Introduction to Nursing Care of the Childbearing Family Chapter Exam Questions - 812 Verified Questi

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Introduction to Nursing Care of the Childbearing Family

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices involved in nursing care of the childbearing family. Emphasizing a holistic and family-centered approach, the course covers topics such as prenatal care, labor and delivery, postpartum care, newborn assessment, and common complications affecting mothers and infants. Students will learn to apply evidence-based nursing interventions, advocate for the health and wellbeing of diverse families, and collaborate effectively with interdisciplinary healthcare teams. Clinical and theoretical components foster the development of critical thinking, communication, and culturally sensitive care in maternal and newborn nursing settings.

Recommended Textbook

Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray

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27 Chapters

812 Verified Questions

812 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today

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24 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true regarding the shortage of nurses in the United States?

A) There are a larger proportion of younger nurses in the workforce as compared with older nurses.

B) As a result of decreased RN-to-patient ratios, there is a decrease in patient mortality in the clinical setting.

C) Nursing programs are turning away qualified applicants.

D) There are adequate classroom and clinical facilities for training RNs.

Answer: C

Q2) Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic when the patient states, "I'm so afraid to have a cesarean birth"?

A) "Everything will be OK."

B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."

C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"

D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues

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32 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The United States ranks poorly in terms of worldwide infant mortality rates. Which factor has the greatest impact on decreasing the mortality rate of infants?

A) Providing more women's shelters

B) Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care

C) Resolving all language and cultural differences

D) Enrolling pregnant women in the Medicaid program by their eighth month of pregnancy

Answer: B

Q2) The nurse is teaching a parenting class to new parents. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching session about the characteristics of a healthy family?

A) Adults agree on the majority of basic parenting principles.

B) The parents and children have rigid assignments for all the family tasks.

C) Young families assume total responsibility for the parenting tasks, refusing any assistance.

D) The family is overwhelmed by the significant changes that occur as a result of childbirth.

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology

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19 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a woman's menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation mostly likely have occurred?

A) June 10

B) June 16

C) June 29

D) July 5

Answer: B

Q2) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.

_____

Answer: 16

Delayed onset of menstruation is called primary amenorrhea if the girl's periods have not begun within 2 years after the onset of breast development or by age 16, or if the girl is more than 1 year older than her mother or sisters were when their menarche occurred.

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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient indicates to the clinic nurse that she is trying to become pregnant. The clinic nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes the following laboratory values: Blood type O-, RPR nonreactive, rubella non-immune, HCT 35%. Which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

A) HCT 35%

B) Blood type O-

C) RPR nonreactive

D) Rubella non-immune

Q2) A patient presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with A) phenotype.

B) genotype.

C) dominant alleles.

D) recessive traits.

Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%

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6

Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement best describes the changes that occur during the fetal period of development?

A) Maturation of organ systems

B) Development of basic organ systems

C) Resistance of organs to damage from external agents

D) Development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange

Q2) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?

A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.

B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.

C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.

D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.

Q3) What is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?

A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum

B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division

C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge

D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum

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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times

Q2) A patient who is 7 months pregnant states, "I'm worried that something will happen to my baby." Which is the nurse's best response?

A) "Your baby is doing fine."

B) "Tell me about your concerns."

C) "There is nothing to worry about."

D) "The doctor is taking good care of you and your baby."

Q3) Which finding is a positive sign of pregnancy?

A) Amenorrhea

B) Breast changes

C) Fetal movement felt by the woman

D) Visualization of fetus by ultrasound

Q4) Which physiologic adaptation of pregnancy may lead to increased constipation during the pregnancy?

A) Increased emptying time in the intestines

B) Abdominal distention and bloating

C) Decreased absorption of water

D) Decreased motility in the intestines

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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) The labor nurse is reviewing breathing techniques with a primiparous patient admitted for induction of labor. When is the best time to encourage the laboring patient to use slow, deep chest breathing with contractions?

A) During labor, when she can no longer talk through contractions

B) During the first stage of labor, when the contractions are 3 to 4 minutes apart

C) Between contractions, during the transitional phase of the first stage of labor

D) Between her efforts to push to facilitate relaxation between contractions

Q2) Determine the obstetric history of a patient in her fifth pregnancy who has had two spontaneous abortions in the first trimester, one infant at 32 weeks' gestation, and one infant at 38 weeks' gestation.

