Introduction to Microbiology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology offers a foundational exploration of the microscopic world, focusing on the diversity, structure, and function of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students will learn about microbial genetics, growth, metabolism, and the roles these organisms play in health, disease, biotechnology, and the environment. Laboratory and theoretical components emphasize aseptic techniques, microbial cultivation, and identification methods, preparing students for advanced studies and practical applications in various health and science fields.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology With Diseases By Taxonomy 5th Edition Robert W. Bauman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of protozoa?
A) most exhibit asexual reproduction.
B) they are single-celled organisms.
C) they are eukaryotic organisms.
D) they are all photosynthetic.
E) they frequently possess cilia or flagella.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following types of microbe was NOT observed by Leeuwenhoek?
A) fungus
B) protozoan
C) prokaryote
D) alga
E) virus
Answer: E
Q3) The work of Oswald Avery,George Beadle,Edward Tatum and many others into the role of DNA laid the foundations of (microbial genetics/microbiology/recombinant DNA technology).
Answer: microbial genetics
Q4) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n)(observation/hypothesis/theory).
Answer: hypothesis
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Q1) Cell walls containing ________ provide the best protection from drying.
A) polysaccharides
B) triglycerides
C) waxes
D) peptidoglycan
E) sterols
Answer: C
Q2) Decomposition reactions are commonly ________ reactions.
A) endothermic
B) exchange
C) exothermic
D) anabolic
E) dehydration
Answer: C
Q3) Cell surface markers composed of both carbohydrate and lipid molecules are known as (glycoproteins/glycolipids/LPS).
Answer: glycolipids
Q4) A saturated fatty acid contains (no/one/multiple)double bonds.
Answer: no
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane?
A) Gram-negative bacteria only
B) Gram-positive bacteria only
C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
D) archaea
E) all prokaryotes
Answer: A
Q2) Archaeal cytoplasmic membranes are composed of unbranched phospholipids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What types of molecules may NOT need transport proteins to be able to cross cytoplasmic membranes?
A) large molecules
B) ions
C) small hydrophobic molecules
D) small hydrophilic molecules
E) nothing crosses cytoplasmic membranes without transport proteins
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Q1) Low contrast specimens are made easier to see by
A) increasing the amount of light passing through the slide.
B) using dyes that react with their structures.
C) adding color filters to the microscope.
D) using smaller aperture lenses.
E) drying them in a vacuum.
Q2) Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining bacterial species?
A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes.
B) the "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria.
C) ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment.
D) bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits.
E) bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes present in all prokaryotes.
Q3) Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for (phase/fluorescent/electron)microscopy.
Q4) A serological test that involves the clumping of antigen and antibody is the (agglutination/antigen/ELISA)test.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE?
A) They are usually, but not always, proteins.
B) They always function best at 37°C.
C) They can be denatured if the pH of their environment is too high or too low.
D) They form a temporary intermediate compound with a substrate.
E) They can be used to catalyze a chemical reaction over and over again.
Q2) When a cell forms an amino acid by adding an amine group derived from ammonia to a precursor metabolite,this process is called
A) amination.
B) transamination.
C) reduction.
D) polymerization.
E) deamination.
Q3) Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways.Provide specific examples in your answer.
Q4) Amino acids are converted to substrates of the Krebs cycle by (beta-oxidation/deamination/transamination).
Q5) Only Photosystem I is required for (anoxygenic/cyclic/noncyclic)photophosphorylation to occur.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low
A) carbon dioxide levels.
B) pH values.
C) hydrostatic pressure.
D) oxygen levels.
E) salt concentrations.
Q2) All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT
A) carotenoids.
B) superoxide dismutase.
C) peroxidase.
D) protease.
E) catalase.
Q3) A capnophile is a microorganism that thrives in conditions of high
A) carbon dioxide levels.
B) hydrostatic pressure.
C) oxygen levels.
D) pH.
E) salt concentration.
Q4) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleotide analogs cause frameshift mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Except during initiation of translation,transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E)site.
Q3) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription.
Q4) The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is (topoisomerase/primase/helicase).
Q5) Amino acids are delivered in their appropriate order by A) mRNAs.
