in the hall unassisted.The two missing components for a correctly stated goal in this example are the descriptors for ____________________ and ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Inflammation, infection, and Immunity
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)have acquired Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP),a serious pulmonary infection caused by ____________________.
Q2) The nurse explains that the difference between medical asepsis and surgical asepsis is that medical asepsis requires:
A) Good hand-washing technique.
B) That no nonsterile product come into contact with the patient.
C) Elimination of all microorganisms.
D) Hand-washing with antimicrobial soap for 3 minutes.
Q3) The nurse is aware that wound healing can be enhanced with the administration of vitamin:
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Q4) The organs involved in immunity include the tonsils,spleen,lymph nodes,and:
A) Liver
B) Lungs
C) Periosteum
D) Pancreas
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Chapter 14: Fluids and Electrolytes
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that extracellular fluid osmolarity is primarily maintained by:
A) Chloride
B) Magnesium
C) K+
D) Sodium
Q2) The nurse has two newly admitted patients with dehydration.One patient is dehydrated from heat exhaustion,and the other is dehydrated from an overdose of Lasix.The finding that will be in both patients is:
A) Increased skin turgor
B) Decreased pulse and respirations
C) Copious saliva and nasal secretions
D) Increased laboratory values of hemoglobin and hematocrit
Q3) The nurse assesses that the patient's urine has become much more concentrated,which results from the effect of:
A) Adrenaline
B) Aldosterone
C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) Insulin
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16
Chapter 15: Pain Management
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that afferent pathways are activated by pain receptors called ____________________.
Q2) The patient with an extensive abdominal operation is assessed by the nurse as having predictable pain.Analgesics for this patient will be most effective when administered:
A) As needed (PRN)
B) Once a day
C) Twice a day
D) Around the clock
Q3) Every time the right arm is raised,the patient reports to the nurse that pain is triggered in the right shoulder.The nurse charts this description as an example of a(n):
A) Referred pain
B) Aggravating factor
C) Alleviating factor
D) Past experience with the pain
Q4) ____________________ and ____________________ are natural opioid-like substances that block pain perception.
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Chapter 16: First Aid, emergency Care, and Disaster Management
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One-person CPR principles,as taught and practiced by professional nurses,require that the initial intervention for an unconscious patient who is not breathing is to:
A) Lift the jaw to clear the airway.
B) Call for assistance.
C) Start chest compressions.
D) Remove patient clothing to visualize the chest.
Q2) The nurse who is assisting victims of an automobile collision has already placed a towel secured with a belt on a bleeding leg wound.When the towel becomes saturated the nurse should:
A) Do nothing.
B) Remove the towel and use the belt as a tourniquet.
C) Remove the towel and place the victim's jacket over wound and secure.
D) Reinforce the towel with the victim's jacket.
Q3) The condition that may complicate the assessment of an older adult patient with a suspected head injury is:
A) Sensory deficits
B) Slowed metabolism
C) Preexisting cerebral dysfunction
D) Decreased pulmonary function
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Surgical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse discovers on the preoperative assessment that the patient has a condition that would require increased amounts of general anesthesia.The condition is
Q2) The nurse should include the proper use of an incentive spirometer in teaching a preoperative patient.Postoperative monitoring of this patient would reveal that the incentive spirometry has been effective if the patient has:
A) Adventitious breath sounds
B) Expiratory wheezing
C) Thick, green respiratory secretions
D) Clear breath sounds
Q3) The nurse is doing an assessment of a patient who has returned from a cardiac catheterization and had conscious sedation.The nurse should report which of the following findings?
A) Difficulty arousing the patient
B) Blood pressure of 124/72 mm Hg
C) Oxygen saturation of 96%
D) Patient complaints of the need to void
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19
Chapter 18: Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) As part of a written standard protocol for the unit,the nurse adds that irrigation of an occluded cannula is not recommended.The rationale against performing this procedure is that it may:
A) Damage a venous valve
B) Introduce an air embolus into the line
C) Cause the patient pain
D) Force blood clots into the main bloodstream
Q2) The nurse charts signs of infected phlebitis as:
A) Rupture of the cannula with a lump under the skin
B) Pale, cool skin with swelling at the puncture site
C) Firm, cool, raised, painful area at the puncture site; oozing and purulent drainage
D) Puncture site red, warm, with an oozing drainage
Q3) The nurse explains that caloric sources in IVs come from:
A) Electrolytes
B) Dextrose
C) Vitamins
D) Water
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Chapter 19: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most important assessments that the nurse makes is to check urine output.The value that objectively validates minimal acceptable renal perfusion for the average-size person is:
A) 0.5 ml/kg/hr
B) 0.5 ml/lb/hr
C) 1 ml/lb/hr
D) 0.2 ml/kg/hr
Q2) The nurse is administering dopamine to the patient to treat the shock syndrome.The expected action of this drug is as a(n):
A) Alpha-adrenergic agonist
B) Beta-adrenergic agonist
C) Alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonist
D) Inotropic agent
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient who has a cervical spine injury immediately documents and reports the assessment of progressive hypotension as a sign of probable:
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
D) Neurogenic shock
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Chapter 20: Falls
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discharge planning for a patient who lives alone and is at high risk for falling should include telling the patient that he:
A) Cannot go home unless someone is with him all the time.
