Introduction to Nuclear Medicine
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Nuclear Medicine is designed to provide students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles and clinical applications of nuclear medicine. The course covers the basic concepts of radioactive decay, radiopharmaceuticals, imaging techniques such as PET and SPECT, radiation safety, and quality control. Students will explore the diagnostic and therapeutic uses of nuclear medicine in fields such as oncology, cardiology, and neurology. By integrating theoretical knowledge with case studies and practical examples, the course prepares students to understand the role of nuclear medicine in modern healthcare and the multidisciplinary approach required for effective patient management.
Recommended Textbook
Nuclear Medicine and PETCT Technology and Techniques 8th Edition by Kristen M. Waterstram
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
24 Chapters
583 Verified Questions
583 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2477 Page 2
Chapter 1: Mathematics and Statistics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49216
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the coefficient of variation of 40,000 counts?
A)2%
B)1%
C)0.5%
D)0.25%
Answer: C
Q2) Readers are encouraged to use Microsoft Excel to solve this problem.What is the slope and intercept in the regression equation for problem 31? (board score) = intercept + (slope) * (exam score)
A)Intercept = 7.15, slope = 0.502
B)Intercept = 6.15, slope = 0.602
C)Intercept = 5.15, slope = 0.702
D)Intercept = 4.15, slope = 0.802
Answer: D
Q3) Which expression describes the operation of the gamma camera in question 16?
A)Operating properly
B)Showing too much variation
C)Showing too little variation
D)Not enough information to answer the question
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Cell and Molecular Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49217
Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis, endocytosis, and autophagy are processes that are performed by the A)Golgi bodies.
B)ribosomes.
C)nucleus.
D)lysosomes.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are viruses linked to cancer, EXCEPT A)influenza A.
B)hepatitis B.
C)human papilloma virus (HPV).
D)Epstein-Barr.
Answer: A
Q3) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is converted into a protein within the __________ of eukaryotic cell.
A)nucleus
B)mitochondria
C)ribosome
D)Golgi body
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry/biochemistry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49218
Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical properties of a substance may be affected by a change in conditions.If this occurs, the change will
A)result in the formation of one or more "new" substances.
B)exhibit the initial properties of the substance.
C)always be irreversible.
D)result in a change of the physical state of the substance.
Answer: A
Q2) A colloid is a type of mixture in which
A)the particles are aerosolized.
B)the particles settle and result in a layered mixture.
C)the particles remain suspended in the dispersing medium indefinitely.
D)all of the particles are of equal size and shape.
Answer: C
Q3) A buffer solution
A)helps maintain pH.
B)is necessary for a neutralization reaction.
C)is necessary for the suspension of colloids.
D)is important in redox reactions.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Radio-Chemistry/Radio-Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49219
Sample Questions
Q1) Prerelease testing for each batch of <sup>18</sup>F-FDG should include
A)determination of aluminum concentration.
B)titration testing.
C)identity testing.
D)lipophilic testing.
Q2) Annihilation radiation is characteristic of A)electron capture.
B)position decay.
C)negative beta decay.
D)isometric transition.
Q3) Gallium-67 is an example of a radionuclide that is A)generator produced.
B)reactor produced.
C)cyclotron produced.
D)byproduct material.
Q4) Hepatocyte function can be imagined using
A) (<sup>99m</sup>Tc)-sulfur colloid.
B) (<sup>99m</sup>TcO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>).
C) (<sup>99m</sup>Tc)-disofenin.
D) (<sup>99m</sup>TcO<sub>4</sub><sup>-)</sup>-tagged red blood cells.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Radiation Safety in Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49220
Sample Questions
Q1) Ionization meters should be used when surveying A)contamination.
B)large sources of radioactivity.
C)very small sources of radioactivity.
D)background radiation.
Q2) According to NRC regulations, the exposure rate in mrem/hr in unrestricted areas should not exceed
A)0.05.
B)0.5.
C)10.
D)2.
Q3) The exposure rate from a point source radioactive source is 250 mrem/hr at 2 m.What would be the exposure in mrem/hr at 3 m?
A)13.8
B)42
C)111
D)562
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49221
Sample Questions
Q1) The most direct way to intervene in the cycle of infection is to A)provide a susceptible host for the pathogen outside of the human body.
B)limit contact with patients.
C)prevent transmission of the pathogen from the reservoir to a susceptible host.
D)isolate vector-borne pathogens.
Q2) Before the administration of ROCM, the technologist should know the patient's A)BUN level.
