Introduction to Neuroscience Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Introduction to Neuroscience provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles underlying the structure and function of the nervous system. This course explores the cellular and molecular basis of neural signaling, the organization and connectivity of neural circuits, and the biological mechanisms that underlie perception, movement, and cognition. Students will examine how the brain processes information, adapts to experiences, and interacts with other physiological systems, as well as the impact of neurological disorders. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, the course offers foundational knowledge for further study in neuroscience, psychology, biology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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Chapter 1:What Are the Origins of Brain and Behavior? Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define common ancestor and how this applies to Darwin's theory of evolution.
Answer: A common ancestor refers to a hypothetical organism from which two or more different species are believed to have evolved. In the context of Darwin's theory of evolution, the concept of a common ancestor is central to the idea that all living organisms are related and share a common ancestry. Darwin proposed that over long periods of time, species have evolved from common ancestors through a process of descent with modification, driven by natural selection. This means that different species share common traits and characteristics because they inherited them from a common ancestor, and as they adapted to different environments, they evolved into distinct species. The concept of a common ancestor provides a framework for understanding the interconnectedness of all life on Earth and the diversity of species that have emerged through the process of evolution.
Q2) What is epigenetics and why is it an important topic to study?
Answer: no answer
Q3) What is materialism and how has it influenced the study of neuroscience?
Answer: no answer
Q4) What are memes and how do they influence our evolution?
Answer: no answer
Page 3
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Chapter 1:What Are the Origins of Brain and Behavior? Part
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Q1) Modern humans appeared approximately:
A) 50,000 years ago.
B) 200,000 years ago.
C) 100,000 years ago.
D) 1 million years ago.
Answer: B
Q2) The encephalization quotient is determined by:
A) measuring the size of an animal's brain.
B) measuring the weight of an animal's brain.
C) relating actual brain size to expected brain size.
D) comparing the brain size of different species with one another.
Answer: C
Q3) The difficulty in explaining how a nonmaterial mind can influence a material body is called:
A) the mind problem.
B) the mind-body problem.
C) the brain problem.
D) the psyche problem
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 2:What Is the Nervous System's Functional
Anatomy? Part A
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Q1) Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Answer: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two branches of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When activated, it increases heart rate, dilates the airways, and redirects blood flow to the muscles, preparing the body for physical activity. This response is triggered in times of stress or danger.
On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "rest and digest" response. When activated, it slows down heart rate, constricts the airways, and stimulates digestion. This response helps the body to relax and recover after a stressful situation.
In summary, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action and stress, while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes relaxation and recovery. These two systems work in balance to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Page 5
Chapter 2:What Is the Nervous System's Functional
Anatomy? Part C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)flows between:
A) the arachnoid layer and pia mater.
B) the dura mater and pia mater.
C) the dura mater and arachnoid layer.
D) the superficial layer and deep layer.
Q2) The brain appears to have:
A) mainly serial or hierarchical systems.
B) mainly parallel systems.
C) a combination of serial and parallel systems.
D) parallel systems at lower levels and serial processing farther up.
Q3) Sensory input to the spinal cord travels via the:
A) dorsal spinal cord.
B) ventral spinal cord.
C) medial spinal cord.
D) lateral spinal cord.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with meningitis?
A) severe headache
B) stiff neck
C) aggressiveness
D) convulsions
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Chapter
Part A
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Q1) How does genetic engineering help us understand the human condition?
Q2) What are the five types of glial cells,and what are their primary functions?
Q3) What are the three types of brain tumors? How do they differ from one another?
Q4) List the internal components of a cell.
Q5) What are the major functions of Schwann cells? How do they assist in the recovery from nerve damage?
Q6) What is Huntington disease,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q7) What are the major functions of ependymal cells?
Q8) What is selective breeding,and how can it be used to select for specific traits? Give an example.
Q9) What are three major types of neurons? How are they functionally different?
Q10) List the functions of the cell nucleus.
Q11) What is epigenetics? Why is studying it important?
Page 7
Q12) What is Down syndrome,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q13) What is phenotypic plasticity?
Q14) Differentiate between dominant and recessive genes.
Q15) What role do Golgi bodies play inside of neurons?
Q16) What functions do proteins contribute to cell function?
Q17) List the types of genetic engineering.
Q18) What are the major functions of astroglia?
