Introduction to Networking Question Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Networking provides students with a foundational understanding of how computer networks operate, including the essential concepts, protocols, and devices that enable communication between computers and other devices. The course covers topics such as network topologies, the OSI and TCP/IP models, IP addressing, subnetting, routing, switching, wireless networking, and network security fundamentals. Students will gain hands-on experience with network configuration, troubleshooting, and the use of common networking tools, preparing them for further study or entry-level roles in IT networking.
Recommended Textbook
Network Guide to Networks 6th Edition by Tamara
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15 Chapters
627 Verified Questions
627 Flashcards
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Page 2
Dean
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Networking
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ are the distinct units of data that are exchanged between nodes on a network.
A) Segments
B) Packets
C) Topologies
D) Protocols
Answer: B
Q2) A ____ network is confined to a relatively small space.
A) NAN
B) MAN
C) WAN
D) LAN
Answer: D
Q3) Which network topology is the most common?
A) ring
B) star
C) hybrid
D) Ethernet
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Network Standards and the OSI Model
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standards define the ____ performance of a product or service.
A) ideal
B) most acceptable
C) minimum acceptable
D) maximum acceptable
Answer: C
Q2) The ____ is a fixed number associated with a device's NIC.
A) LLC address
B) frame address
C) logical address
D) physical address
Answer: D
Q3) The Application layer separates data into ____________________, or discrete amounts of data.
Answer: PDUs (protocol data units)
protocol data units
PDUs
Q4) ____________________ protocols establish a connection with another node before they begin transmitting data.
Answer: Connection oriented
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Chapter 3: Transmission Basics and Networking Media
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modulation can be used to make a signal conform to a specific pathway.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The byte 00001110 means ____ on a digital network.
A) 3
B) 6 C) 14
D) 30
Answer: C
Q3) Describe what FDM (frequency division multiplexing) is and how it works.
Answer: FDM (frequency division multiplexing) is a type of multiplexing that assigns a unique frequency band to each communications subchannel. Signals are modulated with different carrier frequencies, then multiplexed to simultaneously travel over a single channel. The first use of FDM was in the early 20th century when telephone companies discovered they could send multiple voice signals over a single cable. That meant that rather than stringing separate lines for each residence (and adding to the urban tangle of wires), they could send as many as 24 multiplexed signals over a single neighborhood line. Each signal was then demultiplexed before being brought into the home.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Introduction to TCP/IP Protocols
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.
A) 255.0.0.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.255.255.0
D) 255.255.255.255
Q2) Define and describe DDNS (Dynamic DNS).
Q3) ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) reports on the success or failure of data delivery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A UDP header contains ____fields.
A) four
B) six
C) eight
D) ten
Q5) If your network does not need or use APIPA, it must be uninstalled to avoid conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe how ARP improves efficiency of MAC-to-IP address mappings.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Topologies and Ethernet Standards
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A network ____________________ is the part of a network to which segments and significant shared devices connect.
Q2) ____________________ is a component of a network's logical topology that determines how connections are created between nodes.
Q3) Given their long-distance capabilities, 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW are best suited for use on ____.
A) VANs
B) MANs
C) LANs
D) WANs
Q4) A physical topology ____.
A) specifies device types
B) depicts a network in broad scope
C) specifies connectivity methods
D) specifies addressing schemes
Q5) In a(n) ____________________ topology, every node on the network is connected through a central device, such as a hub, router, or switch.
Q6) What does the SFD identify?
Q7) Describe the advantage of the star topology.
7
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Chapter 6: Network Hardware, Switching, and Routing
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To install a NIC, you must first install the ____.
A) software
B) hardware
C) drivers
D) bus
Q2) On a Linux workstation, a popular utility called ____________________ allows you to view and change NIC settings.
Q3) Describe how a computer's bus can be expanded to include devices other than those found on the motherboard.
Q4) At its most primitive, a ____ is a repeater with more than one output port.
A) base
B) hub
C) switch
D) bridge
Q5) A ____ can interpret physical addressing information.
A) repeater
B) switch
C) hub
D) bridge
Q6) Describe two popular types of gateways.
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Chapter 7: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ are connections between network nodes that, although based on potentially disparate physical links, logically appear to be direct, dedicated links between those nodes.
Q2) Because WAN connections require routers or other Layer 3 devices to connect locations, their links are not capable of carrying ____ protocols.
A) open
B) standard
C) routable
D) nonroutable
Q3) Broadband cable requires many subscribers to share the same local line, thus raising concerns about ____ and actual (versus theoretical) throughput.
A) access
B) costs
C) noise
D) security
Q4) After SONET, BPL has the best maximum throughput available.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the most important advantage of SONET.
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Chapter 8: Wireless Networking
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the FHSS and DSSS spread spectrum technologies.
Q2) What is the purpose of the Frame Control field in an 802.11 frame?