B) RNA-induced silencing complexes (RISC) C) ribozymes.
D) rRNAs.
E) tRNAs.
Q6) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).
Q7) Bacterial chromosomes typically have several origins of replication.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Vectors usually contain genetic (markers/sequences/probes)such as antibiotic genes or fluorescent tags.
Q2) Restriction (enzymes/proteases/polymerases),first isolated from bacterial cells,cut DNA molecules at specific sites.
Q3) Under ideal conditions,the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The technique known as real-time PCR is used to
A) prepare cDNA molecules for cloning.
B) detect the presence of specific genetic sequences in a sample.
C) isolate DNA fragments for cloning.
D) measure the number of copies of a DNA sequence in a sample.
E) both detect and isolate DNA fragments in a sample.
Q5) A technique using fluorescent-tagged probes to detect specific DNA sequences in their natural locations is known as (FISH/PCR/BLOTTING).
Q6) Discuss some of the impacts that tools and techniques of recombinant DNA technology have had on medicine.
Q7) Compare and contrast the two major categories of restriction enzymes.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Q1) Silvadene,a topical treatment for burns,contains 1% silver.What category of chemical control agent is in Silvadene?
A) halogens
B) heavy metals
C) oxidizing agents
D) aldehydes
E) surfactants
Q2) A chemical used to reduce potential pathogens on the skin is a(n)
A) antiseptic.
B) disinfectant.
C) sanitizer.
D) sterilizing agent.
E) degermer.
Q3) Aseptic means
A) sterile.
B) free of all microbes.
C) clean.
D) sanitized.
E) free of pathogens.
Q4) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less)effectively than gamma rays.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) A drug is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis.It is most likely a(n)
A) nucleic acid analog.
B) penicillin.
C) tetracycline.
D) azole.
E) sulfonamide.
Q2) Antimicrobials known as "attachment antagonists" are particularly useful for preventing A) bacterial protein synthesis.
B) cell membrane synthesis.
C) virus infection.
D) nucleic acid synthesis.
E) biofilm formation.
Q3) The ratio of a medication's dose that can be tolerated to its effective dose is the therapeutic (MIC/index/range)of the medication.
Q4) A microbe resistant to a variety of different antimicrobials is said to have (cross/drug/multiple)resistance.
Q5) Explain the concept of selective toxicity.
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ are obligately anaerobic bacilli found in human intestines that aid in digestion of plant material.
A) methanogen
B) mycoplasma
C) bacteroides
D) clostridium
E) cyanobacterium
Q3) Endospores
A) are bacterial reproductive structures.
B) may be produced when nutrients are scarce.
C) are produced by bacteria, algae, and fungi.
D) are resistant to everything except radiation.
E) can last for only about 10 years.
Q4) The infective stage of chlamydia is called the (elementary/endospore/initial)body.
Q5) Explain the significance of endospores.
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Q1) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.
Q2) Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually.Nonetheless,most of them are considered members of the ________ on the basis of genetic sequences.
A) Zygomycota
B) Basidiomycota
C) Ascomycota
D) Sporozoa
E) Rhizaria
Q3) Slime molds are classified with protozoa in part because they have (flagella/pseudopods/shells).
Q4) Sexual reproduction in unicellular algae is accomplished by the cell acting as a (gamete/spore/zygote).
Q5) The large seaweed known as kelp is classified as a member of the A) Chlorophyta.
B) Phaeophyta.
C) Chrysophyta.
D) Rhodophyta.
E) Deuteromycete.
Q6) Limestone is made up of the shells of (foraminifera/parabasala/radiolarians).
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?
A) they cannot reproduce outside a cell.
B) they act as slow viruses.
C) they cause neurological problems.
D) they can be destroyed by incineration.
E) they lack nucleic acid.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is true?
A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.
B) Virus classes are well established.
C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.
D) The species epithet is a latin descriptor of the virion structure.
E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.
Q3) In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses,the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of the host cell.What does this suggest about the virus?
Q4) RNA viruses such as HIV require the activity of reverse (polymerase/transcriptase/transposase)to become proviruses.
Q5) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions).
