Introduction to Networking Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Networking provides students with a foundational understanding of computer networks, focusing on how data is transmitted and received across connected devices. The course covers essential concepts such as network models (including the OSI and TCP/IP models), hardware components, protocols, IP addressing, and network topologies. Students will explore the basics of wired and wireless networking, network security fundamentals, and troubleshooting techniques. Through theoretical lessons and practical activities, learners gain the skills necessary to understand and support networking environments in both personal and professional settings.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a remote application, and how can remote applications be implemented on Windows Server?
Answer: A remote application is an application that is installed and executed on a server and is presented to a user working at a client computer. Windows Server 2008 and later versions include Remote Desktop Services to manage remote applications, and versions of Windows Server prior to 2008 provided Terminal Services. Both use RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) to present the remote application and its data to the client.
Q2) What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network?
A) The message is discarded and must be sent again.
B) The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data.
C) The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).
D) An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What standard describes uniform, enterprise-wide cabling systems, regardless of who manufactures or sells the various parts used in the system?
A) IEEE 802.3
B) TIA/EIA-568
C) ITU 922
D) ISO 9001
Answer: B
Q2) What statement accurately describes what a cable bend radius determines?
A) A cable bend radius is the radius of the maximum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.
B) A cable bend radius is the radius of the minimum arc into which you can loop the cable without impairing data.
C) A cable bend radius determines the total number of bends that can exist in an overall cable before data is impaired.
D) A cable bend radius defines the twist rate of the cable inside of the insulation.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What command can be used to check a domain computer's time source from a Command Prompt window?
A) date /source
B) w32tm /query /source
C) ntpd show source
D) time --source
Answer: B
Q2) What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network?
A) traceroute
B) ifconfig
C) ping
D) route
Answer: C
Q3) ICANN is responsible for restrictions on use of the .com, .org, and .net TLDs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when a collision happens on a network?
A) The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues.
B) The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result.
C) Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit.
D) Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.
Q2) How are routing paths determined?
Q3) Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?
A) traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com
B) traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com
C) traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com
D) traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com
Q4) In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the fastest Ethernet standard that can possibly be used on twisted-pair cabling?
A) 100Base-T
B) 1000Base-T
C) 10GBase-T
D) 10TBase-T
Q2) What statement describes a transmission flaw that is occurring due to attenuation?
A) A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the transmitting device.
B) A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the adjacent room.
C) A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and video that comes and goes.
D) Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the cables having adjacent runs.
Q3) A continuity tester should not be used on a live network segment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented?
A) It uses the preamble header to estimate the ideal packet size.
B) The frame check sequence dictates the calculated packet size.
C) The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided.
D) The duration field determines how long the station can transmit a packet, which then determines how it is divided.
Q2) Z-Wave transmissions have a range of up to 50m per hop, and can tolerate up to 8 hops through repeaters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does configuration of wireless clients for wireless access in an enterprise environment differ from normal setup?
Q4) Most wireless devices use one of two technologies to avoid interference. What are these technologies?
Q5) Why should an access point not always utilize all the power it has for broadcasting wireless signals?
Q6) The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common?
Q2) A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 7
Q3) When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?
A) VPN proxy
B) VPN server
C) VPN transport
D) VPN gateway
Q4) What two different types of encryption can be utilized with IPsec?
Q5) VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor?
A) Type 1 hypervisor
B) Type 2 hypervisor
C) barebones hypervisor
D) bare-metal hypervisor
Q6) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does the logical process of combining bits known as ANDing work?
Q4) How many subnets can a /48 site prefix support?
A) 256 subnets
B) 16384 subnets
C) 65,536 subnets
D) 131,072 subnets
Q5) By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs?
A) VLAN 1
B) VLAN 1001
C) VLAN 1003
D) VLAN 1005
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this?
A) phishing
B) baiting
C) quid pro quo
D) tailgating
Q2) In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?
A) The blue team is tasked with attacking the network.
B) The blue team must observe the actions of the red team.
C) The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.
D) The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken.
Q3) Different types of organizations have similar levels of network security risks. A)True
B)False
Q4) How does a zero-day exploit differ from a typical exploit?
Q5) A drop ceiling could be used by an intruder to gain access to a secured room. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been tasked with the configuration of a Juniper switch, and have been told to restrict the number of MAC addresses allowed in the MAC address table. What command should you use?
A) set max-mac
B) set total-macs
C) mac-address limit
D) mac-limit
Q2) The PEAP standard creates an encrypted TLS tunnel between the supplicant and the server before proceeding with the usual EAP process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall?
A) ipf
B) modfire
C) iptables
D) netwall
Q4) What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
Q5) How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing and planning for disaster recovery, what is the difference between an incident and a disaster?
Q2) When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream?
A) assured forwarding
B) prioritized forwarding
C) scaled forwarding
D) expedited forwarding
Q3) Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard?
A) IEEE 802.3af
B) IEEE 802.1cd
C) IEEE 802.3ad
D) IEEE 802.3bd
Q5) What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete?
A) permanent virtual circuit (PVC)
B) switched virtual circuit (SVC)
C) dynamic virtual circuit (DVC)
D) looping virtual circuit (LVC)
Q2) How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
Q3) In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel?
A) Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
B) Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
C) Bearer Rate Interface (BRI)
D) Dedicated Rate Interface (DRI)
Q4) The word "synchronous" as used in the name of Synchronous Optical Network means that data being transmitted and received by nodes must conform to a timing scheme.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the Synchronous Optical Network standard.
Q6) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Page 14
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