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Introduction to Networking provides students with a foundational understanding of how computer networks operate, exploring the core concepts, protocols, and architectures that enable devices to communicate and share resources. Through the study of topics such as the OSI and TCP/IP models, network devices, addressing and routing, and common networking services, students will develop the skills necessary to analyze network structures, identify key components, and understand data transmission processes. Practical exercises and real-world scenarios will enhance their ability to troubleshoot basic networking issues and prepare them for further study or entry-level roles in IT networking environments.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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Q1) In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level?
A) Any U.S. state or territory
B) The Federal Bureau of Investigation
C) The President
D) Local law enforcement
Answer: C
Q2) At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?
A) Layer 2
B) Layer 3
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 5
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
A) They lack scalability.
B) They are not necessarily secure.
C) They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers.
D) They centralize user account logins.
Answer: D
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Q1) In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting?
A) at least 3 inches
B) at least 3 feet
C) at least 6 feet
D) at least 12 feet
Answer: B
Q2) When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router?
A) An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.
B) An icon that resembles a brick wall.
C) An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front.
D) An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.
Answer: A
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Q1) What statement regarding the Server Message Block protocol is accurate?
A) It is a simple protocol used to synchronize block messages written to iSCSI drives on a network.
B) It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files.
C) It is a signaling protocol used to make a connection between hosts prior to data transfer.
D) It is a protocol used for accessing network-based LDAP directories.
Answer: B
Q2) If a host's IPv6 address contains the network adapter's MAC address within the last 64 bits of the IPv6 address, what standard is being used?
A) EUI-64
B) IEEE 802.36
C) UUID-128
D) MACin6
Answer: A
Q3) The 1024 - 65535 range of ports is also known as the "well-known" range.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) What is MAC address spoofing?
Q2) How does IPv6 utilize Neighbor Discovery Protocol to detect neighboring devices?
Q3) What are some of the basic functions of a network router?
Q4) What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay?
A) theoretical bandwidth
B) MTU
C) latency
D) load
Q5) Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols?
A) interior gateway protocols
B) border gateway protocols
C) distance vector protocols
D) link-state protocols
Q6) What tcpdump command can be used to filter out all traffic except SSH traffic?
A) tcpdump port 22
B) tcpdump -p 22
C) tcpdump only ssh
D) tcpdump -f +ssh

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Q1) RG-59 is more expensive than RG-6, but has better resistance to attenuation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT).
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the industry standard angle for an Angle Polished Connector (APC)?
A) 8 degrees
B) 12 degrees
C) 14 degrees
D) 16 degrees
Q5) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Q6) When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit?
Q7) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
Q8) How does a time domain reflectometer (TDR) work?
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Q1) At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary?
A) Physical layer
B) Network layer
C) Data link layer
D) Transport layer
Q2) Radiation patterns can be used to classify antennas into what two basic categories?
Q3) The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a RADIUS server with WPA or WPA2, known as WPA-Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Due to many vulnerabilities and a short key length, the WPA security standard was replaced with WEP.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the 802.11a standard, and detail some of its history and advantages / disadvantages versus other 802.11 standards.
Q6) What is the difference between war driving and war chalking?
Q7) What is the hidden node problem, and how can it be mitigated?
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Q1) Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor?
A) Citrix XenServer
B) VirtualBox
C) VMware Player
D) Linux KVM
Q2) All types of remote access techniques connecting to a network require at least one of what two different types of remote access server?
Q3) The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?
A) key set
B) key team
C) key pair
D) key tie
Q4) When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?
A) Only when the VM requires an IP address on the physical LAN.
B) Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.
C) Only if the VM does not need to communicate with the host PC.
D) Only if the VM is intended for VM-to-host communications.
Q5) What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common?
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Q1) An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term?
A) access port
B) aggregation port
C) trunk port
D) egress port
Q2) Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network?
A) Install an additional switch to isolate traffic.
B) Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs.
C) Install a router to process the untagged traffic on the VLAN.
D) Use MAC address filtering.
Q3) In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?
A) The usable host portion of the network.
B) The site prefix or global routing prefix.
C) The broadcast domain for the configured host ID.
D) The MAC address of the router assigning the host ID.
Q4) A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A drop ceiling could be used by an intruder to gain access to a secured room.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List and describe the four different locations in which anti-malware can be installed.
Q3) What statement regarding denial-of-service (DoS) attacks is accurate?
A) A denial-of-service attack occurs when a MAC address is impersonated on the network.
B) A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources.
C) A denial-of-service attack is generally a result of a disgruntled employee.
D) A denial-of-service attack is no longer a major concern due to the increased throughput available on most networks.
Q4) In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?
A) The blue team is tasked with attacking the network.
B) The blue team must observe the actions of the red team.
C) The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.
D) The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken.
Q5) What is hashing, and how does it differ from encryption?
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Q1) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
Q2) You have been asked by your superior to configure all Cisco network switches to allow only acceptable MAC addresses through switch access ports. How is this accomplished?
A) Use the switchport port-security command to enable MAC filtering.
B) Use the mac-limit command to prevent more than one MAC from being accepted.
C) Use the allowed-mac command to filter by MAC address.
D) Use the secure port mac-address command to limit the port to learned addresses only.
Q3) When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change?
A) file integrity monitoring (FIM)
B) file change management (FCM)
C) file access auditing (FAA)
D) file checksum watching (FCW)
Q4) What are the three components required to manage access control to a network and its resources?
Q5) What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
Q6) How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality?
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Q1) Setting a NIC to run in promiscuous mode will allow it to see all network traffic passing through a network switch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following?
A) object identifier (OID)
B) TCP/UDP port
C) process ID
D) inode number
Q3) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard?
A) IEEE 802.3af
B) IEEE 802.1cd
C) IEEE 802.3ad
D) IEEE 802.3bd
Q4) The DiffServ technique for addressing QoS issues defines what two different types of data stream forwarding?
Q5) How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?
Q6) What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?
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Q1) A fractional T1's bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate?
A) 28 Kbps
B) 32 Kbps
C) 48 Kbps
D) 64 Kbps
Q2) Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?
A) ADSL
B) VDSL
C) SDSL
D) G.Lite
Q3) When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate?
A) Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps.
B) Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.
C) Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients.
D) Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps.
Q4) Describe the Synchronous Optical Network standard.
Q5) Describe the HSPA+ (High Speed Packet Access Plus) and LTE (Long Term Evolution) cellular networking technologies.
Q6) What is the role of a multiplexer when working with T-carrier lines?
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