

Introduction to Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores microbial physiology, genetics, and metabolism, as well as the vital roles that microorganisms play in ecosystems, human health, and disease. Students will learn about methods for culturing, identifying, and controlling microbial growth, with an emphasis on both theoretical foundations and practical laboratory skills. This course lays the groundwork for further studies in biology, medicine, and environmental science by highlighting the profound impact of microbes on our world.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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25 Chapters
818 Verified Questions
818 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by A)Pasteur.
B)Linnaeus.
C)Martini.
D)Jenner.
Answer: B
Q2) Phase-contrast microscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: C
Q3) Scanning electron microscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Particle with no charge
A)Redox
B)Electron
C)Neutron
D)Acid
E)Base
F)Salt
G)Glucose
H)Protein
I)Polysaccharide
J)Nucleic acid
K)Lipid
L)Tritium
Answer: C
Q2) Neutrons are __________ charged particles.
Answer: not
Q3) The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones in the presence of water is called __________.
Answer: hydrolysis
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis
A)Cytoskeleton
B)Cytosol
C)Mitochondria
D)Golgi apparatus
E)rER
F)Bacterial ribosome subunit
G)Enzyme
H)Dental plaque
I)Phospholipids
J)Endocytosis
K)Cell wall
L)Passive transport
Answer: J
Q2) Matrix formed outside the plasma membrane is referred to as A)cytoplasm.
B)glycocalyx.
C)exoplasm.
D)cell wall.
Answer: B
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
Q2) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
Q3) Gas gangrene
A)Rickettsia rickettsii
B)Chlamydia psittaci
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Helicobacter pylori
E)Salmonella
F)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
G)Clostridium perfringens
Q4) The time bacteria need to adapt to a medium before cell division starts is called the __________ phase of a bacterial growth curve.
Q5) Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of
A)gram-positive cocci.
B)gram-negative cocci.
C)gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci.
D)anaerobic gram-negative cocci.
Q6) Bacteria whose overall shape is spherical or nearly spherical are referred to as
Q7) A "bull's-eye" rash is typical of __________ disease.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common viruses causing respiratory illness belong to A)Herpesviridae.
B)Papovaviridae.
C)Adenoviridae.
D)Poxviridae.
Q2) Human papillomavirus
A)Polyarthritis
B)Plantar warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Common cold
E)Infectious mononucleosis
F)Gastroenteritis
G)Hemorrhagic fever
Q3) The stage of viral multiplication during which the virus attaches to the host cell is called __________.
Q4) Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are caused by A)flavoviruses.
B)virusoids.
C)prions.
D)orthomyxoviruses.

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi are free-living _________ organisms.
A)autotrophic
B)chemotrophic
C)heterotrophic
D)phototrophic
Q2) Algae that contain agar in their cell walls belong to
A)Chrysophyta.
B)Rhodophyta.
C)Chlorophyta.
D)Phaeophyta.
Q3) The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is
A)Giardia lamblia.
B)Trichomonas vaginalis.
C)Balantidium coli.
D)Entamoeba histolytica.
Q4) Masses of protoplasm containing thousands of nuclei are characteristic of a(n)__________.
Q5) The common name for nematodes is __________.
Q6) The study of fungi is called __________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoclaving will usually destroy/inactivate all fungi,bacteria,viruses,and most bacterial spores but will not necessarily eliminate A)neurotoxins. B)prions.
C)protozoan cysts.
D)mycoplasmas.
Q2) The destruction of vegetative organisms by chemical or physical methods is called __________.
Q3) Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others?
A)Bacterial endospores
B)Fungal spores
C)Enveloped viruses
D)Vegetative bacterial cells
Q4) The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors:
A)Time of exposure, wavelength
B)Intensity, frequency, thickness of sample
C)Distance, frequency, nature of sample
D)Chemical composition, intensity, shielding
Q5) Agents that kill microbes are classified as __________.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an agar slant,bacterial colonies that appear separate or semiconfluent are referred to as A)filiform.
B)echinulate.
C)beaded.
D)effuse.
Q2) Most commonly used general medium in the laboratory
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q3) Chemically,agar is a A)protein.
B)lipid.
C)carbohydrate.
D)nucleic acid.
Q4) Bacteria that appear red after gram staining are said to be gram-__________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultralow freezers can freeze down to __________° C.
A)-35
B)-65
C)-85
D)-110
Q2) A bloodborne training program for certain professions was established by and is required by
A)OSHA.