B)creatinine level.
C)T<sub>4</sub> level.
D)alkaline phosphatase level.
Q3) During the injection of a patient, the technologist notices a swelling around the injection site.The technologist should A)release the tourniquet.
B)continue with the injection.
C)check for a flashback of blood.
D)discontinue the injection.
Q4) MR contrast media is administered in high doses compared to CT contrast media. A)True B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Department Administration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49222
Sample Questions
Q1) When a leader celebrates and recognizes the accomplishments of team members, this leadership behavior is termed
A)encourage the heart.
B)inspire a shared vision.
C)enable others to act.
D)model the way.
Q2) Which leader skill set requires the leader to appreciate and understand their role in the relationship between the organizational structure and culture?
A)Change management
B)Marketing
C)Law and ethics
D)Organizational behavior
Q3) What are the first two digits for the CPT Category code for therapeutic nuclear medicine procedures?
A)78
B)79
C)09
D)10
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Clinical Research
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49223
Sample Questions
Q1) Which acronym is used to aid in proper documentation during a clinical trial?
A)IRB
B)GCP
C)CRO
D)ALCOA
Q2) In the U.S., clinical trials must be approved by an independent ethics committee, which is called the
A)Contract Research Organization (CRO).
B)Good Clinical Practice (GPC).
C)Institutional Review Board (IRB).
D)Common Rule.
Q3) Which of the following often results in data not deemed evaluable for a protocol analysis?
A)Protocol deviation
B)Protocol violation
C)Study aberration
D)Study eccentricity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Health Informatics in Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49224
Sample Questions
Q1) Software magnification
A)increases resolution.
B)decreases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
Q2) The image density for each pixel is determined by
A)the gamma-ray counts stored within a pixel.
B)the ratio of the z pulse to the x and y pulse.
C)the counts detected minus the rollover counts.
D)size of the matrices in which the pixels configured.
Q3) In an 8-bit color image, the range of displayed color intensities would be
A)0 to 64.
B)0 to 100.
C)0 to 128.
D)0 to 255.
Q4) Interpolation results in a loss of image data.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Physics of Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49225
Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming the biological half-life of <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MAA is 3 hours, what would be the effective half-life?
A)0.3 hour
B)0.5 hour
C)2 hours
D)3 hours
Q2) The half-value layer (HVL) for annihilation radiation in lead is 4.1 cm.Approximately what percentage of a of 511 keV photon beam will penetrate 15 cm of lead?
A)50%
B)37%
C)33%
D)25%
Q3) When electron capture occurs,
A)an orbital electron is captured and combined with a proton to form a neutron.
B)a beta-minus electron is recaptured and added to a proton to form a neutron.
C)there is a transfer of energy from the nucleus to an orbital electron.
D)an orbital electron is captured and converted to a positron.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49226
Sample Questions
Q1) Increased sensitivity for SPECT imaging can be achieved by using a A)general-purpose collimator.
B)converging collimator.
C)high-energy collimator.
D)high-resolution collimator.
Q2) When referring to image quality, contrast
A)refers to how well objects can be separated in space.
B)determines whether two objects have different activity concentrations.
C)refers to the ability to see the edge of a structure.
D)occurs because of the random nature of counting statistics.
Q3) A low-pass filter
A)allows low frequencies to pass and blocks high frequencies.
B)blocks low frequencies and allows high frequencies to pass.
C)smoothes images by reducing low frequencies.
D)reduces noise by blocking low frequencies.
Q4) The 360-degree orbit is most often used in SPECT studies EXCEPT for scans of A)the brain.
B)the heart.
C)the liver.
D)bone.
Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: CT Physics and Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49227
Sample Questions
Q1) In x-ray tubes, the types of reactions that produce x-rays include
A)Bremsstrahlung and scatter.
B)Bremsstrahlung and characteristic.
C)characteristic and scatter.
D)characteristic and refraction.
Q2) All of the following are true about the kVp setting EXCEPT
A)it selects the maximum possible energy of the x-ray beam.
B)it defines the fraction of photons that will reach the detectors.
C)it affects the radiation exposure to the patient.
D)it increases beam hardening.
Q3) Which of the following restricts the width and shapes the beam to the area of interest for a single rotation of the tube and detectors around the patient?
A)Prepatient collimators
B)Postpatient collimators
C)Pitch
D)Rotation speed
Q4) Thin collimation has an advantage because it results in faster scanning time.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Pet Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49228
Sample Questions
Q1) Spatial resolution on PET scanners is determined primarily by
A)the collimator used and the size of the septa.
