Introduction to Nursing
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Nursing provides students with a foundational understanding of the nursing profession, covering its history, roles, and core values. The course explores key concepts such as holistic patient care, ethical and legal responsibilities, wellness, communication, and cultural sensitivity. Students are introduced to the nursing process, critical thinking skills, and evidence-based practice, as well as the importance of health promotion and disease prevention. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, learners gain insight into diverse healthcare settings and the interpersonal skills required to thrive as compassionate and competent nurses in todays evolving healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 7th Edition by Kim Cooper
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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Q1) What is the order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs beginning with the most basic?
A) Safety and security
B) Love/belongingness
C) Physiological
D) Self-actualization
E) Esteem
Answer: C,A,B,E,D
Abraham Maslow believed that an individual's behavior is formed by the individual's attempts to meet essential human needs,which he identified as physiological,safety and security,love and belongingness,and esteem and self-actualization.
Q2) How may a newly licensed LPN/LVN practice?
A)Independently in a hospital setting
B)With an experienced LPN/LVN
C)Under the supervision of a physician or RN
D)As a sole practitioner in a clinic setting
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Q1) How can the medical record be used in litigation? (Select all that apply.)
A)Public record
B)Proof of adherence to standards
C)Evidence of omission of care
D)Documentation of time lapses
E)Evidence by only the plaintiff
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR)order.Although the nurse may disagree with this order,what is his or her legal obligation?
A)To question the doctor
B)To seek advice from the family
C)To discuss it with the patient
D)To follow the order
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following could cause a nurse to be cited for malpractice?
A)Refusing to give 60 mg of morphine as ordered
B)Giving prochlorperazine (Compazine) to a patient allergic to phenothiazines
C)Dragging an injured motorist off the highway and causing further injury
D)Informing a visitor about a patient's condition
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Q1) What is the process used to appraise the practice of an individual nurse known as?
A)Quality assurance
B)Incident reporting
C)OBRA
D)Peer review
Answer: D
Q2) What are categories of inadequate documentation that may lead to a malpractice claim? (Select all that apply.)
A)Incorrectly recording the time of an event
B)Failing to record verbal orders
C)Charting events in advance
D)Documenting an incorrect date
E)Marking out and initialing charting errors
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q3) Twenty-four-hour charting is designed to establish __________ levels to help determine staffing needs.
Answer: acuity
Patient acuity,which is reflected in 24-hour charting compilation,can dictate staffing needs.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communication
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Q1) Which defining characteristics support the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication? (Select all that apply.)
A)Aphasia
B)Geriatric patients
C)Profoundly deaf
D)Legally blind
E)Severe COPD
Q2) What is true about the use of touch in therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A)Touch is a form of nonverbal communication.
B)Touch is a form of verbal communication.
C)Touch should be used with indiscretion.
D)Touch can convey warmth and caring.
E)Touch can convey support and understanding.
F) Touch should be used sincerely and genuinely.
Q3) The term that describes an individual's perception or understanding of a particular word or phrase is _____________.
Q4) ____________ is the reciprocal process in which messages are sent and received between people.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Q1) A systematic method by which nurses plan and provide care for patients is known as the _________ ____________.
Q2) Who is the person responsible for analyzing and interpreting data to arrive at a nursing diagnosis?
A)Physician
B)LPN/LVN
C)RN
D)Technician
Q3) A multidisciplinary plan that schedules clinical interventions over an anticipated time frame for high-risk,high-volume,and high-cost types of cases is known as a
Q4) All of the following patients have been admitted to the acute care setting.On admission,which patient should receive a focused assessment?
A)53-year-old admitted with a perforated ulcer
B)5-year-old admitted for the implant of grommets in the middle ear
C)76-year-old admitted for a knee replacement
D)40-year-old admitted for possible bowel obstruction
Q5) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Q1) While caring for a Mexican American family in the home,the home health nurse recognizes that the family may also consult the _____________ for health advice.