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Part C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell membrane is important because:
A) it controls the amount of water in the cell.
B) it regulates the concentration of salts on two sides of the membrane.
C) it controls the amount of water in the cell and regulates the concentration of salts on two sides of the membrane.
D) it forms myelin sheaths in the cell.
Q2) Mitochondria and lysosomes are analogous to:
A) power and transportation.
B) transportation and power.
C) fence and power.
D) power and fence.
Q3) Expressed genetic traits of an individual are referred to as their: A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) wild type.
D) mutation.
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Chapter 4:How Do Neurons Use Electrical Signals to
Transmit Information? Part A
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Q1) Describe the work of Luigi Galvani and Roberts Bartholow.How did they contribute to our knowledge of how the nervous system operates?
Q2) What is multiple sclerosis (MS)? What are some of the identified risk factors for MS?
Q3) Differentiate between a negative and a positive pole.
Q4) Define EPSP and IPSP.
Q5) What is significant about the giant axon of the squid?
Q6) How does the sodium-potassium pump work?
Q7) Differentiate between absolute and relative refractory periods.
Q8) What are nodes of Ranvier,and what role do they play in the conduction of nerve impulses?
Q9) What are temporal and spatial summation?
Q10) What are the two primary reasons refractory periods are important for the conduction of nerve impulses?
Q11) What is the patch technique?
10
Q12) What is the difference between depolarization and hyperpolarization?
Q13) How does the nerve impulse travel from the axon hillock to the end of the axon
without degrading in magnitude?
Q14) What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)and how is it recorded?
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Chapter 4:How Do Neurons Use Electrical Signals to
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Q1) Saltatory conduction refers to:
A) sodium concentration in the extracellular fluid.
B) action potentials that are facilitated by sodium.
C) action potentials jumping from one node to the next.
D) the leakage of the sodium channels that require the existence of a sodium-potassium pump.
Q2) An action potential is:
A) a large graded potential.
B) a large,brief reversal in the polarity of a membrane.
C) the same as a threshold potential.
D) seldom shorter than 10 milliseconds.
Q3) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)are associated with:
A) the opening of potassium channels,allowing the outflow of potassium.
B) the opening of sodium channels,allowing the influx of sodium.
C) the closing of potassium channels,stopping the influx of potassium.
D) the closing of sodium channels,stopping the influx of potassium.
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Chapter 5:How Do Neurons Communicate and Adapt? Part
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Q1) _____ contribute to chemical neurotransmission by supplying the building blocks for neurotransmitters or by cleaning up excess neurotransmitters.
A) Glial cells
B) Dendrites
C) Receptors
D) Neurons
Q2) Receptors on the presynaptic side that may be influenced by neurotransmitters are called:
A) autoreceptors.
B) presynaptic receptors.
C) presynaptic terminals.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)has been linked with:
A) an increased response to stimuli.
B) a decreased response to stimuli.
C) a decrease in acetylcholine.
D) a decreased response to stimuli and a decrease in acetylcholine.
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Chapter 5:How Do Neurons Communicate and Adapt? Part
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Q1) What are the neurochemical neurons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic system?
Q2) Define sensitization.What is the synaptic basis of sensitization?
Q3) What are the four steps involved in transmitting information across a chemical synapse?
Q4) What are transmitter-activated receptors?
Q5) What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?
Q6) What are the four main amino acid transmitters and what are their functions?
Q7) What is the function of storage granules?
Q8) Describe the synthesis of the amine neurotransmitters.
Q9) What are the differences between chemical synapses and electrical synapses? What functions do they serve?
Q10) Define habituation.What is the synaptic basis of the habituation response?
Q11) What are second messengers? What role do they play in neural transmission?
Q13) What behaviors are associated with the serotonergic system? Page 14
Q12) What are the differences between excitatory and inhibitory synapses?
Q14) What are the different ways in which a neurotransmitter could become deactivated?
Q15) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q16) How did chemical transmitters originate?
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Chapter 6:How Do Drugs and Hormones Influence the Brain and
Behavior? Part A
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Q1) Describe the processes that are involved in starting and stopping the stress response.?
Q2) What is the difference between substance abuse and substance dependence?
Q3) What is behavioral myopia?
Q4) List the most efficient routes of drug administration.