B)CDC.
C)NIA.
D)WHO.
Q3) A unique number assigned to each chemical to aid in searching computerized databases
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Q1) Prodrug
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q2) The federal agency that approves the use of a specific drug is the __________.
Q3) The three general sites of drug action are __________,__________,and
Q4) The __________ effect is the combined action of intestinal and hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes that affects a drug's bioavailability.
Q5) The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention,treatment,and/or diagnosis is
A)pharmacotherapeutics.
B)toxicology.
C)pharmacokinetics.
D)pharmacy.

12
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) The assessment of a drug to determine its benefits versus the risks is called the
Q2) Resistance to only one type of drug may allow resistance to a similar drug; this process is called __________.
Q3) Antimicrobial drugs that adversely affect the red bone marrow are referred to as A)hepatotoxic.
B)hemotoxic.
C)neurotoxic.
D)nephrotoxic.
Q4) Prontosil,a dye,was first used as an antibiotic by A)Pasteur.
B)Domagk.
C)Bovet.
D)Fleming.
Q5) All of the following are mechanisms of resistance used by microbes except A)Change in ribosome composition
B)Development of defensive enzymes
C)Increased drug elimination
D)Change in membrane permeability
Q6) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
Q2) Infections that may result from the use of catheters are classified as A)iatrogenic infections.
B)local infections.
C)exogenous infections.
D)endogenous infections.
Q3) The virulence factors of bacteria include
A)size, adhesion, resistance, and mutation.
B)colonization, invasion, toxins, and adhesion.
C)toxins, evasion of body defenses, motility, and size.
D)colonization, chemotaxis, fermentation, and toxins.
Q4) Which type of symbiosis benefits both members?
A)Mutualism
B)Parasitism
C)Commensalism
D)Pathogenesis
Q5) An organism that does not normally cause disease in a healthy individual but that can cause disease when there is an imbalance in the normal flora or when the host becomes immunocompromised is called a(n)__________ pathogen.
Page 14
Q6) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Can cross the placenta
A)Basophil
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)Monocyte
E)IgD
F)T cell
G)IgA
H)IgG
Q2) Which of the following cell types secretes antibodies?
A)Macrophages
B)T cells
C)Plasma cells
D)Monocytes
Q3) GALT is an example of a collection of lymphatic nodules in the
A)respiratory tract.
B)small intestine.
C)stomach.
D)female reproductive system.
Q4) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
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Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Malassezia furfur.
Q2) A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called "__________."
Q3) Necrotizing fasciitis
A)HSV-1
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)HSV-2
D)Actinomyces
E)Escherichia coli
F)Varicella-zoster
G)HHV-6 and -7
H)Malassezia furfur
Q4) Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by A)HSV-1.
B)HSV-2.
C)HSV-6.
D)HSV-7.
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following geographic areas contains reservoirs for Coccidioides immitis?
A)France
B)South Africa
C)Arizona
D)Iowa
Q2) The "strawberry tongue" symptom is often associated with
A)rheumatic fever.
B)scarlet fever.
C)pneumonia.
D)pharyngitis.
Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-__________ bacterium.
Q4) Which of the following cannot be and should not be treated with antibiotics?
A)Strep throat
B)Tuberculosis
C)Common cold
D)Diphtheria
Q5) Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
Q6) Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of __________.
Q7) The TB skin test is also known as the _______________ test.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is A)noroviruses.
B)adenoviruses.
C)rotaviruses.
D)caliciviruses.
Q2) A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called __________.
Q3) "Thrush" is caused by the organism __________.
Q4) Bacterial food intoxication
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
Q5) The term "stomach flu" really refers to __________.
Q6) Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus __________.
Q7) Botulism is caused by __________.
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleeping sickness
A)Prion
B)Rhabdovirus
C)Clostridium tetani
D)Dimorphic fungus
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
F)Clostridium difficile
G)Trypanosoma
H)Bacillus tetani
Q2) Rabies
A)Prion
B)Rhabdovirus
C)Clostridium tetani
D)Dimorphic fungus
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
F)Clostridium difficile
G)Trypanosoma
H)Bacillus tetani
Q3) The nervous system is divided into two components: the __________ and the
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Rabbit fever," a zoonotic disease,is caused by A)Bartonella henselae.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Francisella tularensis.
D)Yersinia pestis.
Q2) The toxic condition caused by the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from the site of infection is called __________.
Q3) The toxic condition caused by the multiplication of bacteria in the blood is referred to as A)bacteremia.