Q2) What is the term for a group of people who share biologic physical characteristics?
A)Race
B)Culture
C)Religion
D)Social organization
Q3) Which health belief system includes a belief of a supernatural force exerting influence to cause health or illness?
A)Folk
B)Holistic
C)Biomedical
D)Alternative/complementary
Q4) Following the death of a Presbyterian infant,the nurse should help arrange for __________.
Q5) A generalization about a form of behavior,an individual,or a group is known as a
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) The nurse is concerned when a patient admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia suddenly develops a urinary tract infection (UTI).What type of infection is this UTI considered?
A)Viral infection
B)Bacterial infection
C)Health care-associated infection
D)Spore infection
Q2) A health care worker is stuck by a needle left on the patient's bedside table.The staff member appropriately reports the needlestick.What will the indicated treatment be combatting?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Streptococcal infections
C)Staphylococcal infections
D)Influenza
Q3) What bacterium is responsible for more diseases than any other organism?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Q1) Where should the nurse place the load when carrying heavy objects?
A)In a low position
B)To the side of the body
C)Close to the body midline
D)With another's assistance
Q2) _________________________________machines flex and extend joints to mobilize them passively without the strain of active exercises.
Q3) To maintain a wide base of support,the nurse should stand with the feet separated by the distance of _______ times the length of the nurse's shoe.
Q4) What profession has the highest workers' compensation claim rates of any occupation or industry?
A)Firefighters
B)Truck drivers
C)Law enforcement
D)Nursing personnel
Q5) When a fall occurs,the nurse should document the incident and initiate a(n)___________ report.
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Q1) Clear water is used to cleanse the eyes.It is important to use proper technique when cleansing the eyes to prevent infection.What direction will the water flow when cleansing a patient's eyes?
A)Upward toward the forehead
B)Downward toward the chin
C)From the outer toward the inner canthus
D)From the inner toward the outer canthus
Q2) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
Q3) The nurse is providing personal hygiene for a Hindu patient from India.What intervention should the nurse implement?
A)Not serve meat
B)Shampoo the patient's hair weekly
C)Give a daily bath
D)Cut nails monthly
Q4) As a safety precaution against breakage of dentures,the nurse should place __________ in the emesis basin before cleaning the dentures.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Q1) A nurse instructs a nursing assistant about the proper use of a gait belt and is observing a return demonstration.What action by the nursing assistant should cause the nurse to intervene?
A)Nursing assistant is walking on the patient's strong side
B)Nursing assistant is walking to the side of the patient
C)Nursing assistant is securing the gait belt securely around the patient's waist
D)Nursing assistant is grasping the handles of the gait belt while the patient ambulates
Q2) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A)Vacuum the spill
B)Open interior doors
C)Close all outside windows
D)Open any outside windows
Q3) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy.The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
Q4) ___________ is a violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Q1) The emergency department nurse quickly assesses the temperature of an unconscious patient who has been outside all night in below-freezing temperatures.What temperature is the nurse aware of that can lead to death?
A)95.2° F
B)93.0° F
C)93.2° F
D)90.8° F
Q2) What is the pulse-the expansion and contraction of an artery- produced by?
A)Contraction of the right atrium
B)Contraction of the right ventricle
C)Contraction of the left atrium
D)Contraction of the left ventricle
Q3) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign,which is______________.
Q4) What site should be selected if a peripheral pulse needs to be assessed quickly?
A)Radial pulse
B)Brachial pulse
C)Carotid pulse
D)Pedal pulse
Q5) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86,noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Q1) An abnormal condition in which the heart contracts regularly but at a rate greater than 100 beats per minute is known as ___________________.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with congestive heart failure.During the physical assessment,the nurse notes the patient is experiencing difficulty breathing.What should the nurse document that the patient is experiencing?
A)Dyspnea
B)Cyanosis
C)Diaphoresis
D)Ecchymosis
Q3) What is the term used to describe a disease where there has been a partial or complete disappearance of clinical and subjective characteristics of the disease?