Q5) What are MAO inhibitors used for?
Q6) Define homeostasis and give examples of homeostatic hormones.
Q7) Briefly describe the blood-brain barrier.
Q8) What are the effects on the brain of chronically high cortisol levels?
Q9) Describe the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction.
Q10) Differentiate between agonists and antagonists.
Q11) What is the difference between morphine and heroin?
Q12) What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD),and what are its major symptoms?
Q13) What is drug sensitization and how does it occur?
Q14) What evidence suggests that changes in cognitive behavior are a result of gonadal Page 16
Q15) Define and differentiate between metabolic tolerance and cellular tolerance.
Q16) Why is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine important? What are the effects of curare on acetylcholine?
Q17) What is the organizational hypothesis?
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Chapter 6:How Do Drugs and Hormones Influence the Brain and Behavior?
Part B
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Q1) If I had an anxiety disorder I would probably take:
A) Haldol.
B) Valium.
C) Prozac.
D) Imipramine.
Q2) Gonadal hormones:
A) contribute to cognitive functioning.
B) are less important for females in producing the female body.
C) act on us before we are born.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Your friend has recently been diagnosed with major depression.She has been prescribed several SSRIs over the last few months,but none seem to be working well.Your advice to her is to ask her doctor about using:
A) clozapine.
B) ketamine.
C) L-dopa.
D) barbiturates.
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Page 18
Chapter 7:How Do We Study the Brain's Structures and
Functions? Part A
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Q1) List three examples of neuropsychological tests.What are they used to examine?
Q2) What is microdialysis? What does it study?
Q3) Describe the differences in patterns of EEG activity when a person is in an awake or excited state compared to a relaxed state with eyes closed.
Q4) What are spatial and temporal resolutions? Why are these concepts important for brain imaging?
Q5) What three tests make use of a hidden platform in a swimming pool to examine memory in rats?
Q6) What is optogenetics? How is it used to excite and inhibit neurons?
Q7) What is a PET scan? What are its advantages over other imaging methods?
Q8) Describe epigenetics.
Q9) How does cerebral voltammetry work?
Q10) What are event-related potentials?
Q11) What is a stereotaxic apparatus? What is it used for?
Q13) How does a CT scan work? Page 19
Q12) What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)? What is it used to study?
Q14) How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work? What does it study?
Q15) What is a magnetoencephalogram (MEG)? How is it similar to an electroencephalogram and event-related potentials?
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Chapter 7:How Do We Study the Brain's Structures and
Functions? Part B
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Q1) If one is interested in measuring changes in brain activity over the frontal lobes as infants and toddlers learn language,the best technique to use is:
A) ECG.
B) MRI.
C) CT.
D) fNIRS.
Q2) fMRI has high _____ but low _____.
A) temporal resolution;spatial resolution
B) spatial resolution;temporal resolution
C) radiation exposure;imaging clarity
D) None of the answers is correct.
Q3) Positron emission tomography (PET)uses:
A) magnets.
B) radioactive isotopes.
C) L-dopa.
D) hydrogen atoms.
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Chapter 8:How Does the Nervous System Develop and
Adapt? Part A
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Q1) Differentiate between a zygote,an embryo,and a fetus.
Q2) What is SIDS? What role does serotonin play in SIDS?
Q3) Differentiate between cell adhesion molecules and tropic molecules.
Q4) Compare and contrast the symptoms of autism spectrum disorder and Asperger syndrome.
Q5) List the seven stages of brain development.
Q6) What function do radial glial cells play in development?
Q7) What are neurotrophic factors (give examples)? What role do they play in the development of the nervous system?
Q8) What is imprinting? What brain structures are related to imprinting?
Q9) Define masculinization.What hormones are responsible for masculinization and on what brain areas do they have the greatest influence?
Q10) List the changes to the brain that occur as a result of complex environment exposure.
Q11) At what age do planning abilities become fully developed?
Q12) How are the brains of individuals who have schizophrenia different from the brains of individuals who do not have schizophrenia? Page 22
Q13) From what does the nervous system develop? What is the subventricular zone?
Q14) Define the term critical period and its relation to development.
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Chapter 8:How Does the Nervous System Develop and
Adapt? Part C
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Q1) Cerebral palsy can be caused by:
A) a genetic abnormality.