B) Must go to a long-term care facility.
C) Can wear devices around the neck that can signal for help.
D) Needs to be aware of the dangers of living alone.
Q2) Family members who brought a patient to the emergency department after she had fallen in her home are expressing their feelings of guilt.The nurse's most therapeutic response to the family would be:
A) "Someone should really be staying with her to prevent her from falling."
B) "Let me see how long it will be before you can see the patient."
C) "Don't worry. You have nothing to feel guilty about."
D) "I can see you are worried."
Q3) The older adult patient with osteoporosis is at risk for falls.To maintain safety in the home,the nurse would advise the patient to:
A) Take the rubber mat out of the shower.
B) Install a grab rail in the bath and shower and by the toilet.
C) Avoid rubber-soled shoes.
D) Avoid exercise.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in traction with a fractured hip is diagnosed with a stage I pressure ulcer.She asks the nurse how a pressure ulcer could occur after only 2 days of immobility.The nurse's response is based on her knowledge that:
A) "Erythema can occur in 1 to 2 hours, even in a person with healthy skin and adequate circulation."
B) "It takes several days for a pressure ulcer to form."
C) "The pressure ulcer probably occurred when you fell."
D) "The cause of pressure ulcers isn't really known."
Q2) The home health nurse instructs a family about boosting the patient in bed so that a ____________________ type of skin injury will not occur.
Q3) The nurse takes into consideration that many therapeutic reasons exist that explain why a patient might become immobile,and these include:
A) Reduction of the work load of the heart
B) Fear of falling
C) Reversal of the effects of gravity
D) Bereavement
E) Healing of as fracture
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Confusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning for the nutritional needs of a patient with Alzheimer disease.The best plan is to have the dietary department provide:
A) Pureed diet to be fed with a syringe
B) Foods that the patient can cut up to keep busy and not lose interest in eating
C) Finger foods, several times a day
D) High-protein liquid diet
Q2) When teaching family members to care for the patient with dementia,the nurse must be sure that they understand two important concepts,which are that the patient usually:
A) Forgets things relatively quickly and is usually unable to learn new things.
B) Can remember new tasks but will forget any previously taught tasks.
C) Cannot learn new information but will probably remember anything you ask about the past.
D) Responds well to reality orientation and needs to have a flexible schedule.
Q3) When a normally oriented 87-year-old resident in a long-term care facility exhibits acute confusion,the nurse should first assess for a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 23: Incontinence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse informs the patient that the uroflowmetry diagnostic tool measures:
A) Voiding duration
B) Specific gravity of urine
C) Effectiveness of the detrusor muscle
D) General bladder tone
Q2) The patient,talking to the home health nurse about urinary incontinence,gives the nurse a list of the current medications.The nurse recognizes that the medication that could be contributing to the patient's urinary incontinence is:
A) Methylcellulose (Citrucel)
B) Diazepam (Valium)
C) Simvastatin (Zocor)
D) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
Q3) To protect the skin integrity of an incontinent patient,the nurse would include in the plan of care:
A) Immediately remove wet garments and linens.
B) Wash skin with an antiseptic, and towel dry.
C) Inspect for areas of redness and breakdown every morning.
D) Apply cornstarch to the perineum to absorb moisture.
E) Apply protective creams per agency policy.
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Page 25
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is terminally ill and an Orthodox Jew who has orders to "Do not resuscitate" (DNR).The patient is alone and is having signs of impending death.The nurse should:
A) Notify the family.
B) Wait until the patient dies, and then notify the family.
C) Transfer the body to the mortuary or the morgue immediately after death.
D) Stay with the patient until death occurs, prepare the body, and then call the family.