A)Acute
B)Functional
C)Chronic
D)Remission
Q4) Signs that are perceived by an examiner and can be seen,heard,measured,or felt are known as ___________ _________.
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Q1) Before the actual discharge occurs,what must the nurse ensure ?
A)The patient is well enough to go home.
B)The patient has not been overly medicated.
C)The patient understands the discharge instructions.
D)The patient has adequate transportation.
Q2) The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital.When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry.What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
A)Withdrawal
B)Anger
C)Depression
D)Regression
Q3) When should discharge planning begin?
A)The day before discharge
B)On the first day postoperatively
C)Shortly after admission
D)When the doctor orders it
Q4) Because of the stress caused by hospitalization,the nurse assesses a newly admitted older adult patient for ________________.
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Q1) The day following surgery,the nurse notes bloody drainage on the dressing.How will the nurse describe this drainage when documenting?
A)Serosanguineous
B)Sanguineous
C)Serous
D)Purulent
Q2) The nurses employed at a wound therapy clinic are preparing an educational in-service about the vacuum-assisted closure (VAC)device for hospital nurses.What accurate information will be included in this in-service? (Select all that apply.)
A)Positive pressure is applied by this device
B)Healing is facilitated by decrease in drainage
C)Promotes formulation of granulation tissue
D)Reduces local and peripheral edema
E)Drops bacterial level in wound
Q3) What is the advantage of an occlusive dressing?
A)Allows air to the incision
B)Keeps the incision moist
C)Delays epithelialization
D)Does not have to be changed
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Q1) What is the rationale for the nurse to assess a patient's knowledge of an ordered procedure?
A)To determine difficulties the patient may encounter
B)To determine the nurse's role in the procedure
C)To determine health teaching required
D)To determine anxiety the patient has
Q2) The nurse is preparing a patient for a barium enema.What color will the nurse inform the patient his stools will be following this procedure?
A)Blue
B)White
C)Green
D)Brown
Q3) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an abdominal scan?
A)Assess laboratory results only for liver function
B)Assess patient for allergies to dye or shellfish
C)Instruct patient to limit fluid intake immediately following procedure
D)Instruct patient to be NPO for 1 hour before scan if contrast medium is used
Q4) When collecting a stool specimen for a guaiac (occult blood in stool),the nurse should take a specimen from _____ different parts of the stool.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Q1) The patient is brought to the emergency department after having fractured an arm 12 hours ago.The arm is very edematous from the fingers to the elbow,and the patient cannot move it.What should be the initial action of the nurse?
A)Test range of motion
B)Take the vital signs
C)Place ice packs on the arm
D)Check fingers for capillary refill
Q2) When administering first aid in emergency situations,the nurse must first survey victims for severity of injuries.What term correctly describes this process?
A)The Good Samaritan law
B)An emergency interview
C)Triage
D)Taking vital signs
Q3) If a spinal injury is suspected,before the rescuer starts CPR,the trachea should be opened with a _______ _______ maneuver.
Q4) When performing CPR on an infant,the breastbone is depressed approximately ____ to ____ inch(es).
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) What type of therapy is thought to increase circulation to the affected area,promote healing,and stimulate acupuncture points?
A)Relaxation therapy
B)Magnetic therapy
C)Yoga therapy
D)Imagery therapy
Q2) Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that uses fine needles placed in acupoints.What is the believed purpose of these acupoints?
A)"Close the gate" for pain transmission
B)Align the internal organs
C)Open meridians to release qi
D)Stimulate the "centering" of qi
Q3) What training system may help prevent osteoporosis?
A)Acupressure
B)Yoga
C)Therapeutic massage
D)Tai chi
Q4) People with fractures,rheumatoid arthritis,and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) What is the best approach for a nurse to use when planning pain relief measures?
A)Use a variety of pain relief methods
B)Use only nonopioid analgesics
C)Use at least three alternating methods
D)Use only one method at a time
Q2) The nurse clarifies that the term peripheral analgesics describes the group of drugs also referred to as ___________.