A) G5 T1 P2 A2 L 2

B) G5 T1 P1 A1 L2

C) G5 T0 P2 A2 L2

D) G5 T1 P1 A2 L2

Q3) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______

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Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient's diet may not meet her need for folate. Which food choice is an excellent source of this nutrient?

A) Chicken

B) Cheese

C) Potatoes

D) Green leafy vegetables

Q2) The nurse is conducting a prenatal nutrition education class for a group of nursing students. Which statement best describes the condition known as pica?

A) Iron-deficiency anemia

B) Intolerance to milk products

C) Ingestion of nonfood substances

D) Episodes of anorexia and vomiting

Q3) Which effect is a common response to both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant patient?

A) Vasoconstriction

B) Increased appetite

C) Increased metabolism

D) Changes in insulin metabolism

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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus

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Sample Questions

Q1) The clinic nurse is obtaining a health history on a newly pregnant patient. Which is an indication for fetal diagnostic procedures if present in the health history?

A) Maternal diabetes

B) Weight gain of 25 lb

C) Maternal age older than 30 years

D) Previous infant weighing more than 3000 g at birth

Q2) What does optimal nursing care after an amniocentesis include?

A) Pushing fluids by mouth

B) Monitoring uterine activity

C) Placing the patient in a supine position for 2 hours

D) Applying a pressure dressing to the puncture site

Q3) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?

A) Increase placental blood flow.

B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.

C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.

D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.

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11

Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?

A) Female fetus, Mexican-American, primigravida

B) Male fetus, Asian-American, previous preterm birth

C) Male fetus, African-American, previous cesarean birth

D) Female fetus, European-American, previous spontaneous abortion

Q2) A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate

A) gastrointestinal upset.

B) effects of magnesium sulfate.

C) anxiety caused by hospitalization.

D) worsening disease and impending convulsion.

Q3) Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?

A) Previous birth of large infant

B) Maternal age younger than 25 years

C) Underweight prior to pregnancy

D) Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus

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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which action should the nurse take when counseling a teenaged patient who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?

A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.

B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.

C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.

D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.

Q2) Which factor is a major barrier to health care for adolescent mothers?

A) Health care workers have a positive attitude.

B) The hospital or clinic is within walking distance of the girl's home.

C) Seeing a different nurse and/or health care provider at every visit.

D) The institution is open days, evenings, and Saturday by special arrangement.

Q3) Which data in the patient's history should the nurse recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of postpartum depression?

A) Previous depressive episode

B) Unexpected operative birth

C) Ambivalence during the first trimester

D) Second pregnancy in a 3-year period

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Processes of Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) To determine if the patient is in true labor, the nurse would assess for changes in A) cervical dilation.

B) amount of bloody show.

C) fetal position and station.

D) pattern of uterine contractions.

Q2) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent during labor?

A) A full bladder

B) Decreased peristalsis

C) Rupture of membranes

D) Reduction in internal uterine size

Q3) The nurse assesses a laboring patient's contraction pattern and notes the frequency at every 3 to 4 minutes, duration 50 to 60 seconds, and the intensity is moderate by palpation. What is the most accurate documentation for this contraction pattern?

A) Stage 1, latent phase

B) Stage 2, latent phase

C) Stage 1, active phase

D) Stage 2, active phase

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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patient will be most receptive to teaching about nonpharmacologic pain control methods?

A) Gravida 1, para 0, in transition

B) Gravida 2, para 1, admitted at 8 cm

C) Gravida 1, para 0, dilated 2 cm, 80% effaced

D) Gravida 3, para 2, complaining of intense perineal pressure

Q2) A patient in labor is approaching the transition stage and already has an epidural in place. An additional dose of medication has been prescribed and administered to the patient. Which priority intervention should be performed in order to evaluate the clinical response to treatment?

A) Obtain a pain scale response from the patient based on a 0 to 10 scale.

B) Document maternal blood pressure and fetal heart rates following medication administration and observe for any variations.

C) Document intake and output on the electronic health record (EHR).

D) Increase the flow rate of prescribed parenteral fluid to maintain hydration.

Q3) The health care provider's prescription reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 25 mg IV stat. The medication vial reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to one decimal point. _____ mL

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance

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38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a Category II pattern of the fetal heart rate is noted and the patient is lying on her left side, which nursing action is indicated?