Q2) A patient recently diagnosed with inoperable lung cancer tells the nurse,"I am looking forward to seeing my daughter graduate from college in 2 years." The nurse recognizes that,according to Elizabeth Kübler-Ross,this stage of grief is:
A) Denial
B) Anger
C) Bargaining
D) Depression
Q3) When the family of a dying person do not discuss the issue of death openly and avoid the subject of dying altogether,the nurse recognizes this behavior representative of the _________stage described by Straus and Glaser.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Patient With Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the most common cytologic test,usually performed in outpatient settings,that suggests the probability of a need for further testing for cancer cells is a:
A) Chest x-ray
B) Koch test
C) Papanicolaou (Pap) test
D) Tine test
Q2) When the patient with newly diagnosed with cancer says,"I feel like I've lost my future.I feel so much harm has been done to me that I'm overwhelmed," the nurse recognizes that this attitude will most likely lead the patient to coping strategies that are: A) Avoidant
B) Problem solving
C) Approach oriented
D) Confrontational
Q3) Radiation is now measured in GRAY rather than RADS.One GRAY is equal to ________ RADS.
Q4) The nurse clarifies that cells that change from their tissues of origin and have multiple nuclei are categorized as ____________________.
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Chapter 26: The Patient With an Ostomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient comes to the industrial nurse and is frantic because the stoma to the colostomy has prolapsed 1 year after surgery.The nurse's best counsel would be:
A) "If there are still feces coming from the stoma, then it is not blocked. Contact your surgeon for an evaluation."
B) "You must come in immediately, because the stoma may completely retract into your abdomen."
C) "This is an emergency situation, because it has stenosed."
D) "Don't worry about that. Coughing or sneezing might have caused the prolapse. It will come back out in a few hours."
Q2) The nurse explains to a preoperative patient that a J-pouch anal anastomosis procedure has the primary advantage of:
A) No odor
B) Easier to irrigate
C) Near-normal bowel elimination
D) Less problem with diarrhea
Q3) When the patient complains of urine crystals forming on the urostomy stoma,the home health nurse recommends dissolving them with a pad saturated with
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28
Chapter 27: Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for an immobilized patient with a brain tumor stimulates the patient several times a day with range-of-motion exercises and changes his position every 2 hours to try to prevent a disuse syndrome,which includes:
A) Pooling of pulmonary secretions
B) Paralysis
C) Muscle tremor
D) Pressure ulcers
E) Altered visual perceptions
Q2) To prevent a headache after lumbar puncture,the nurse instructs the patient to:
A) Lie flat
B) Lie on left side
C) Stay in semi-Fowler position
D) Ambulate in the room with assistance
Q3) Before giving an enteral feeding to a patient,the nurse should:
A) Palpate the abdomen to check for residual feeding.
B) Warm the feeding.
C) Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
D) Ask the patient to tip his head forward.
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Chapter 28: Cerebrovascular Accident
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25258
Sample Questions
Q1) The instruction that is most helpful in teaching the family and patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after a CVA about altered sensation is to:
A) Make frequent assessments for signs of pressure or injury.
B) Use the affected side in supporting the patient in ambulation, and transfer to stimulate better sensation.
C) Apply ice packs to the affected limbs to encourage a return of sensation.
D) Apply a heating pad to the affected limbs to increase circulation.
Q2) The patient in the rehabilitation phase after a CVA accidentally knocks the adapted plate from the table and bursts into tears after failing to feed himself.The nurse's best response would be:
A) "Don't cry. You'll be mastering eating in no time."
B) "I don't believe crying will help. Let's try drinking from a special cup."
C) "Bless your heart! Let me get a new meal and feed you."
D) "Learning new skills is hard. Let's see what may have caused the trouble."
Q3) Immediately after a CVA,a major nursing priority is ensuring:
A) Preservation of motor function
B) Airway maintenance
C) Adequate hydration
D) Control of elimination
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Spinal Cord Injury
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25259
Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique of opening the airway in the newly admitted patient with a SCI is the most appropriate?
A) Chin lift
B) Head tilt
C) Jaw thrust
D) Neck flexion
Q2) On admission to the emergency department,the patient with a C5 compression fracture can move only his head and has flaccid paralysis of all extremities.The distraught family asks if the paralysis is permanent.The nurse's best response would be:
A) "Yes. In all likelihood, the paralysis is probably permanent."
B) "No. Significant recovery of function should occur in a few days."
C) "It is too early to tell. When the spinal shock subsides, we will know more."