Q3) An American Indian patient requests that an egg yolk be placed in a saucer and put under his bed to absorb the pain.What should the nurse do?
A)Explain that medication will relieve the pain better
B)Place the egg in a saucer under the bed
C)Ask the physician for permission
D)Warn that housekeeping staff will remove the egg
Q4) What is the defining term for continuous or intermittent pain that does not serve as a warning of tissue damage?
A)Acute
B)Unrelieved
C)Chronic
D)Subacute
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Q1) The nurse is counseling a patient about the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes.What should the nurse stress that patients with type 2 diabetes are required to receive on a daily basis?
A)Regular carbohydrate-controlled meals
B)Oral hyperglycemic agents
C)Insulin injections
D)Stringent low-calorie diets
Q2) A school nurse is teaching a group of adolescents about adequate nutrition.What increased intake should the nurse encourage?
A)Potassium and sodium
B)Chloride and magnesium
C)Iron and calcium
D)Vitamins and minerals
Q3) The nurse is educating a patient on a vegan diet.What supplement will the nurse encourage this patient to take to avoid a deficiency?
A)B<sub>6</sub>
B)B<sub>12</sub>
C)K
D)D
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Q1) What is the method by which inhaled oxygen is moved into the intravascular compartment called?
A)Active transport
B)Oxygenation
C)Passive transport
D)Mass movement
Q2) The nurse modifies the care plan for the immobilized patient after assessing a calcium level of 6.2 mEq/L.What nursing assessment should the nurse include when modifying this care plan?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Tooth loss
C)Renal calculi
D)Contractures
Q3) A nurse assesses an edematous cardiac patient.The nurse is aware that this condition is a result of retained fluid.What is the patient considered to be?
A)Hyponatremic
B)Hypokalemic
C)Hypernatremic
D)Hypercalcemic
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Q1) When a patient comes into the emergency department with a narcotic overdose,the nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with Narcan.What drug classification is Narcan?
A)Enhancer
B)Substitute
C)Control
D)Antagonist
Q2) The average adult dose of Phenergan is 50 mg.Using the Young rule for a 10-year-old,what is the correct dosage for the child?
A)23 mg
B)25 mg
C)30 mg
D)35 mg
Q3) Which of the following fractions is the largest?
A)1/2
B)1/3
C)1/4
D)1/5
Q4) When giving a tubal medication,the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
23
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Q1) How does an Aquathermia pad differ from a traditional heating pad?
A)The Aquathermia pad can be folded to fit the anatomic location snugly.
B)The Aquathermia pad can be placed under the patient.
C)The Aquathermia pad has circulating water for temperature control.
D)The Aquathermia pad can be left on for as long as 2 hours.
Q2) What would be the correct explanation of catheter care?
A)Cleansing the first 2 inches of the catheter with soap and water every shift
B)Disinfecting the entire catheter with alcohol every shift
C)Lubricating the catheter with antiseptic lotion every 24 hours
D)Cleansing the meatal-catheter junction every 24 hours
Q3) When an older adult patient with chronic emphysema comes to the emergency department in respiratory distress,at what rate should the nurse begin oxygen per nasal cannula?
A)2 L/min
B)3 L/min
C)4 L/min
D)5 L/min
Q4) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Q1) In response to a mother's concern about the development of a food allergy in her 5-month-old,the nurse should suggest the delay of which foods?
A)Oat cereals
B)Potatoes
C)Citrus fruits
D)Green vegetables
Q2) A nurse assessing a 2-month-old infant would expect the infant to do which of the following?
A)Crawl on the floor
B)Creep on the floor
C)Sit up steadily without support
D)Hold its head up while in the prone position
Q3) What is the family pattern in which the male usually assumes the dominant role and functions in the work role,controls the finances,and makes most of the decisions?