B) a neurological disease.
C) a hormone imbalance.
D) oxygen deprivation.
Q2) It is estimated that synaptic pruning eliminates approximately _____ percent of synapses in the human cortex.
A) 10
B) 40
C) 50
D) 65
Q3) In utero the fetus's gut:
A) has the same microbiome as the mother.
B) has a microbiome that is half from the mother and half from the father.
C) is sterile.
D) has a microbiome that is determined by what the mother eats.
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Part A
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Q1) What is optic ataxia?
Q2) To what stimulus does a complex cortical cell respond?
Q3) What are ocular dominance columns?
Q4) Why is there a blind spot in each eye?
Q5) What is a receptive field?
Q6) To what stimulus does a hypercomplex cell respond?
Q7) What parts of the eye make up the left and right visual fields?
Q8) What is the difference between magnocellular cells and parvocellular cells? Specifically,what types of visual signals do they carry,and where do their inputs come from?
Q9) What is the opponent theory of color vision? At what point in the visual system is opponent-process color coding initiated?
Q10) Describe how on-center and off-center cells enable us to see edges and shapes in our visual world.
Page 25
Q11) Differentiate between the functions of blob and interblob regions of visual cortex?
Q12) What is color constancy and why is it important? What brain region is responsible for coding color constancy?
Q13) To what types of visual features do neurons in the temporal cortex respond?
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Part C
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Q1) The six layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)receive which of the following inputs from the eyes?
A) layers 2,4,and 6 from the ipsilateral eye
B) layers 2,4,and 6 from the contralateral eye
C) layers 1,4,and 6 from the contralateral eye
D) layers 1,4,and 6 from the ipsilateral eye
Q2) A person with visual-form agnosia:
A) cannot see objects in the visual field.
B) can see the object and tell you what it does but cannot name it.
C) can see the object,but cannot tell you what it does and cannot name it.
D) None of the answers is correct.
Q3) The dorsal stream projects to the:
A) occipital lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) limbic lobe.
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Q1) Differentiate between the dorsal and ventral streams of auditory processing.
Q2) Differentiate between the roles of the outer and inner hair cells in the ear.
Q3) What is prosody and what brain regions control it?
Q4) How do bats use echolocation to navigate?
Q5) What is the difference between Heschl's gyrus and the planum temporale?
Q6) How do humans localize the source of high-frequency and low-frequency sounds in the environment? Which brain regions are involved?
Q7) How are blind humans able to use echolocation to identify objects? Which brain regions are involved?
Q8) What is the difference between the tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane?
Q9) Define perfect pitch.What is its probable origin?
Q10) What are the three main physical properties of sound waves and how do they influence auditory perception?
Q11) What decibel (dB)levels are safe for human hearing? What decibel levels can cause hearing damage?
Q12) Which brain regions are involved in music perception? Page 28
Q13) Differentiate between receptive aphasia and expressive aphasia.
Q14) Compare and contrast the deficits that arise in Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.Which brain regions are affected?
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Q1) Which of the following frequencies is likely to be coded closest to the apex of the cochlea?
A) 15,000 Hz
B) 18,000 Hz
C) 300 Hz
D) 1000 Hz
Q2) The thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system is the:
A) pulvinar nucleus.
B) lateral geniculate nucleus.
C) medial geniculate nucleus.
D) ventrolateral nucleus.
Q3) Susan is able to distinguish between a French horn and a trombone even when they are playing the same note at the same loudness.This is accomplished through using the differences in:
A) amplitude.
B) pitch.
C) frequency.
D) timbre.
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Chapter 11:How Does the Nervous System Respond to
Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part A
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Q1) Describe the gate theory of pain.What is a pain gate?
Q2) Compare and contrast the aspects of movement that are thought to be stored in the motor cortex from the perspectives of Penfield and Graziano.
Q3) How does the motor cortex change in response to damage?
Q4) What are the symptoms of Tourette syndrome?
Q5) Compare and contrast the roles of the anterior and lateral corticospinal tracts in motor control.
Q6) Describe the effects of caudate-putamen damage.
Q7) Compare and contrast the roles of the prefrontal cortex,the premotor cortex,and the primary motor cortex in the control of movement.
Q8) What are the effects of deafferentation?
Q9) What are the symptoms of apraxia? What brain regions are typically damaged in apraxia?