D) "You should talk to your physician about things of that nature."
Q3) Which intervention by the nurse would be effective in the prevention of autonomic dysreflexia in the patient with a SCI?
A) Ensure patency of the urinary catheter.
B) Give warm baths to the patient to stimulate vasodilation.
C) Keep lighting at a minimum to reduce stimulation.
D) Offer the patient four or five small meals daily.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Acute Respiratory Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25260
Sample Questions
Q1) After a thoracentesis has been performed,the nurse will position the patient:
A) On the unaffected side to help drain the affected side
B) In high Fowler position to help with dyspnea
C) Supine to decrease fluid accumulation
D) On the affected side to compress the puncture site
Q2) A 90-year-old patient complains to the nurse of shortness of breath after walking up a flight of stairs.The nurse explains that this problem is a result of age-related changes,such as a(n):
A) Flexible rib cage
B) High-arched diaphragm
C) Increased chest movement
D) Enlarged bronchioles
Q3) To auscultate breath sounds in the right middle lobe from the anterior aspect,the nurse would place the diaphragm of the stethoscope at which intercostal space?
A) Second
B) Third
C) Fourth
D) Fifth
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Chapter 31: Chronic Respiratory Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25261
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for an 80-year-old patient with COPD suspects right-sided heart failure and assesses and records the data.A sign of right-sided heart failure is decreasing:
A) Blood pressure
B) Urine output
C) Respirations
D) Heart rate
Q2) The nurse assessing the CBC of a patient with chronic bronchitis identifies a typical feature of this disease,which is:
A) Decreased platelets
B) Decreased white blood cells (WBCs)
C) Increased eosinophils
D) Increased red blood cells (RBCs)
Q3) As part of a progressive walking program,the obese patient with COPD is horrified when the nurse recommends walking for:
A) 10 to 15 minutes a day.
B) 20 to 30 minutes a day.
C) 45 to 60 minutes a day.
D) Up to 2 hours a day.
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Chapter 32: Hematologic Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25262
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse prepares to give ferrous sulfate (Feosol)to a home health care patient,the nurse will:
A) Mix the drug with a high-protein milkshake.
B) Give undiluted with a small snack.
C) Mix with coffee or cola to disguise the bitter taste.
D) Dilute and offer through a straw and a few crackers.
Q2) A child with sickle cell anemia is placed prescribed the drug hydroxyurea.The nurse explains that this drug will:
A) Increase energy
B) Decrease cardiomegaly
C) Clean out obstructed vessels
D) Produce a hemoglobin that resists sickling
Q3) The nurse explains that sickle cell crisis occurs when the sickle-shaped red blood cells:
A) Rupture
B) Produce hemoglobin S
C) Interfere with blood production
D) Obstruct major arteries
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Chapter 33: Immunologic Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25263
Sample Questions
Q1) When the skin test shows a redness and swelling a few days after injection,the nurse assesses this as a hypersensitivity reaction of type:
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) The nurse explains that the inflammatory response is initiated by immunoglobulin E (IgE)and the:
A) Eosinophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q3) The nurse is preparing a patient for a liver-spleen scan.Which of the following interventions is most important before the procedure?
A) Prepare the biopsy site with a clean field.
B) Check for any allergies to contrast media.
C) Explain the procedure to the patient's family.
D) Have the patient eat a complete regular diet.
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Chapter 34: Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25264
Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient with HIV is diagnosed with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML),the nurse encourages the patient to:
A) Take daily exercise for 30 minutes.
B) Avoid excessive fats in the diet.
C) Remove all potted plants from inside the home.
D) Prepare advanced directives.
Q2) The nurse explains to a pregnant patient with AIDS that her baby will be treated with antiretroviral drugs for ____________________ weeks after birth.
