Introduction to Neuroscience
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Introduction to Neuroscience offers a comprehensive overview of the structure and function of the nervous system, exploring the biological basis of behavior, cognition, and perception. The course covers fundamental concepts such as neural communication, neuroanatomy, sensory and motor systems, neural development, and plasticity. Students will examine major neurological and psychiatric disorders to understand the real-world implications of neuroscience research, and will also be introduced to current experimental techniques and methodologies in the field. This foundational course provides the scientific framework necessary for further study and inquiry into the complexities of brain function and its critical role in shaping human experience.
Recommended Textbook
Neuroscience 4th Edition by Laurie Lundy Ekman
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19 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Neuroscience
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual is admitted to the hospital to investigate a recently discovered abdominal mass.To determine the metabolic rate of the mass,an imaging study is ordered,during which a radioisotope is injected into the patient's bloodstream.This study is an example of which one of the following?
A)Computed tomographic (CT)scan
B)Functional magnetic resonance image (fMRI)
C)Diffusion tensor image (DTI)
D)PET scan
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following arteries are part of the circle of Willis?
A)Internal carotid and vertebral arteries
B)Anterior and lateral cerebral arteries
C)Anterior and posterior cerebral arteries
D)Medial and lateral communicating arteries
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Physical and Electrical Properties of Cells in the
Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nodes of Ranvier:
A)Are distributed approximately every 1 to 2 millimeters (mm)along the membrane of the cell axon.
B)Contain a high density of modality-gated K channels for rapid depolarization of the membrane.
C)Contain a high density of voltage-gated Na channels for rapid repolarization of the membrane.
D)Have low membrane capacitance,preventing the accumulation of electrical charge.
E)Are heavily myelinated,which allows for rapid diffusion of an electrical potential.
Answer: A
Q2) Glial cells contribute which of the following?
A)Communication between neurons and blood vessels
B)Neural cell death
C)Action potential propagation
D)Both A and B
E)All of the above
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Synapses and Synaptic Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binding of ACh at the neuromuscular junction results in:
A)An inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
B)Presynaptic facilitation.
C)Presynaptic inhibition.
D)An excitatory postsynaptic potential.
Answer: D
Q2) An antagonist drug acts by:
A)Preventing the release of a neurotransmitter.
B)Binding to a receptor to facilitate the effect of a neurotransmitter.
C)Elevating neurotransmitter levels in the synaptic cleft.
D)Increasing the number of active receptors on a cell membrane.
Answer: A
Q3) Receptor activity is regulated by:
A)Decreasing the number of receptors through internalization.
B)Decreasing the number of available receptors through inactivation.
C)Increasing the number of active receptors.
D)Both A and B
E)All of the above
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Neuroplasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excitotoxicity begins with:
A)Excessive production of lactic acid.
B)Destruction of cellular proteins.
C)Cellular edema.
D)Persistent binding of glutamate to N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-type receptors in the postsynaptic cell membrane.
E)Interference of mitochondria functions.
Q2) Which one of the following statements about constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT)is true?
A)CIMT results in functional reorganization of the cortex.
B)CIMT should be initiated within 5 days after the onset of stroke.
C)CIMT involves the constraint of the unaffected UE and intense task-related practice of the affected UE.
D)Both A and C
Q3) Cellular effects of excitotoxicity include:
A)Excessive production of lactic acid.
B)Destruction of cellular proteins.
C)Cellular edema.
D)Interference of mitochondria functions.
E)All of the above
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Chapter 5: Development of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors associated with autistic disorders include:
A)Abnormality of the caudate and putamen.
B)Temporal cortical damage.
C)Cerebellar atrophy.
D)Prenatal hypoxia.
Q2) Which one of the following structures is derived from the neural crest?
A)Dorsal horn of the spinal cord
B)Motor neurons to skeletal muscle
C)Peripheral nerve except motor neurons
D)Ventral horn of the spinal cord
E)Both A and D
Q3) Which one of the following statements about somites is NOT true?
A)The sclerotome develops into the vertebrae and skull.
B)The myotome develops into skeletal muscle.
C)The dermatome develops into skin.
D)Somites are added in a caudal-to-rostral direction.
E)Somites develop adjacent to the neural groove.
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Chapter 6: Somatosensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the four types of somatosensations?
A)Movement,touch,temperature,and pain
B)Speed,pressure,touch,and temperature
C)Pressure,pain,touch,and temperature
D)Pain,proprioception,touch,and temperature
Q2) Which of the following pathways brings sensory information to the brain?
A)Conscious relay
B)Divergent
C)Unconscious relay
D)All of the above
Q3) Rapidly turning the eyes and head toward a painful stimulus is a function of which one of the following tracts?