Q10) Compare and contrast the roles of the posterior and anterior spinothalamic tracts.
Page 31
Q11) Describe the role of the cerebellum in motor learning based on sensory feedback.
Q12) What are the three major classes of somatosensory receptors? What role does each of these classes of receptors play in somatosensation?
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Chapter 11:How Does the Nervous System Respond to
Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part C
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Q1) Research has demonstrated that tickle perception is primarily due to:
A) touch sensations.
B) the predictability of the touch sensations.
C) the unpredictability of the touch sensations.
D) the laughter associated with tickling.
Q2) Which of the following receptors is MOST responsive to pain and temperature?
A) Pacinian corpuscles
B) free nerve endings
C) Golgi tendon organs
D) dendrites of alpha motor neurons
Q3) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the indirect pathway in the basal ganglia?
A) the globus pallidus internal
B) the thalamus
C) the caudate nucleus
D) the subthalamic nucleus
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Chapter 12:What Causes Emotional and Motivated
Behavior? Part A
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Q1) Cholecystokinin plays an important role in:
A) initiating eating.
B) initiating food cravings.
C) ending a meal (that is,feeling full).
D) the breakdown of cholesterol.
Q2) Damage to the lateral hypothalamus causes:
A) obesity in animals.
B) animals to stop eating.
C) anorexia nervosa.
D) overeating in animals.
Q3) _____ are biochemicals that can act as chemosignals to affect the physiology or behavior of another animal.
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Pheromones
D) Synapses
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Chapter 12:What Causes Emotional and Motivated Behavior?
Part B
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Q1) Describe the gustatory pathway from the taste receptors to the primary gustatory cortex.
Q2) What is the somatic marker hypothesis? What evidence supports this hypothesis?
Q3) List the effects of sensory deprivation in Hebb's experiment with college students.
Q4) What brain circuit(s)is (are)involved in creating the reward system and our experience of pleasure?
Q5) Describe learned taste aversion.How is learned taste aversion related to preparedness?
Q6) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in initiating and stopping eating.
Q7) How does the hypothalamus influence sexual behavior?
Q8) What is a homeostatic mechanism?
Q9) What are the effects of dorsolateral frontal-cortex lesions on motivated behavior in humans?
Q10) What is the function of the medial forebrain bundle in motivated behaviors?
Q12) What are the effects of amygdala lesions? Page 35
Q11) Differentiate between osmotic and hypovolemic thirst.
Q13) Differentiate between generalized anxiety disorder,panic disorder,and phobias.
Q14) List the hormones (and their functions)that are produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
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Chapter 13:Why Do We Sleep and Dream? Part A
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Q1) Jet lag would be the worst if you were flying:
A) from Boston to London.
B) from Paris to Rome.
C) from London to New York.
D) from Paris to London.
Q2) Sleep is commonly measured using an:
A) electroencephalograph.
B) electromyograph.
C) electrooculograph.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) When all external cues are removed,animals develop a free-running rhythm.The free-running rhythm of a human is:
A) 24 hours.
B) more than 24 hours.
C) less than 24 hours.
D) inconsistent and vastly different for all people.
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Chapter 13:Why Do We Sleep and Dream? Part B
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Q1) What are the symptoms of cataplexy?
Q2) What is a circadian rhythm? Give an example.
Q3) What evidence supports the notion that memories are consolidated during sleep?
Q4) Differentiate between circannual,circadian,ultradian,and infradian rhythms.Give an example of each.
Q5) What is a free-running rhythm? Give an example.
Q6) What evidence do scientists have that the suprachiasmatic nucleus plays an essential role in biological rhythms?
Q7) What are the main causes of insomnia?
Q8) What are the symptoms of seasonal affective disorder? What is the main treatment?
Q9) What is metabolic syndrome,and what are its causes?
Q10) What is restless legs syndrome?
Q11) What role does melatonin play in circadian rhythms?
Q12) What is the reticular activating system,and what are its functions in relation to sleep and wakefulness?
Q14) Describe the coping hypothesis of dreams. Page 38
Q13) What is the genetic contribution to rhythmicity?
Q15) What are the effects of sleep deprivation?
Q16) What health risks are associated with shift work?
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Chapter 14:How Do We Learn and Remember? Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nucleus of the amygdala is critical for forming emotional memories?