Q3) The nursing diagnosis that would take priority in the care of an outpatient with AIDS would be:
A) Ineffective therapeutic regimen management
B) Impaired physical mobility
C) Impaired skin integrity
D) Social isolation
Q4) The nurse explains that the enzyme reverse transcriptase transcribes:
A) DNA to mimic CD4 cells
B) T4-helper cells to RNA
C) HIV RNA to HIV DNA
D) T4 cells to HIV virons
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Chapter 35: Cardiac Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25265
Sample Questions
Q1) On auscultation,the nurse detects a heart murmur.The nurse knows that a heart murmur indicates:
A) Valves that do not closing correctly
B) Pericardium that is inflamed
C) Decrease in pacemaker cells
D) Loud ventricular gallop
Q2) The nurse performs an apical-radial pulse evaluation,with the result of 100/88.This pulse deficit assessment is:
A) 12
B) 24
C) 76
D) 88
Q3) The nurse should include in the patient's discharge instruction after an acute MI:
A) Cautions about use of morphine
B) Detailed symptoms that indicate impending MI
C) Written instructions on diet and follow-up appointments
D) High-energy exercise program directions
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Chapter 36: Vascular Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25266
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse performs the Homans maneuver by flexing the knee and sharply dorsiflexing the foot.A positive Homans sign would be:
A) Cramping of the toes
B) Resisting dorsiflexion
C) Pain in the calf area
D) Blanching of the sole
Q2) The patient with Raynaud disease has a nursing diagnosis of "Ineffective tissue perfusion,related to vasoconstriction" is being given discharge instructions.The nurse would caution the patient to:
A) Avoid defrosting the freezer.
B) Wear gloves and warm socks when outdoors.
C) Chafe hands frequently to warm them.
D) Wash dishes in warm water.
Q3) The nurse cautions the patient with PVD that his continued smoking causes detrimental vasoconstriction for up to ____ after only one cigarette.
A) 10 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Hypertension
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25267
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient with a hypertensive crisis will place the priority on:
A) Suctioning secretions
B) Monitoring for seizure activity
C) Monitoring fluid volume
D) Preventing hyperthermia
Q2) The nurse explains that treatment of secondary hypertension focuses on a:
A) Smoking cessation program
B) Strenuous exercise program
C) Weight-loss program designed to reduce weight rapidly
D) Specific etiologic disease
Q3) The nurse questions the patient with hypertension about the symptoms of headache because hypertension headaches characteristically occur as:
A) Frontal in the afternoon
B) Temporal on exertion
C) Occipital on arising
D) Frontal at night
Q4) The nurse explains that the force against which the left ventricle must work to force the blood into the circulation is called ______________________________.
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Chapter 38: Digestive Tract Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25268
Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse observes the patient with esophageal cancer tilt his head back while eating,which could result in:
A) Narrowing of the esophagus
B) Limiting the types of food that can be consumed
C) Increasing the risk of aspiration
D) Causing a neck injury
Q2) The goal for your patient with gastritis who has experienced nausea,vomiting,and diarrhea is to have a return of normal elimination patterns.Which of the following best reflects this goal in a measurable manner?
A) The patient will have fewer stools.
B) Diarrhea will be controlled and not return.
C) The patient will have no more than one stool per day.
D) The patient's bowel pattern will return to normal.
Q3) Stool softeners are prescribed to promote normal elimination of feces.The most appropriate way to ensure effectiveness of this type of drug is:
A) Mouth care
B) Ambulation
C) Adequate fluid intake
D) High-fiber diet
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Disorders of the Liver, gallbladder, and Pancreas
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25269
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a patient with pancreatitis that the drug Pancrease (lipase,protease,amylase),a pancreatic enzyme,should be:
A) Taken before meals.
B) Sprinkled on warm food.
C) Mixed with juice.
D) Taken 1 hour after eating.
Q2) The nurse is alert to another chronic condition related to the presence of chronic pancreatitis,which is:
A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
C) Diabetes mellitus (DM)
D) Arteriosclerotic heart disease (ASD)
Q3) The goal of medical treatment for patients with cirrhosis is to prevent complications and limit cell damage.A major approach is to promote rest.The reason for this is to:
A) Allow time for a transplant.
B) Allow the liver to regenerate.
C) Prevent red cell destruction.
D) Decrease the risk of trauma.
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Chapter 40: Urologic Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25270
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with chronic renal failure who is to begin renal dialysis treatment asks for advice about which type of dialysis would be best.The patient is considering peritoneal dialysis because it is less expensive and has fewer dietary and fluid restrictions.The nurse's best advice is that peritoneal dialysis:
A) Has literally no drawbacks.
B) Gives more independence and more closely resembles normal kidney function.
C) Is a lot more work than hemodialysis, in which the health care staff takes care of everything.
D) Usually does not work very well and has many complications, such as a high blood sugar level.
Q2) Before discharge,the nurse teaches a patient who has had a lithotripsy that he should:
A) Check for edema of the legs and ankles.
B) Watch for stone debris in the urine in 1 to 4 weeks.
C) Decrease fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.
D) Remain on restricted activity for a week.
Q3) The major risk of peritoneal dialysis is _____________.
Q4) The nurse is aware that if a ureter is blocked by a kidney stone,the urine backs up into the kidney causing _________________.