B)septicemia. C)shock.
D)bloodborne infection.
Q4) An inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication following a group A streptococcal infection is A)endocarditis.
B)rheumatic fever.
C)nephritis.
D)cytomegalovirus.

Page 20
Q5) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)______________________ mosquito.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two parasites that cause urinary tract infections are
A)Plasmodium and Borrelia burgdorferi.
B)Schistosoma haematobium and Trichomonas vaginalis.
C)Giardia lamblia and Treponema pallidum.
D)Plasmodium falciparum and Giardia lamblia.
Q2) In the urinary system,cytomegalovirus infections are typically associated with A)kidney transplant failure.
B)cystitis.
C)nephritis.
D)urethritis.
Q3) The organism that is primarily responsible for causing cystitis is ___________________________.
Q4) A urinary tract infection of the kidneys is called A)urethritis.
B)cystitis.
C)cellulitis.
D)pyelonephritis.
Q5) The current drug of choice to treat viral urinary infections is __________.
Q6) For patients with a catheter,the best measures to prevent a UTI are frequent cleaning and __________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by A)Histoplasma capsulatum.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Aspergillus niger.
D)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
Q2) The most common bacterial nonsexually transmitted infection of the male reproductive system is A)cystitis.
B)prostatitis.
C)mastitis.
D)nephritis.
Q3) The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is __________ .
Q4) Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include A)douching, use of contraceptive pills, and exercise.
B)use of absorbent tampons, frequent douching, and avoidance of tight pants.
C)avoidance of douching, use of panties with cotton crotch, and exercise.
D)avoidance of tight pants, use of panties with cotton crotch, and infrequent douching.
Q5) In cases of toxic shock syndrome,the most effective treatment is the immediate use of the antibiotic __________.
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Q1) Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Chlamydia trachomatis.
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
Q2) Which of the following agents can be used in the treatment of balanitis?
A)Tetracycline
B)Tolnaftate
C)Cefixime
D)Ampicillin
Q3) Which of the following stages of syphilis is/are the most infectious?
A)Primary
B)Primary and secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Last stage
Q4) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Q5) Hepatitis is an infection of the __________,even though transmission of the virus can occur through sexual activity.
Q6) Vaccination is available for the sexually transmitted hepatitis __________ virus.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Q1) The neonatal infection referred to as "sticky eye" is caused by A)Streptococcus.
B)herpes simplex.
C)Staphylococcus.
D)Escherichia.
Q2) The virus most commonly transmitted during pregnancy is A)cytomegalovirus.
B)HIV.
C)herpes simplex virus.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q3) A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
Q4) The gestation period of humans is approximately __________ weeks.
Q5) Chlamydia commonly occurring in young adults is a _________ disease.
Q6) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by __________.
Q7) The common name for rubella is __________.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) Which of the following diseases was declared by the WHO in 1980 to be eradicated?
A)Mumps
B)Pertussis
C)Smallpox
D)Botulism
Q2) The most lethal form of anthrax is
A)inhalation anthrax.
B)cutaneous anthrax.
C)gastrointestinal.
D)nasopharyngeal.
Q3) EPA stands for __________.
Q4) Overgrowth of microbes in nutrient-rich waters
A)Biomass
B)Eutrophication
C)Denitrification
D)Thiobacillus
E)Yersinia
F)Biodiversity
G)Rhizobium
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by a tick?
A)Botulism
B)Anthrax
C)Tularemia
D)MRSA
Q2) Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?
A)Hantavirus
B)Malaria
C)Tuberculosis
D)Chlamydia
Q3) Which of the following organisms belongs in the group I category?
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Bacillus anthracis
Q4) Acanthamebiasis is a group __________ emerging/reemerging infectious disease.
Q5) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
Q6) The lead federal agency whose primary responsibility is to protect the people of the United States from infectious diseases is the __________.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as __________.
Q2) The hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate stem cells of the bone marrow to mature into red blood cells is __________.
Q3) A genetic recombination process that uses a cytoplasmic bridge between the donor and the recipient is called A)transduction.
B)ligation.
C)conjugation.
D)extension.
Q4) Genetically modified crops are also referred to as __________ plants.
Q5) Synthetic proteins that can be used in the treatment of hepatitis C are __________.
Q6) In PCR,which of the following temperature ranges is used in the priming process?
A)90-95 °C
B)50-70 °C
C)60-80 °C
D)35-65 °C
Q7) Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce __________ ends.
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