A)Autocratic family pattern
B)Patriarchal family pattern
C)Matriarchal family pattern
D)Democratic family pattern
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
Q2) What is the termination of tube feedings to a dying patient considered?
A)Active euthanasia
B)Holistic care
C)Passive euthanasia
D)Terminal care
Q3) A young nurse caring for a dying patient hastens through the care and leaves the room as quickly as possible.What common reaction to the care of the dying is the nurse exhibiting?
A)Efficiency
B)Anger
C)Withdrawal
D)Anxiety
Q4) What should the nurse do before approaching a grieving family member?
A)Offer sympathy
B)Assess level of resolution
C)Give assurance that the pain will pass
D)Encourage the family member to return to normal activities
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with a tubal pregnancy.What is the typical outcome of a tubal pregnancy?
A)The patient will carry the pregnancy to term and have a cesarean delivery.
B)The patient will have to remain in bed for the remainder of the pregnancy.
C)The patient will spontaneously abort this ectopic pregnancy.
D)The patient will require surgery to remove the zygote.
Q2) What protects the fetus from most bacterial infections?
A)The yolk sac
B)The placental barrier
C)The cotyledons
D)The chorionic villa
Q3) When the young primigravida asks about how to adjust her diet for her pregnancy,what should the nurse suggest the mother add to her diet?
A)Leafy green vegetables and fruit
B)Beef and poultry
C)Foods high in sodium and potassium
D)Bread and grains
Q4) The nurse assesses a reactive result to a nonstress test when the fetal heart rate increases _____ beats per minute.
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Q1) The nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and delivery unit.While performing the initial assessment,which assessment is the priority?
A)The number of previous pregnancies
B)When the baby is due
C)When the patient last ate
D)The timing of contractions
Q2) A pregnant woman is discussing her desire to have her baby in a birthing center.Which factors could exclude the patient from delivering in a birthing center? (Select all that apply.)
A)The patient is a primigravida.
B)The patient will be having a planned cesarean delivery.
C)The mother has preeclampsia.
D)The baby is a boy.
E)The mother has no support system.
Q3) The nurse explains to the patient whose membranes ruptured an hour ago that delivery is usually accomplished in ____ to _____ hours postrupture.
Q4) A nurse shows the patient an x-ray of the fetal spine in parallel alignment with the mother's to demonstrate a ________ lie.
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) What should be included in a teaching plan regarding breast engorgement?
A)It typically occurs on the first postpartum day
B)It is usually first observed in the axillary region
C)It occurs only in women who are not breastfeeding
D)It occurs near the nipple on the third postpartum day
Q2) What should be included when discussing the care of a circumcised infant after discharge from the hospital?
A)Gently remove the yellow exudate from the foreskin.
B)Apply sterile petroleum gauze after each diaper change.
C)Wipe the circumcision with alcohol each day.
D)Avoid the use of cloth diapers until the foreskin has healed.
Q3) The nurse is giving a bath demonstration for a group of new mothers.What should be included in the demonstration?
A)Apply baby powder generously to keep baby dry.
B)Cleanse perineum from front to back.
C)Use scented soap to make baby smell good.
D)Partially submerge head in water when shampooing.
Q4) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
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Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum asks the nurse what would have happened if she had not come to the hospital.What result is the best response by the nurse?
A)A large for gestational age infant
B)Anorexia nervosa
C)Preterm delivery
D)Maternal or fetal death
Q2) The newborn infant has oxygenation problems and a lack of subcutaneous fat.What should the nurse determine as the gestational age of this infant?
A)20 to 37 completed weeks of pregnancy
B)38 to 41 completed weeks of pregnancy
C)14 to 36 completed weeks of pregnancy
D)42 or more completed weeks of pregnancy
Q3) What is the usual treatment for severe postpartum depression?
A)Improved nutrition
B)Vitamin therapy
C)Pharmacologic interventions
D)Support group therapy
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
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Q1) The pediatric nurse reminds the parents of a 2-year-old that by this age the child should be protected against how many vaccine-preventable childhood diseases?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
Q2) Which are physical risks associated with excess weight? (Select all that apply.)