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Chapter 41: Connective Tissue Disorders
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25271
Sample Questions
Q1) The anonym CREST represents the five characteristic signs of progressive systemic sclerosis,which are:
A) Calcinosis
B) Rash
C) Esophageal dysfunction
D) Sore joints
E) Telangiectasis
Q2) For the osteoporotic patient taking alendronate (Fosamax),the nurse would stress that the drug requires that the patient:
A) Take the drug after breakfast.
B) Avoid the use of supplemental vitamin D.
C) Decrease fluid intake.
D) Sit or stand for 30 minutes after administration.
Q3) The diagnostic test result that the nurse would expect for a patient with polymyositis is:
A) Muscle biopsy, positive for muscle degeneration
B) Positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) blood test
C) Positive 24-hour urine test for urate crystals
D) Urate crystals in the synovial fluid
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Chapter 42: Fractures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25272
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who has osteomyelitis after multiple fractures inquires what the physician meant when he said that surgery would follow the antibiotic therapy.The nurse's most helpful reply is to explain that surgery will be performed to:
A) Remove dead bone.
B) Close the open draining wound.
C) Close the area with casting material.
D) Amputate.
Q2) A 78-year-old retired teacher with a history of osteoporosis has fallen in her bathroom and sustained a subcapital femoral fracture.She is scheduled for an open-reduction internal fixation (ORIF)procedure in the morning.The type of traction in which the patient will most likely to be placed is:
A) Bryant
B) Buck
C) Pelvic
D) Crutchfield tongs
Q3) A fracture that occurs because of osteoporosis is classified as a _____________ fracture.
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44
Chapter 43: Amputations
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse excitedly tells the patient about the myoelectrically controlled prosthesis,the movement of which is controlled by:
A) Patient's muscle movement and the prosthesis
B) Battery-operated muscles implanted in the prosthesis
C) Motion-sensing mechanism that swings the prosthesis forward
D) Internal computer chip in the prosthesis
Q2) The home health care nurse suspects a neuroma in a patient who had an above-the-knee amputation 1 month earlier when the patient complains of:
A) Area of swelling and bruising on distal portion of residual limb
B) Prickling sensation over residual limb
C) Sharp severe pain in the residual limb
D) Area of numbness on distal portion of residual limb
Q3) Patient verbalization of microvascular precautions is a criterion for measuring the achievement the outcome of:
A) Adequate circulation in the replanted limb
B) Pain relief
C) Patient knowledge of therapeutic measures
D) Adjustment to change in appearance and function
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Chapter 44: Pituitary and Adrenal Disorders
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25274
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a 14-year-old adolescent that because he has Addison disease,he will:
A) Not develop pubic hair.
B) Grow a heavy beard.
C) Become bald at an early age.
D) Have enlarged joints.
Q2) When the 18-year-old girl is diagnosed with adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland,the nurse assesses for the classic signs of this diagnosis,which are:
A) Cessation of menses
B) Milk production
C) Changing facial features
D) Excessive urine output
E) Weight gain
Q3) The nurse assessing a patient with Simmonds cachexia anticipates that the patient will exhibit:
A) High body temperature
B) Ruddy complexion
C) Silky body hair
D) Muscle wasting
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25275
Sample Questions
Q1) Significant instructions to a patient scheduled for a thyroid scan (¹²³I)should include the need for:
A) Providing of a special container to collect urine for the next 24 hours.
B) Wearing a protective apron to shield him or her from radiation for the next 24 hours.
C) Requesting that visitors keep a distance of at least 6 feet away for the next 24 hours.
D) Washing their hands with soap and water after every voiding for the next 24 hours.
Q2) The nurse explains to the patient that the presurgical protocol of antithyroid drugs is given to:
A) Decrease the level of hormone in the blood before surgery.
B) Help reduce the risk of hemorrhage during surgery.
C) Decrease the threat of a thyroid storm.
D) Reduce exophthalmia.
E) Increase weight.
Q3) Congenital hypothyroidism,if left untreated,will result in _________________.
Q4) To meet the nutritional needs of a patient with Graves disease,the nurse recommends a diet of ____________________ to ____________________ calories.
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Chapter 46: Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25276
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suspects that the patient with type 1 diabetes may be experiencing the Somogyi phenomenon when the patient exhibits:
A) Headache on awakening and enuresis
B) 6 AM blood sugar of 58 and nausea
C) Abdominal pain and elevated blood pressure
D) Drowsiness and disorientation after eating
Q2) A patient who has been diagnosed with endogenous hypoglycemia most likely has:
A) Taken an overdose of hypoglycemic drugs.