Q6) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Q1) Staphylococcus bacteria are commonly present in the human nasal cavity but rarely cause disease of the upper respiratory system.This situation is an example of (commensalism/mutualism/parasitism).
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?
A) bacteria in the human colon
B) tapeworm in the human intestine
C) tuberculosis in the human lung
D) protozoa in termites
E) microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus
Q3) A person is exposed to rotten wood with fungal growth and develops blastomycosis.No one taking care of him/her becomes ill.Blastomycosis is an example of a ________ disease.
A) contagious
B) subacute
C) chronic
D) noncommunicable
E) latent
Q4) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins.
Q5) Bacterial capsules are (antiphagocytic/cytotoxic/exotoxic)virulence factors.
Q6) Compare and contrast analytical,descriptive and experimental epidemiology. Page 16
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria?
A) eosinophils
B) macrophages
C) neutrophils
D) natural killer cells
E) both eosinophils and neutrophils
Q3) Which of the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain blue with methylene blue?
A) eosinophils
B) monocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
E) basophils
Q4) Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR)in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria.
Q5) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous)cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s)in the body?
A) the bone marrow
B) the spleen
C) the liver
D) both the bone marrow and the spleen
E) the thymus
Q2) What is the role of interleukins?
A) chemotaxis of leukocytes
B) production of virally infected cells
C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes
D) signaling between leukocytes
E) complement activation
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE?
A) It is the third line of defense.
B) It has memory.
C) It changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen.
D) It is acquired.
E) It is the body's ability to respond to specific invading pathogens.
Q4) Plasma cells produce (antibody/chemokine/cytotoxic)molecules.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity,(adjuvants/reinoculations/subunits)must be given to maintain protection.
Q2) Hybridomas are produced by
A) combining two virus-infected cells.
B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells.
C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence.
D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell.
E) combining two bacterial infected cells.
Q3) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by
A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
B) genetic manipulation.
C) treatment with formaldehyde.
D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.
E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
Q4) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).
Q5) Fluorescent antibody,ELISA,and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (hybridoma/labeled/unlabeled)antibodies.
Q6) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Failure of thymus development may result in
A) type I diabetes.
B) Grave's disease.
C) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia.
D) DiGeorge syndrome.
E) chronic granulomatous disease.
Q2) Which of the following is both a hypersensitivity disorder and an autoimmune disorder?
A) anaphylaxis
B) glomerulonephritis
C) graft rejection
D) hemolytic disease of the newborn
E) rheumatoid arthritis
Q3) Normally,complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Pathogenic Gram Positive Bacteria
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Q1) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action?
A) it fuses irreversibly to neurons, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts.
B) the smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system.
C) it is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin.
D) it destroys tissues, including muscle and fat.
E) Antibodies to the toxin bind the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle preventing relaxation.
Q2) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by
A) infecting and killing alveolar macrophages.
B) triggering inflammatory mediator release.
C) attaching to and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.
D) paralyzing the respiratory muscles.
E) killing the epithelial cells of the alveoli.
Q3) The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/tetanic)paralysis by preventing muscle contraction.
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Chapter 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli
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Q1) What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections?
A) erythromycin
B) tetracycline
C) metronidazole
D) cephalosporin
E) bacitracin
Q2) Legionnaires' disease is diagnosed by
A) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media.
B) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope.
C) serological diagnostic procedures.
D) the clinical symptoms in infected patients.
E) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents.
Q3) Compare and contrast Yersinia pestis and Francisella tularensis with respect to clinical manifestations,mechanisms of transmission,reservoirs,and pathogenesis.
Q4) Of the three diseases caused by Yersinia pestis,only (bubonic/black/pneumonic)plague is communicable between humans.
Q5) Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis)toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues.
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Chapter 21: Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios
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Q1) Explain why modern treatment of a peptic ulcer includes administering an antibacterial agent.Discuss the cause.
Q2) Untreated syphilis may persist in a latent state for (months/years/decades)before manifesting as tertiary syphilis.
Q3) Borrelia burgdorferi is an unusual bacterium that lacks iron-containing enzymes and proteins and causes (Brill-Zinser/Lyme/RMSF)disease in humans.