A)Poor eyesight
B)Heart disease
C)Arthritis
D)Stroke
E)Appendicitis
Q3) A nurse emphasizes a study that focused on the amount of time children spend using various media,such as TV,video games,and computers and stated that by cutting this time by ____%,it would have a significant impact on increasing physical activity.
Q4) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence,especially __________.
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct way to assess for the presence of jaundice in an African American child?
A)Examine the sclera
B)Press the edge of the pinna
C)Apply pressure to the gum
D)Compare the color on the soles of the feet
Q2) When discussing growth and development with the parents of a child,the nurse explains that nutrition is the single most important influence on:
A)cognitive development.
B)secondary sexual characteristics.
C)the production of blood cells.
D)the growth of bones and muscle.
Q3) What was founded by Lillian Wald?
A)National Commission on Children
B)Henry Street Settlement
C)White House Conference
D)U.S. Children's Bureau
Q4) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
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Q1) An infant has been diagnosed with cradle cap.What is the correct intervention to treat the scalp?
A)Alcohol
B)Mineral oil
C)Calamine
D)A&D ointment
Q2) The nurse anticipates that the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)taken from a child with bacterial meningitis would have a low __________ level.
Q3) The nurse explains that which diagnostic studies are needed for the diagnosis of cognitive impairment? (Select all that apply.)
A)Denver Developmental Screening Test
B)Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
C)Wechsler Intelligence Scale
D)Miller's Analogies
E)Strong Personality Assessment
Q4) When the mother of a child with gastroesophageal reflux calls the clinic nurse to report that her baby is vomiting small amounts of blood,the nurse explains that the esophagus has been irritated by _______ ________.
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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Q1) When assessing the older adult,the nurse considers which aspect of the patient's routine as a possible contributor to constipation?
A)Intake of antacids several times a day
B)Taking a laxative once a week
C)Excessive exercise routine
D)Eating two apples a day
Q2) The nurse reminds the 80-year-old patient that her respiratory system has decreased resistance to respiratory infections.For what is this patient at increased risk?
A)COPD
B)Bronchitis
C)Pneumonia
D)Atelectasis
Q3) Which statements are myths that have been disproved concerning aging? (Select all that apply.)
A)All older adults are senile.
B)Most older adults live in their own homes.
C)Older adults are poor.
D)Older adults have frequent contact with family members.
E)Older adults are disabled.
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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Q1) A perceived threat to self causes what emotion?
A)Fear
B)Anger
C)Depression
D)Anxiety
Q2) In the movie Gone with the Wind,Scarlett O'Hara says,"I'll think about that tomorrow.Tomorrow is another day." The nurse recognizes the defense mechanism of
Q3) When the patient who overeats insists that weight gain is related to retained fluids,the nurse recognizes the patient is using which defense mechanism?
A)Compensation
B)Rationalization
C)Sublimation
D)Regression
Q4) What does any event that requires change stimulate?
A)Anger
B)Depression
C)Stress
D)Anxiety
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse asks a patient with schizophrenia if he had any visitors on Sunday.Which response indicates loose association?
A)"No."
B)"Yes! I had 90 visitors who came from every state in the union."
C)"Sunday is the Sabbath. Do we have visitors on the Sabbath?"
D)"We visited Yellowstone Park last summer."
Q2) When the patient with a psychosis is thought to be a danger to self or others,by what method should the patient be admitted to the hospital?
A)Probating
B)Nurse's request
C)Physician's order
D)Family request
Q3) The nurse recognizes that a woman who has experienced physical abuse and has inadequate income to care for herself and her family would be categorized under Axis
Q4) The nurse explains that an alternative therapy that uses essential oils and scented candles to help a patient relax and focuses on the atmosphere of the moment is
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a young woman being treated for amphetamine overdose asks the nurse when the manifestations will subside.What would be the most correct answer by the nurse?