A) Lower the head of the bed.

B) Place a wedge under the left hip.

C) Change her position to the right side.

D) Place the mother in Trendelenburg position.

Q2) The nurse is reviewing an electronic fetal monitor tracing from a patient in active labor and notes the fetal heart rate gradually drops to 20 beats per minute (bpm) below the baseline and returns to the baseline well after the completion of the patient's contractions. How will the nurse document these findings?

A) Late decelerations

B) Early decelerations

C) Variable decelerations

D) Proximal decelerations

Q3) What is the most likely cause for this fetal heart rate pattern?

A) Administration of an epidural for pain relief during labor

B) Cord compression

C) Breech position of fetus

D) Administration of meperidine (Demerol) for pain relief during labor

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the patient to be

A) discharged home with a sedative.

B) admitted for extended observation.

C) admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth.

D) discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

Q2) Which clinical finding would be an indication to the nurse that the fetus may be compromised?

A) Active fetal movements

B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s

C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds

D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

Q3) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to

A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.

B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.

C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.

D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.

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Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which finding would be indicative of an adverse response to terbutaline (Brethine)?

A) Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 134 bpm

B) Heart rate of 122 bpm

C) Two episodes of diarrhea

D) Fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL

Q2) Which patient situation presents the greatest risk for the occurrence of hypotonic dysfunction during labor?

A) A primigravida who is 17 years old

B) A 22-year-old multiparous patient with ruptured membranes

C) A primigravida who has requested no analgesia during her labor

D) A multiparous patient at 39 weeks of gestation who is expecting twins

Q3) Which patient is most at risk for a uterine rupture?

A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision

B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth

C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births

D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant

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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is planning comfort measures to implement for a patient after a vaginal birth. Which measures should the nurse plan to include in the patient's care plan? (Select all that apply.)

A) Sitz baths four times a day

B) Use of only warm water with the sitz baths

C) Topical anesthetic spray after perineal care

D) Ice pack to the perineum for the first 24 hours

E) Relax the perineal and buttock areas when sitting

Q2) The postpartum nurse has completed discharge teaching for a patient being discharged after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary?

A) "I may not have a bowel movement until the 2nd postpartum day."

B) "If I breastfeed and supplement with formula, I won't need any birth control."

C) "I know my normal pattern of bowel elimination won't return until about 8 to 10 days."

D) "If I am not breastfeeding, I should use birth control when I resume sexual relations with my husband."

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19

Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following a difficult vaginal birth of a singleton pregnancy, the patient starts bleeding heavily. Clots are expressed and a Foley catheter is inserted to empty the bladder because the uterine fundus is soft and displaced laterally from midline. Vital signs are 37.6°C (99.8°F), pulse 90 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and BP 130/90 mm Hg. Which pharmacologic intervention is indicated?

A) Oxytocin (Pitocin) to be administered in a piggyback solution

B) Administration of methylergonovine (Methergine)

C) Administration of prostaglandin analog

D) Increase in parenteral fluids

Q2) Which information should the nurse recognize as contributing to mastitis in the breastfeeding mother? (Select all that apply.)

A) Insufficient emptying

B) Feeding every 2 hours

C) Supplementing feedings

D) Blisters on both nipples

E) Alternating breastfeeding positions

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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which newborn is at higher risk for developing hypoglycemia? (Select all that apply.)

A) Post-term newborn

B) 38 weeks' gestation newborn

C) Small-for-gestational-age newborn

D) Large-for-gestational-age newborn

E) Term newborn delivered by cesarean birth

Q2) The nurse is explaining how a newly delivered baby initiates respirations. Which statement explains this process most accurately?

A) Drying off the infant

B) Chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors

C) An increase in the PO2 and a decrease in the PCO2

D) The continued functioning of the foramen ovale

Q3) During fetal circulation the pressure is greatest in the

A) left atrium.

B) right atrium.

C) hepatic system.

D) pulmonary veins.

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21

Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)

A) Translucent skin

B) Extended limp arms and legs

C) The ear springs back when folded

D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less

E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn

Q2) A new mother states, "My baby is so thin and wrinkled. It looks like he has too much skin." Which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse in response to the patient's statement?

A) "You sound disappointed about how your infant looks."

B) "All mothers are concerned about how their babies look."

C) "Don't worry. In no time he'll fill out his skin and look just fine."