A)Trigeminoreticulolimbic
B)Spinoreticular
C)Spinomesencephalic
D)Trigeminospinothalamic
E)Dorsal column medial lemniscus
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Chapter 7: Somatosensation: Clinical Application
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a site in the nervous system where the transmission of nociceptive information can be altered?
A)Hormonal system
B)Dorsal horn
C)Cortical level
D)All of the above
Q2) Lesions in what location(s)will result in decreased or lost sensation from the contralateral body or face?
A)Ventral posterolateral (VPL)nucleus of the thalamus
B)Ventral posteromedial (VPM)nucleus of the thalamus
C)A and B
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not measured during a complete sensory evaluation?
A)Proprioceptive thresholds
B)Conscious touch sensitivity
C)Thresholds for stimulation
D)All of the above
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9
Chapter 8: Neuropathic Pain, pain Matrix Dysfunction, and Pain Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of headache is characterized by pain triggered by coughing,sneezing,or straining;vomiting;and worsening when lying down?
A)Headache caused by excessive pressure
B)Headache caused by hemorrhage
C)Headache caused by serious intracranial disease
D)ETTH
Q2) Which of the following are characteristic of CRPS?
A)Effects on the somatosensory,autonomic,and motor systems
B)Muscle guarding,disuse,and abnormal movements
C)None of the above
D)A and B
Q3) Tinel's sign is associated with which of the following?
A)Avulsion of dorsal roots as a result of trauma
B)Maladaptive structural reorganization with phantom pain
C)Neuropathic syndrome associated with fibromyalgia
D)Ectopic foci associated with peripheral neuropathy
E)All of the above
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block beta-1 ( 1)receptors are used to treat which one of the following?
A)Asthma
B)Excess sweating
C)Metabolic disorders
D)Tachycardia
E)Vagus nerve disorders
Q2) Capacitance vessels include which of the following?
A)Skeletal muscle veins and venules
B)Arterioles in the skin
C)Arterioles in the CNS
D)Skeletal muscle arteries and arterioles
E)Arteries in the abdomen
Q3) Where are the cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons located?
A)Autonomic nuclei of the brainstem
B)Lateral horn of spinal cord T1-L2 levels
C)Lateral horn of spinal cord S2-S4 levels
D)Ganglia adjacent to the spinal cord
E)Ganglia near the thoracic cavity
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Chapter 10: The Motor System: Motor Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism by which onabotulinumtoxinA (BOTOX)decreases muscle activation?
A)Blocks the binding of acetylcholine (ACh)to the motor end plate.
B)Inhibits the binding of myosin to active sites on actin.
C)Blocks the release of Ca ² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D)Inhibits the release of ACh from the presynaptic terminal.
E)None of the above occurs.
Q2) Decorticate rigidity occurs with which of the following?
A)Lesions of the medulla
B)Vascular lesions of the anterior choroidal artery
C)Lesions superior to the midbrain
D)Lesions to the cerebellar lobes
E)All of the above
Q3) Clonus is characterized by which one of the following?
A)Involuntary,repetitive,and rhythmic muscle contractions in response to muscle stretch
B)Decrease in resistance to passive stretch of a hypertonic muscle
C)Excessive resistance to both passive and active muscle stretch
D)Prolonged contraction of antigravity muscles
E)Brief,involuntary contraction of a single muscle fiber
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Basal Ganglia, cerebellum, and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a potential treatment option for individuals with Parkinson's disease?
A)L-3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (l-DOPA)
B)Deep-brain stimulation
C)Physical and occupational therapy
D)All of the above
Q2) The return of motor control after treatment of focal dystonia is likely the result of which one of the following?
A)Stretching of tight muscles
B)Application of heat to relieve spasms
C)Improvement in the organization of somatosensory cortex
D)None of the above
Q3) The basal ganglia are important for influencing motor movements but is also involved in other types of behavior.Which of the following additional loops involves the basal ganglia?
A)Oculomotor loop
B)Executive loop
C)Behavioral flexibility and control loop
D)All of the above
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Chapter 12: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the sacral plexus innervate?
A)Diaphragm
B)Medial leg and foot
C)Posterior thigh and most of the leg and foot
D)None of the above
Q2) Which one of the plexes innervates the posterior thigh and most of the leg and foot?
A)Cervical
B)Brachial
C)Lumbar
D)Sacral
E)None of the above
Q3) The brachial plexus emerges from:
A)Between the anterior and middle scalene muscles
B)Between the posterior and middle scalene muscles
C)Psoas major muscle
D)Psoas minor muscle
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Chapter 13: Spinal Region
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of descending sympathetic control as a result of complete spinal cord lesions above T6 result in which of the following?
