Introduction to Networking Exam Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Networking provides students with a foundational understanding of computer networks, covering essential concepts such as network protocols, topologies, devices, and architectures. The course explores how data is transmitted across local area networks (LANs) and wide area networks (WANs), introduces the OSI and TCP/IP models, and examines common networking hardware like routers, switches, and hubs. Students will develop practical skills in configuring basic network setups and troubleshooting connectivity issues, preparing them for more advanced studies in network administration and security.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
A) They lack scalability.
B) They are not necessarily secure.
C) They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers.
D) They centralize user account logins.
Answer: D
Q2) HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 4
B) Layer 5
C) Layer 6
D) Layer 7
Answer: D
Q3) After a problem and its symptoms have been identified, a theory regarding a probable cause should be established.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should a company deal with the documentation of passwords?
Answer: Password documentation must be kept secure, but also must be available for access by multiple people. Otherwise, if the network admin is suddenly incapacitated, you might be unable to retrieve high-security passwords. A password manager, such as KeePass or LastPass, should be utilized to secure passwords.
Q2) What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?
A) horizontal cross connect
B) patch cable
C) vertical cross connect
D) diagonal cabling
Answer: C
Q3) Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using IPv6, two or more nodes on the same link are said to be neighbors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Why are the Class D and Class E IPv4 address ranges not available for general use?
Answer: Class D addresses begin with octets 224 through 239 and are used for multicast transmissions, in which one host sends messages to multiple hosts. An example of this is when a host transmits a videoconference over the Internet to multiple participants. Class E addresses, which begin with 240 through 254, are reserved for research.
Q3) You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean?
A) The computer has been assigned a routed public IP address.
B) The network card has been erroneously assigned a loopback address.
C) The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.
D) The network card is set up for multicast communication.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols?
A) interior gateway protocols
B) border gateway protocols
C) distance vector protocols
D) link-state protocols
Q2) How can a network switch be said to operate at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
Q3) What occurs when a collision happens on a network?
A) The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues.
B) The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result.
C) Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit.
D) Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.
Q4) IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the different categories of routers, and how do they compare?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is?
A) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.
B) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source.
C) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source.
D) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius.
Q2) Describe the two different shapes and polishes currently used on SMF ferrules to reduce back reflection.
Q3) Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?
A) A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.
B) A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination.
C) A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards.
D) A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to.
Q4) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
Q5) What is the difference between single mode fiber and multimode fiber, and how do they compare?
Q6) What are the different transceiver types that have made the GBIC obsolete?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Wi-Fi Protected Setup PIN can be easily cracked through a brute force attack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency?
A) 8.65 MHz
B) 13.56 MHz
C) 21.39 MHz
D) 47.1 MHz
Q4) In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters?
A) ifconfig
B) iwconfig
C) wlanconf
D) wifid
Q5) Most wireless devices use one of two technologies to avoid interference. What are these technologies?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor?
A) Type 1 hypervisor
B) Type 2 hypervisor
C) barebones hypervisor
D) bare-metal hypervisor
Q2) When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?
A) Only when the VM requires an IP address on the physical LAN.
B) Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.
C) Only if the VM does not need to communicate with the host PC.
D) Only if the VM is intended for VM-to-host communications.
Q3) A Type 2 hypervisor installs on a computer before any OS, and is therefore called a bare-metal hypervisor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?
A) key set
B) key team
C) key pair
D) key tie
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do?
A) It shares trunking information amongst switches that participate.
B) It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.
C) It is the protocol used by a trunk port for establishing a trunk with another switch. D) It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network.
Q4) What are some of the different reasons to use VLANs?
Q5) What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs?
Q6) How does the logical process of combining bits known as ANDing work?
Q7) How do unmanaged switches and managed switches differ from each other?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the Nmap utility used for?
A) It is used to identify unsecured sensitive data on the network, such as credit cards.
B) It is an automated vulnerability and penetration testing framework.
C) It is a software firewall that can be used to secure a vulnerable host.
D) It is a port scanning utility that can identify open ports on a host.
Q2) A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this?
A) phishing
B) baiting
C) quid pro quo
D) tailgating
Q3) The day after Patch Tuesday is informally dubbed Exploit Wednesday.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Over a long-distance connection, using SSH keys is more secure than using passwords.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall?
A) ipf
B) modfire
C) iptables
D) netwall
Q2) The Group Policy utility can be opened by typing what name into a Run box?
A) secpol.msc
B) gpedit.msc
C) grouppol.msc
D) grppol.msc
Q3) Which encryption standard was originally utilized with WPA's TKIP?
A) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
B) Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
C) Blowfish
D) Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Q4) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
Q5) The Spanning Tree Protocol operates at the Network layer of the OSI model.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?
Q2) A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are some of the more common network performance metrics that are utilized?
Q4) What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking?
Q5) At what point is a packet considered to be a giant?
A) It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.
B) It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes.
C) It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large.
D) It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added.
Q6) How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?
A) It protects against electrical surges.
B) It shields equipment from lightning damage.
C) It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage.
D) It filters line noise from incoming power.
Q7) The creation of a response team should include what team roles?
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Q8) In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled?
Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below?
A) CSU/DSU
B) cable modem
C) DSL modem
D) ISDN modem
Q2) Most satellites circle the Earth 22,300 miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate?
A) In ATM, a message is called a frame and always consists of 1500 bytes of data.
B) ATM can provide 4 levels of QoS, from best effort delivery to guaranteed, real-time transmission.
C) ATM is highly dependent on predetermined schemes that specify the timing of data transmissions.
D) ATM is a point-to-multipoint WAN access technology that uses packet switching.
Q4) What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE?
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