D) "You know, all the cigarettes you smoked interfered with the nourishment he needed."

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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn

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Sample Questions

Q1) When an infant's temperature drops from (37 to 36.3°C) 98.7 to 97.4°F, the nurse should

A) instruct parents on the risks of cold stress.

B) determine the time and amount of last feeding.

C) increase the temperature in the mother's room.

D) evaluate infant for the presence of a blood sugar level higher than 50 mg/dL.

Q2) Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further education with regard to pacifier use?

A) "We will discard the pacifier if it becomes torn."

B) "We will replace the pacifier every 1 to 2 months."

C) "We will be sure to cleanse the pacifier frequently."

D) "We will keep track of the pacifier by tying it to a string around the baby's neck."

Q3) Which intervention should be included in the home care of a high-risk infant?

A) Feeding the infant on a strict schedule

B) Keeping the infant in the supine or prone position

C) Providing continued respiratory support and oxygen

D) Cleaning the umbilical cord several times daily with alcohol

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Infant Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A new mother asks why she has to open a new bottle of formula for each feeding. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Formula may turn sour after it is opened."

B) "Bacteria can grow rapidly in warm milk."

C) "Formula loses some nutritional value once it is opened."

D) "This makes it easier to keep track of how much the baby is taking."

Q2) Which type of formula should not be diluted before being administered to an infant?

A) Powdered

B) Concentrated

C) Ready to use

D) Modified cow's milk

Q3) A new mother asks the nurse, "How will I know early signs of hunger in my baby?" The nurse's best response is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Crying

B) Rooting

C) Lip smacking

D) Decrease in activity

E) Sucking on the hands

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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational

Age and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) In caring for the post-term infant, thermoregulation can be a concern, especially in an infant who also has a(n)

A) hematocrit level of 58%.

B) RBC count of 5 million/mcL.

C) WBC count of 15,000 cells/mmS1U1P13S1S1P0.

D) blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL.

Q2) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is

A) soft and supple skin.

B) a hematocrit level of 55%.

C) lack of subcutaneous fat.

D) an abundance of vernix caseosa.

Q3) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because

A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.

B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.

C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.

D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shortly after a cesarean birth, a newborn begins to exhibit difficulty breathing. Nasal flaring and slight retractions are noted. The newborn is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for closer observation, with a diagnosis of transient tachypnea of the neonate (TTN). The parents are notified and become anxious because they have no understanding of what this means for their infant. The best action that the nurse can take at this time is to

A) refer them to the neonatologist for more information.

B) reassure them not to worry. The infant will be monitored closely by trained staff.

C) explain to them that this often occurs following a birth and it will most likely resolve in the next 24 to 48 hours.

D) tell them that they will be able to come and see their baby, which will help make calm their anxiety.

Q2) The priority assessment for the Rh-negative infant whose mother's indirect Coombs test was positive at 36 weeks is

A) skin color.

B) temperature.

C) respiratory rate.

D) blood glucose level.

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Chapter 25: Family Planning

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Sample Questions

Q1) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should understand that

A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.

B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.

C) her temperature will increase about 0.2 to 0.4°C (0.4 to 0.8°F) after ovulation.

D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.

Q2) A patient is using Depo-Provera as her method of birth control. Which clinical finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

A) Mid-cycle bleeding

B) Nausea

C) Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)

D) Irregular periods

Q3) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n)

A) IUD.

B) diaphragm.

C) male condom.

D) oral contraceptive.

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Chapter 26: Infertility

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)

A) Abdominal bloating

B) Diarrhea

C) Oliguria

D) Nausea and vomiting

E) Abnormal uterine bleeding

Q2) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's ideal response is

A) "You should confront him about this."

B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."

C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."

D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."

Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?

A) Never conceived.

B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.

C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.

D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.

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Chapter 27: Womens Health

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175

Sample Questions

Q1) Which information should the nurse stress in teaching a patient how best to relieve the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

A) Decrease her consumption of caffeine.

B) Drink a small glass of wine with her evening meal.

C) Decrease her fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.

D) Eat three large meals a day to maintain glucose levels.

Q2) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)

A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers

B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment

C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer

D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population

E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)

Q3) The drug of choice to treat a gonorrhea infection is

A) penicillin G (Pfizerpen).

B) tetracycline (Achromycin).

C) ceftriaxone (Rocephin).

D) acyclovir (Zovirax).

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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