Q3) In wireless communication, to exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the same ____.
A) frequency
B) variance
C) attenuation speed
D) port
Q4) The use of multiple frequencies to transmit a signal is known as ____________________ technology.
Q5) A(n) ____________________ assesses client requirements, facility characteristics, and coverage areas to determine an access point arrangement that will ensure reliable wireless connectivity within a given area.
Q6) Most satellites circle the Earth ____ miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit.
A) 100
B) 1240
C) 6,000
D) 22,300
Page 10
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Chapter 9: In-Depth TCP/IP Networking
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a network using TCP/IP, some nodes may use multiple IP addresses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe four features of IMAP4.
Q3) The result from ANDing 11001111 with 10010001 is ____.
A) 11001111
B) 10010001
C) 10000001
D) 00000001
Q4) The combination of additional bits used for subnet information plus the existing network ID is known as the ____________________.
Q5) The ____ gateway is the gateway that first interprets its outbound requests to other subnets, and then interprets its inbound requests from other subnets.
A) proxy
B) core
C) Internet
D) default
Q6) ____________________ separates a network into multiple logically defined segments, or subnets.
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Chapter 10: Virtual Networks and Remote Access
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physical computer on a virtual machine is known as a ____.
A) guest
B) client
C) host
D) server
Q2) Most cloud service providers use virtualization software to supply multiple platforms to multiple users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ connect vNICs with a network, whether virtual or physical.
A) Virtual routers
B) Virtual crossovers
C) Virtual duplexers
D) Virtual bridges
Q4) To connect to a network, a virtual machine requires a ____.
A) virtual switch
B) virtual adapter
C) physical switch
D) virtual MAC address
Q5) List two things that distinguish cloud computing.
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Chapter 11: Network Security
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____ attack occurs when a system becomes unable to function because it has inundated with requests for services and can't respond to any of them.
A) flashing
B) denial-of-service
C) war driving
D) phishing
Q2) In general, information is ____________________ if it could be used by other parties to impair an organization's functioning, decrease customers' confidence, cause a financial loss, damage an organization's status, or give a significant advantage to a competitor.
Q3) Define and describe PAP.
Q4) Describe an advantage of using EAP.
Q5) A VPN ____ authenticates VPN clients and establishes tunnels for VPN connections.
A) router
B) service
C) concentrator
D) certificate authority
Q6) Describe the SCP (Secure CoPy) utility.
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Chapter 12: Voice and Video Over IP
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, a(n) ____ is a private switch that accepts and interprets both analog and digital voice signals.
A) IP-PBX
B) analog PBX
C) Data PBX
D) IT-PBX
Q2) Among all video-over-IP applications, ____is perhaps the simplest.
A) VoIP
B) videoconferencing
C) IPTV
D) streaming video
Q3) When a caller uses an IP telephone, his or her voice is immediately digitized and issued from the telephone to the network in ____ form.
A) segment
B) frame
C) circuit
D) packet
Q4) Describe six functions performed by signaling protocols.
Q5) Describe five capabilities to which SIP is limited.
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Chapter 13: Troubleshooting Network Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is a fundamental property of wire that depends on a wire's molecular structure and size.
A) Voltage
B) Current
C) Resistance
D) Impedance
Q2) Describe how a performance tester compares to a continuity tester.
Q3) Describe four ways a network professional might use a multimeter.
Q4) An administrator should take the time to troubleshoot all network problems correctly by asking specific questions designed to identify the problem ____.
A) intensity
B) background
C) scope
D) focus
Q5) Describe how a problem's solution might affect users and network functionality in terms of security.
Q6) Describe five causes of unreliable network connectivity.
Q7) Describe how a network administrator should react upon discovering that a network change has generated a problem.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Ensuring Integrity and Availability
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of hard disks is called a ____.
A) RAID group
B) disk volume
C) disk array
D) disk partition
Q2) ____ is an automatic distribution of traffic over multiple links or processors is used to optimize response.
A) Redundancy
B) Failover
C) RAID
D) Load balancing
Q3) ____ is a specialized storage device or group of storage devices that provides centralized fault-tolerant data storage for a network.
A) NAS
B) RAID
C) SANs
D) Optical media
Q4) Describe a backup rotation scheme and explain the goal of a good scheme.
Q5) Describe how an organization implements anti-malware software.
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Chapter 15: Network Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the preparation and implementation requirements when upgrading a network printer.
Q2) Describe the preparation and implementation requirements when upgrading a hub or access point.
Q3) The process where one network management console collects data from multiple networked devices at regular intervals is known as ____.
A) base lining
B) interrogating
C) polling
D) pushing
Q4) The most common type of caching is ____ caching.
A) online
B) Web
C) Internet
D) device
Q5) Explain how asset management simplifies maintaining and upgrading the network.
Q6) Describe how to select an asset management tool.
Q7) The definition of managed devices and their data are collected in a(n)
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