B)the size of the crystals and their separation.
C)the sensitivity of the system and the number of rings.
D)the scatter correction and the accuracy of the attenuation correction.
Q2) All of the following have been used as crystals for PET imaging EXCEPT A)BGO.
B)LSO.
C)LYSO.
D)YBGO.
Q3) Regarding septa on a PET system, all of the following are true EXCEPT
A)they limit the field of view of events to those within the same detector ring, or events with contiguous planes.
B)they reduce the number of scatter and random events from outside the plane.
C)they allow for the system to operate in 2D mode.
D)they allow for the system to operate in 3D mode.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Principles of Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49229
Sample Questions
Q1) Fat has a long T1 and a long T2.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a strong magnetic field, hydrogen atoms can align
A)perpendicular or antiperpendicular to the magnetic field.
B)parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field.
C)oblique or antioblique to the magnetic field.
D)at random to the magnetic field.
Q3) A nucleus with an even number of protons and neutrons has a magnetic moment of A) 1.
B) 0.
C) 1.
D) Does not have a magnetic moment
Q4) The magnetic moment describes the magnetic field characteristics of the A)neutron.
B)nucleus.
C)cell.
D)proton.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Clinical Petct in Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49230
Sample Questions
Q1) An inpatient who is receiving total parental nutrition is scheduled for PET exam at 3:00 PM.Those responsible for his care should
A)discontinue the feeding 2 hours before the study.
B)discontinue the feeding 4 hours before the study.
C)discontinue the feeding 6 to 8 hours before the study.
D)not have to discontinue this type of feeding.
Q2) Brain tumors are easily identified with FDG imaging. A)True
B)False
Q3) At the time of a PET scan, ideally the blood glucose level should not be above
A)60 mg/dL.
B)100 mg/dL.
C)120 mg/dL.
D)180 mg/dL.
Q4) Once the intravenous line is started for the FDG injection, the patient should A)relax for 10 minutes and refrain from talking.
B)be positioned for imaging.
C)have a blood glucose level measured.
D)be instructed to return to the department in 1 hour for the procedure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49231
Sample Questions
Q1) Acetylcholine is
A)excitatory in the brain and inhibitory in the heart.
B)inhibitory in the brain and excitatory in the heart.
C)excitatory in the brain and excitatory in the heart.
D)inhibitory in the brain and inhibitory in the heart.
Q2) A patient is sent to the nuclear medicine department to have a CNS <sup>111</sup>In-DTPA study performed to
A)assess integrity of the blood-brain barrier.
B)assess cerebral spinal flow dynamics.
C)localize seizure focal points.
D)assess brain death.
Q3) Which form of dementia demonstrates on SPECT with hypoperfusion and PET with reduced glucose metabolism in the frontal and temporal lobes with sparing of the remaining cerebral cortex?
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Frontotemporal dementias
D)Lewy body dementia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49232
Sample Questions
Q1) On a scan, within the thyroid, thyroid carcinoma is often seen as
A)a hyperactive ("hot") area.
B)a hypoactive ("cold") area.
C)diffuse areas of increased activity.
D)total suppression of gland activity.
Q2) After a total thyroidectomy, a patient is referred to the nuclear medicine department for imaging.For effective evaluation and identification of residual thyroid tissue or tumor, the technologist should review the patient's recent history to determine if the patient has taken steps to raise the plasma
A)TSH level.
B)TRH level.
C)TBG level.
D)T<sub>3</sub> level.
Q3) When the thyroid gland is the source of excessive thyroid hormone, is diffusely large, and is homogenously active, it is characteristic of A)Graves' disease.
B)Plummer's disease.
C)multinodular goiter.
D)thyroid cancer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Respiratory System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49233
Sample Questions
Q1) The diameter of a normal capillary is approximately
A)0.05 to 0.1 µm.
B)7 to 10 µm.
C)30 to 40 µm.
D)45 µm.
Q2) One-half dose (reduced number of particles) should be given to patients with all of the following EXCEPT
A)pulmonary hypertension.
B)right-to-left shunts.
C)a pneumonectomy.
D)bronchitis.
Q3) Which ventilation agent has the longest half-life?
A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-DTPA Aerosol
B)(<sup>133</sup>)Xe
C)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc MAA
D)All have equal half-lives
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49234
Sample Questions
Q1) The major categories of radiopharmaceuticals used in cardiac imaging include all of the following EXCEPT
A)perfusion tracers.