Q4) Which of the following is the correct pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector?
A) R. rickettsia; flea
B) R typhi; tick
C) R prowazekii; louse
D) R. typhi; mite
E) R rickettsia; louse
Q5) Explain what is meant by describing chlamydias as "energy parasites."
Q6) Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans is (campylobacteriosis/Lyme/ornithosis).
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Chapter 22: Pathogenic Fungi
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Q1) Ringworm is a type I hypersensitivity response to fungus spores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why are mycoses among the most difficult diseases to treat?
Q3) Which of the following fungal infections may progress to infection of the brain?
A) Coccidioides immitis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Mucor
D) both Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans
E) Coccidioides immitis, Cryptococcus neoformans, and Mucor
Q4) Most mycoses are difficult to treat because
A) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents.
B) fungicides are rapidly metabolized by the liver.
C) fungal cells provide few targets for selective toxicity.
D) treatment causes major disruption of the microbiota.
E) fungicides are extremely expensive.
Q5) Dermatophytes,which live on the surface of the skin,are always pathogenic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast dermatophytosis and pityriasis.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Parasitic Protozoa, Helminths, and Arthropod
Vectors
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Q1) Why is self-reinfection commonly seen in children that suffer from pinworms?
Q2) Humans are the only reservoir for (Balantidium/Entamoeba/Giardia),an intestinal parasite that causes diarrhea.
Q3) Enterobius vermicularis are commonly known as (pinworms/hookworms/tapeworms)because of the shape of the female's tail.
Q4) Apicomplexans reproduce asexually by (mitosis/schizogony/fission).
Q5) How does the life cycle for the Trypanosoma that causes sleeping sickness differ from the one that causes Chagas' disease?
Q6) The primary risk to humans infected with Echinococcus granulosus is A) development of cysticerci.
B) formation of hydatid cysts.
C) intestinal obstruction.
D) anemia.
E) infection of the fetus.
Q7) Several species of Plasmodium cause malaria in humans.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
Q8) The most common nematode infection worldwide is (ascariasis/filariasis/pinworms).
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Chapter 24: Pathogenic DNA Viruses
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Q1) A serum sample from a patient is examined on an electron microscope,and observed to contain Dane particles,filamentous,and spherical virion particles in abundance.This observation indicates infection with
A) human herpesvirus 1.
B) EBV.
C) hepatitis B.
D) hepatitis D.
E) VZV.
Q2) What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?
A) they contain RNA.
B) they contain double-stranded RNA.
C) they contain single-stranded DNA.
D) they contain double-stranded DNA.
E) they contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA.
Q3) Which of the following is a vaccine-preventable disease?
A) genital warts
B) genital herpes
C) fifth disease
D) infectious mononucleosis
E) roseola
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Chapter 25: Pathogenic RNA Viruses
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Q1) Deltavirus (hepatitis D virus)requires co-infection with ________ to produce infectious virions.
A) hepatitis A virus
B) hepatitis B virus
C) hepatitis C virus
D) arenaviruses
E) hepatitis E virus
Q2) Humans may become infected with ________ by inhaling aerosols of dried rodent excrement.
A) influenza virus
B) coronaviruses
C) hantavirus
D) West Nile virus
E) Venezuelan encephalitis virus
Q3) Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIV?
A) breast milk
B) semen
C) vaginal secretions
D) both semen and vaginal secretions
E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions
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Chapter 26: Applied and Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of industrial microbial products and their uses is MISMATCHED?
A) streptokinase; dissolving blood clots
B) indigo; blue jeans
C) citric acid; antioxidant in food
D) gluconic acid; release of cellulose from flax to make linen
E) phenylalanine; the sweetener aspartame
Q2) Which of the following items that are commonly added during food preparation can be considered a preservative?
A) apple juice
B) meat broth
C) garlic
D) yeast
E) whey
Q3) The anthrax attack of fall 2001 was accomplished by mailing the agent in ordinary envelopes.This method of delivery took advantage of the ability of Bacillus anthracis to produce (aerosols/endospores/spores).
Q4) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease.
Q5) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting).
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