A) the central nucleus
B) the lateral nucleus
C) the basolateral nucleus
D) the dorsal nucleus
Q2) Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the hippocampus or entorhinal cortex?
A) grid cells
B) place cells
C) head direction cells
D) orientation cells
Q3) If a monkey has to remember the position of a light for a delay period after the light goes out,neurons in the _____ fire to help the monkey retain a memory trace.
A) hippocampus
B) prefrontal cortex
C) inferior temporal cortex
D) occipital cortex
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Chapter 14:How Do We Learn and Remember? Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define drug-induced behavioral sensitization.Give an example.
Q2) How do fluctuating estrogen levels affect cognition?
Q3) How do the brains of people and other animals with superior spatial memory abilities differ from those with normal spatial memory abilities? Give examples.
Q4) Differentiate between Pavlovian and instrumental conditioning.
Q5) Richard's left arm was amputated 3 years ago after a workplace injury.Even though the limb is gone,Richard sometimes feels like he still has a left arm.In addition,when Richard shaves the left side of his face,it feels as though someone is touching his missing left arm.What mechanisms explain this strange phenomenon?
Q6) What are autobiographical memories? What brain regions are thought to underlie autobiographical memories?
Q7) Outline a purported neural circuit for explicit memory.
Q8) Differentiate between top-down and bottom-up processing.How are these two types of processing related to explicit and implicit memory?
Q9) What brain circuits participate in generating implicit memories?
Q10) Why are fear and eyeblink conditioning paradigms used for studying the brain?
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Q11) List the three primary methods to enhance recovery of function after brain damage.
Chapter 15:How Does the Brain Think? Part A
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Q1) DTI studies have revealed that the male brain _____,whereas the female brain
A) has more intrahemispheric connections;has more interhemispheric connections
B) has more interhemispheric connections;has more intrahemispheric connections
C) has more connections within the right hemisphere;has more connections within the left hemisphere
D) has more connections within the left hemisphere;has more connections within the right hemisphere
Q2) A patient with poor visual memory might have damage to:
A) the left frontal lobe.
B) the left temporal lobe.
C) the right temporal lobe.
D) Broca's area.
Q3) The human cerebellum is thought to be important for:
A) motor learning.
B) language.
C) working memory.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 15:How Does the Brain Think? Part B
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Q1) What is functional connectivity MRI (fcMRI)? What does it allow researchers to study?
Q2) Describe the tasks that the left side of the brain does better than the right.
Q3) Describe the symptoms that follow left and right parietal injury.
Q4) What is the neural basis of consciousness? Why is consciousness so hard to study?
Q5) What is contralateral neglect? What are its primary symptoms?
Q6) Describe the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.What does it measure? What types of brain lesions impair performance on this test?
Q7) Why is language presumed to give humans a cognitive advantage over other species?
Q8) What is extinction? How is it related to contralateral neglect?
Q9) Describe the symptoms you would observe in a patient with a lesion to the parietal association cortex in the left and right hemispheres.
Q10) What have studies in split-brain patients taught us about language?
Q11) What brain regions contribute to the control of attention?
Q12) What is synesthesia? Give examples of some documented types of synesthesia.
Page 43
Q13) What is dichotic listening? What discoveries regarding cerebral asymmetry were made using this technique?
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Chapter 16:What Happens When the Brain Misbehaves?
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Q1) Give examples of positive and negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.
Q2) Explain the Freudian terms id,ego,and superego.What brain structures might these concepts be related to?
Q3) What neural changes do Parkinson and Alzheimer disease have in common?
Q4) What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?
Q5) What neurotransmitters appear to be involved in depression?
Q6) What treatments are available to reduce epileptic seizures?
Q7) How is the brain of a person with schizophrenia different from the brain of a person without it?
Q8) What effects do antidepressant drugs like SSRIs have on the brain?
Q9) What are the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? What brain regions does it affect?
Q10) Describe and explain at least four of the major challenges faced by researchers who want to study the disordered brain.
Q11) What is magnetic resonance spectroscopy? How is it used to diagnose traumatic brain injury?
Page 45
Q12) List and describe four major types of behavioral therapies for behavioral disorders outlined in your text.
Q13) What processes following an ischemic stroke result in further brain damage?
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