B)blood pool tracers.
C)glucose and fatty acid analogs.
D)phosphorous analogs.
Q2) In cardiac SPECT imaging, the horizontal long-axis view corresponds to A)sagittal views, presented from the apex to the base.
B)coronal images, presented from the septum to the lateral wall.
C)septal images, presented from the septum to the posterior wall.
D)transverse sections, presented from the inferior to the anterior surface.
Q3) When performing equilibrium-gated blood pool imaging, temporal smoothing should be used only when
A)the heart rate is regular.
B)the heart rate is erratic.
C)premature contractions are detected.
D)there are tall P waves in the cardiac cycle.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49235
Sample Questions
Q1) In a normal hepatobiliary study, one would expect to see the A)gastrointestinal (GI) tract by 30 minutes and gallbladder by 45 to 60 minutes.
B)gallbladder by 30 minutes and the GI tract by 45 to 60 minutes.
C)GI tract by 15 minutes and the gallbladder by 30 minutes.
D)gallbladder by 15 minutes and the GI tract by 30 minutes.
Q2) In cholescintigraphy, nonvisualization of the gallbladder is consistent with A)cholesteatoma.
B)chronic cholecystitis.
C)acute cholecystitis.
D)choledochitis.
Q3) Technetium-99m-sulfur colloid and <sup>99m</sup>Tc-albumin colloid are the radiopharmaceuticals most commonly used for imaging the A)salivary glands.
B)liver and spleen.
C)gallbladder.
D)small intestine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Genitourinary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49236
Sample Questions
Q1) After the injection of furosemide in a diuretic renal imaging study, the washout activity from the collecting system has a clearance half-time of less than 10 minutes.This is most likely indicative of a(n)
A)obstruction.
B)polycystic kidney.
C)dilated but unobstructed kidney.
D)normal kidney.
Q2) A patient informs the technologist that he has a ptotic kidney.Because of this, the technologist positions the patient in a sitting position.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Morphologic renal imaging can be used to document
A)GFR and ERPF.
B)global and regional changes in renal function.
C)the existence of an ileal loop.
D)the evaluation of acute renal failure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 22: Skeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49237
Sample Questions
Q1) Fluorine-18 is an analog of A)calcium.
B)phosphorous.
C)hydroxyl.
D)technetium.
Q2) Equal-time imaging for bone scanning refers to the technique in which
A)one area is imaged for preset counts with the time recorded and all subsequent images are taken for that same time interval.
B)third- and fourth-phase images are taken for the same time interval.
C)second- and third-phase images are taken for the same time interval.
D)parameters are set so the same amount of time is used for each image in a flow sequence.
Q3) A nomogram is used for
A)determining proper scan speed.
B)determining proper ID.
C)determining equal-time imagery.
D)determining sites of superimposition.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Inflammatory Tumoroncology Imaging and Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49238
Sample Questions
Q1) Meta-iodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) acts as an analog to A)glucagon.
B)neuroepinephrine.
C)calcium.
D)somatostatin.
Q2) Which is NOT a radionuclide used for treatment of bone pain?
A)(<sup>32</sup>P)-sodium phosphate
B)(<sup>123</sup>)I-tositumomab
C)(<sup>153</sup>)Sm-lexidronam
D)(<sup>223</sup>)Ra dichloride
Q3) Patient preparation for a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-depreotide study includes A)hydration prior to and following injection.
B)administration of a thyroid blocking agent.
C)IV administration of a glucose solution.
D)a laxative at 24 hours prior to imaging.
Q4) The radionuclide used to visualize primary neuroendocrine tumors is A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-sestamibi. B)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-arcitumomab.
C)(<sup>111</sup>)In-capromab pendetide. D)(<sup>111</sup>)In-pentetreotide.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Hematopoietic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49239
Sample Questions
Q1) The position typically used for a patient undergoing a spleen count as part of a splenic sequestration study is A)supine.
B)prone.
C)upright.
D)on the right side.
Q2) The conventional agent used for the estimation of plasma volume is A)(<sup>111</sup>)In-oxine.
B)(<sup>125</sup>)I-HSA.
C)(<sup>32 </sup>)P-chromic phosphate. D)(<sup>51</sup>)Cr-ascorbic acid.
Q3) The life span of an RBC is approximately A)30 days.
B)60 days.
C)90 days.
D)120 days.
Q4) Serum is plasma with clotting factors.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26