B) Been following a very restricted fasting diet or is malnourished.
C) Excessive secretion of insulin or an increase in glucose metabolism.
D) Exercised unwittingly without replenishing needed fluids and nutrients.
Q3) The nurse explains that type 1 diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the body does not produce enough insulin; consequently,the blood glucose is elevated because of the:
A) Prolonged elevation of stress hormone (cortisol, epinephrine, glucagon, growth hormone) levels.
B) Malfunction of the glycogen-storing capabilities of the liver.
C) Destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas.
D) Insulin resistance of the receptor cells in the muscle tissue.
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Chapter 47: Female Reproductive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25277
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that the medication used to stimulate or mimic actions of natural pituitary gonadotropins in the treatment of infertility is:
A) Estrogen only (diethylstilbestrol)
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
D) Raloxifene (Evista)
Q2) The nurse points out to a group of young women who are being treated for PID that because of the effect of this disease on their reproductive organs,they may become
Q3) A patient tells the nurse that she is afraid of getting cervical cancer because her mother died of cervical cancer.The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
A) "You need to a have a pelvic examination every 6 months because of your history."
B) "If you have regular Pap smears, cervical cancer is usually diagnosed early and cured."
C) "There's no need to worry so much. Cervical cancer does not run in families."
D) "Cervical cancer is sexually transmitted. Don't switch partners often, and you don't have to worry."
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Male Reproductive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25278
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse takes into account in making a teaching plan for a patient with acute prostatitis that treatment will include a:
A) 2-week period with a temporary catheter and the instillation of antibiotics in the bladder
B) 4-week course of antibiotics and antiinflammatory drugs
C) 6-week course broad spectrum antibiotics, followed by a prostatectomy
D) 16-week protocol of Sitz baths and the use of a sturdy scrotal support
Q2) When conducting an initial assessment on a 65-year-old male patient,the nurse assesses a mass in the left testicle that on transillumination glows red.The nurse notes the presence of:
A) Phimosis
B) A hydrocele
C) Smegma
D) A hematocele
Q3) The nurse should explain that the purpose of the urethral smear is to:
A) Screen for human immunodeficiency viral (HIV) infection.
B) Detect sexually transmitted infections.
C) Verify fertility through a sperm count.
D) Eliminate concerns of prostate problems.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25279
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient at the outpatient clinic is reluctant to identify her sexual contacts.The nurse explains that the reporting of contacts is essential to:
A) Slow transmission and spread of infections.
B) Increase public awareness.
C) Increase state funding for treatment.
D) Collect data for research.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that the patient with an STI may not cooperate in reporting sexual contacts because of fear of:
A) Judgment by health care workers
B) Identifying self as infected
C) Rejection by contacts
D) Infecting others
E) Reprisal from identified contacts
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus,type 2 (HSV type 2).The nurse should instruct the patient to:
A) Avoid telling anyone about the condition.
B) Wear close-fitting undergarments.
C) Wash towels and personal items daily.
D) Soak the sores with peroxide every day.
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Chapter 50: Skin Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25280
Sample Questions
Q1) Displaying her hands,a patient asks,"Do you think my liver is OK? Look at all these liver spots!" The most appropriate response would be:
A) "The spots could mean something is wrong; I will make a note of it."
B) "The spots are normal aging changes and have nothing to do with your liver."
C) "Have you recently been exposed to hepatitis?"
D) "Don't worry about them. They will fade during the winter."
Q2) A patient who has undergone treatment for herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV type 2)expresses relief that she is cured.The nurse should include in her teaching that:
A) Daily douches of Burow solution are needed.
B) HSV is permanently cured by acyclovir (Zovirax).
C) Sexual partners are now safe from infection from her.
D) HSV lies dormant and can be triggered without any sexual contact.
Q3) In a burn patient with eschar formation around an entire arm,the nurse will include frequent assessment of:
A) Urine output
B) Pain level
C) Capillary refill
D) Breath sounds
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Chapter 51: Eye and Vision Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25281
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that the difference between open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma is that with closed-angle glaucoma:
A) Onset is acute.
B) Trabeculectomy is the initial treatment.
C) Treatment can be conservative.
D) Intraocular pressure drops suddenly.