A)"Usually in 8 to 10 hours."
B)"She will snap out of it in a day or two."
C)"Usually in about 2 hours, but the effects will return in 2 to 3 days."
D)"The manifestations may be permanent."
Q2) During the detoxification period,what does the nurse aim to achieve when designing interventions?
A)Enroll the patient in Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
B)Keep the patient safe from aspiration and seizure
C)Help the patient interact in nonaddictive activities
D)Help the patient gain insight into the addiction
Q3) When a patient denies any problems related to addiction,what is the nurse's most therapeutic response?
A)"What do you call this hospitalization?"
B)"How can anybody help you if you don't see a problem?"
C)"Would your family agree that you have no problems?"
D)"Can you think of any time your behavior created an unpleasant situation in your life?"
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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Q1) How often must the homecare treatment plan be recertified in order for the patient to continue to receive services?
A)Every 3 days
B)Every 60 days
C)Every 10 days
D)Every 2 weeks
Q2) The initial evaluation and admission visit is made by an RN,who has been provided with general orders by a physician before the visit.This visit must be made within how many hours of the referral?
A)4 to 8
B)12 to 15
C)18 to 24
D)24 to 48
Q3) Speech therapy goals include minimizing speech disorders and maximizing rehabilitation of speech abilities.To be reimbursed by Medicare,who must provide these services?
A)Bachelor's-level clinician
B)Speech therapist
C)Master's-level clinician
D)Physiatrist
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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Q1) Although the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)increases the cost of care,what is a benefit that it provides for long-term care?
A)It ensures a safe environment for personnel.
B)It ensures that medications are administered safely.
C)It ensures that food is prepared safely.
D)It ensures safe ambulation and transportation of patients.
Q2) How often does the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)require that a summary (including vital signs and weight)be obtained in the long-term care setting?
A)Daily
B)Weekly
C)Monthly
D)Yearly
Q3) The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)defines the requirements for which aspect of care as it relates to long-term care?
A)Nursing care
B)Nutritional support
C)Quality of care
D)Staffing requirements
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to decrease the potential for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)in a patient who is a paraplegic from a spinal cord injury?
A)Massage the patient's legs daily
B)Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
C)Encourage frequent warm baths
D)Allow the patient's legs to dangle for a period of 10 minutes several times a day
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse stresses to the family of a patient with a brain injury that difficult and painful rehabilitation will probably be required for what length of time?
A)1 to 2 years
B)2 to 4 years
C)5 to 10 years
D)6 to 12 years
Q3) The rehabilitation nurse assesses localized edema around the knee of a patient with paraplegia.The nurse suspects that this is the first sign of __________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse educates the patient and family about the members of the interdisciplinary team.Which caregivers are included? (Select all that apply.)
A)Medical director
B)Nurse coordinator
C)Social worker
D)Spiritual coordinator
E)Psychologist
Q2) What is the most common problem of the terminally ill patient that is caused by narcotics?
A)Malnutrition
B)Constipation
C)Fluid retention
D)Dehydration
Q3) The nurse should educate the patient and caregiver that large doses of narcotics are required to control pain.What is the optimal dose for pain medications?
A)The smallest amount possible to achieve some effects
B)The dose that provides pain relief
C)The dose that is not addictive
D)The dose that works for most people
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Professional Roles and Leadership
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technical and scientific changes have resulted in a multiplicity and complexity of functions placed on nurses,and sometimes job descriptions have not been rewritten.What is true of the role of the LPN/LVN?
A)It is constantly enlarging
B)It is constantly changing
C)It is constantly improving
D)It is constantly growing
Q2) What is the correct term for a concise,one- or two-page summary of educational and work experience,activities and honors,and concrete skills and interests?
A)Introduction
B)Review
C)Résumé
D)Composite
Q3) Which setting provides greater nurse autonomy and continuity of care and is less costly for insurance companies?
A)Hospice
B)Hospitals
C)Home health
D)Long-term care
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