A)Orthostatic hypotension
B)Autonomic dysreflexia
C)Poor thermoregulation
D)Both A and B
E)A,B,and,C
Q2) Dorsal rhizotomy is the selective surgical ablation of which of the following?
A)Dorsal horn neurons
B)Posterior commissural axons
C)Dorsal roots
D)Dorsal columns
E)Nucleus dorsalis
Q3) Complete spinal cord lesions above which one of the following levels results in long-term ventilator dependence?
A)C4
B)C5
C)C6
D)C7
E)All of the above
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Chapter 14: Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three cortical areas are dedicated to processing auditory information: the primary auditory cortex,the secondary auditory cortex,and Wernicke's area.This statement is which of the following?
A)True.
B)False.Wernicke's area is not the area involved;rather,Broca's area is involved in processing auditory information.
C)False.The secondary auditory cortex is not involved.
D)False.Broca's area is also involved in processing auditory information.
Q2) What symptoms would manifest after a complete lesion of the vagus nerve?
A)Compromise of both the gag reflex and the swallowing reflex;decrease in salivation
B)Atrophy of the ipsilateral tongue
C)Paralysis of the ipsilateral sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
D)Difficulty speaking and swallowing,poor digestion,asymmetric elevation of the palate,and hoarseness
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Chapter 15: Brainstem Region
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activity of which nucleus regulates the ability to direct attention to stimuli in the environment?
A)Ventral tegmental area
B)Pedunculopontine nucleus
C)Raphe nuclei
D)Locus coeruleus
E)Medial reticular area
Q2) Which of the following is a function of the medulla?
A)Contributes to postural control
B)Coordinates swallowing
C)Regulates cardiovascular,respiratory,and visceral activity
D)Participates in all of the above
Q3) What area of the brain actively induces sleep?
A)Ascending reticular activating system
B)Brainstem
C)Basal forebrain
D)None of the above
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Chapter 16: Vestibular and Visual Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial longitudinal fasciculus is a bilateral axonal pathway between the vestibular nuclei and which of the following?
A)Cranial nerve nuclei III,IV,and VI
B)Superior colliculus
C)Cranial nerve nuclei XI
D)A and B
E)A,B,and C
Q2) Projections from the vestibular nuclei contribute to which of the following?
A)Postural adjustments
B)Autonomic function and consciousness
C)Gaze stabilization
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the most common cause of near syncope?
A)Perilymph fistula
B)Somatosensory deficits
C)Cardiovascular disorders
D)Psychologic or stress disorders
E)Motion sickness
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18
Chapter 17: Cerebrum
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is(are)the effect(s)of persistently high levels of cortisol (i.e.,a prolonged stress response)?
A)Suppression of immune function
B)Increased incidence of colitis,cardiovascular disorders,and adult-onset diabetes
C)Cognitive and emotional disturbances
D)Both A and B
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about Wernicke's area is correct?
A)It provides the instructions for speech output.
B)It is important for reading and writing.
C)It is contralateral to Broca's area.
D)Both A and B are true.
E)All of the above are true.
Q3) Categorizing sounds as language,music,or noise occurs in which of the following?
A)Superior colliculus
B)Secondary auditory cortex
C)Secondary visual cortex
D)Primary auditory cortex
E)Cochlear nuclei
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Cerebrum: Clinical Applications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What differences generally appear in how attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)manifests in boys versus in girls?
A)No differences exist.
B)Boys with ADHD are more likely to be inattentive than girls;girls tend to be hyperactive or impulsive.
C)Girls with ADHD are more likely to be inattentive than boys;boys tend to be hyperactive or impulsive.
D)Girls with ADHD are less likely to be inattentive than boys;boys tend to be hyperactive or impulsive.
Q2) For which condition might a callosotomy be beneficial?
A)Epilepsy
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Arthritis
D)Dementia
Q3) Which of the following items is an aspect of emotional lability?
A)Abrupt mood shifts
B)Lack of emotion
C)Intentionally ignoring someone else's emotions
D)None of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Support Systems: Blood Supply and
Cerebrospinal Fluid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has recently suffered a cerebrovascular accident and demonstrates left-sided hemiplegia with the leg more severely affected than the arm.The most likely location of this patient's infarction is which one of the following arteries?
A)Anterior cerebral
B)Middle cerebral
C)Posterior cerebral
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following generally carries the most promising prognosis for recovery?
A)Thrombic infarction
B)Lacunar infarction
C)Basilar artery occlusion
D)Subdural hematoma
Q3) Partial occlusion of the basilar artery may cause:
A)Tetraplegia.
B)Loss of sensation.
C)Coma.
D)Cranial nerve signs.
E)All of the above
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