Q2) A patient in the emergency department complains of severe pain in his eye and is seeing halos around lights and feeling nauseous.The nurse recognizes these symptoms as probable:
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Angle-closure glaucoma
C) Cataracts
D) Retinal detachment
Q3) The nurse is aware that the refractive media of the eye is made up of the:
A) Aqueous humor
B) Retina
C) Vitreous humor
D) Cornea
E) Lens
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Ear and Hearing Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25282
Sample Questions
Q1) The 75-year-old patient has normal age-related changes in his ear that include all except:
A) Dry and wrinkled skin on the auricle
B) Otitis externa
C) Dry cerumen
D) Hair in the ear canal
Q2) On an intake physical examination,the patient reports that he has been taking 10 aspirin tablets a day for his arthritis.Based on this information the nurse should ask:
A) "Can you hear high pitched sounds?"
B) "Have you noticed deafness in just one ear?"
C) "Do you have ringing in your ears?"
D) "Do you experience dizziness when you stand?"
Q3) When making the initial assessment on a patient with a hearing deficit,the patient reports that he often feels off balance and is dizzy when he stands up.These symptoms could be explained by:
A) Sinus infection
B) Rubella
C) Otalgia
D) Presbycusis
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Nose, sinus, and Throat Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25283
Sample Questions
Q1) When providing tracheostomy care,the nurse should:
A) Wash and rinse the inner cannula in tap water and then dry it.
B) Use a sterile solution of peroxide and sterile water to wash the inner cannula and then rinse with sterile water.
C) Clean the area around the stoma with tap water and a gentle soap.
D) Remove the inner cannula, wash both hands with a bactericidal soap, and then don sterile gloves to clean the inner cannula.
Q2) For a patient having a supraglottic laryngectomy,one major postoperative difficulty is:
A) Teaching the patient to use an assistive device to speak.
B) Coughing without letting food escape through the tracheostomy.
C) Taking care of the tracheostomy, because the patient will always have to have one.
D) Teaching the patient to swallow without aspiration.
Q3) The portion of the internal nose that traps particles and kills bacteria is the:
A) Turbinates
B) Mucous membrane
C) Vestibular formations
D) Cilia
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55
Chapter 54: Psychologic Responses to Illness
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25284
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes the defense mechanism of denial when the patient with:
A) Emphysema continues to smoke.
B) Diabetes mellitus uses a sugar substitute.
C) A drug problem blames his mother for his habit.
D) Osteoarthritis angrily kicks the steps that he cannot climb.
Q2) The nurse would describe a patient who has a functional interaction of his cognitive,affective,behavioral,and social dimensions of his personality as:
A) Effectively organized
B) Personally satisfied
C) Well rounded
D) Mentally healthy
Q3) When the patient is asked whether he wants his pain medication,he says to you,"I don't know,whatever you think is best." The nurse recognizes that this is a maladaptive coping mechanism called:
A) Powerlessness
B) Helplessness
C) Denial
D) Depression
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Chapter 55: Psychiatric Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25285
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing the patient with an acute stress disorder will note the evidence of:
A) Diminished awareness of surroundings
B) Derealization
C) Depersonalization
D) Amnesia
E) Irritability
Q2) A patient with schizophrenia has undergone eight electroconvulsive therapy treatments (ECTs)in the last 2 weeks.The daughter is upset that her parent is lethargic,confused,and does not recognize her.The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that:
A) The combination of ECTs and neuroleptic medications can make a patient drowsy.
B) These reactions indicate of a drug overdose.
C) Many patients with schizophrenia punish their families by pretending not to know them.
D) A temporary memory loss is common after several ECTs.
Q3) When the nurse asks questions like,"What day is today?" or "What time is it now?" the nurse is testing the patient's ____________________.
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Chapter 56: Substance-Related Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25286
Sample Questions
Q1) A urine drug screen is ordered for a patient suspected of a driving while intoxicated (DWI).The nurse explains that the drugs that are being screened can include:
A) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), Valium, and Percocet.
B) Crack, heroin, and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
C) Marijuana, amphetamines, and Elavil.
D) Librium, cocaine, and Zoloft.
Q2) The nurse counsels a pregnant cocaine abuser that her cocaine use places the baby at risk for:
A) Severe allergies
B) Neurologic impairments
C) Hearing impairment
D) Higher birth weights
Q3) Substance abuse might be suspected in a patient who has a(n):
A) Abnormal liver function test and a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed.
B) Positive syphilis screen and varicose veins.
C) Fungal infection and a potassium level of 4.2. mEq/L.
D) Decreased albumin level and creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl.
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