Introduction to Microbiology
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the microbial world, focusing on the structure, function, physiology, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores microbial genetics, growth, and metabolism, as well as the roles microorganisms play in health, disease, industry, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for observing and identifying microbes, as well as on the impact of microorganisms in public health, biotechnology, and contemporary scientific research.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following groups would you find a mushroom
A)bacteria
B)protozoa
C)fungi
D)viruses
Answer: C
Q2) A pure culture refers to a culture:
A)containing bacteria that all have the same shape
B)which has never been used to inoculate a patient
C)which causes only a single disease
D)which contains only a single type of organism
Answer: D
Q3) A parasitologist studies parasites.What does a mycologist study
A)protozoa
B)how viruses cause disease and are involved in cancer
C)the development of chemical substances to treat diseases
D)fungi
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Q1) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Bacteroides-dominant
B)Prevotella-dominant
C)Ruminococcus-dominant
D)all are correct enterotypes
E)Shigella-dominant
Answer: E
Q2) How many bacteria are found in and on an average human
A)10¹²
B)10¹
C)10¹
D)10²
E)10²
Answer: C
Q3) Which is NOT one of the enterotypes described for humans
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type V
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food consists of molecules with lots of energy stored in their chemical bonds.What is true about how microorganisms use nutrients
A)When microorganisms break the chemical bonds in nutrients,they release energy.
B)It takes microorganisms more energy to break the bonds in nutrients than are released.
C)All energy that microorganisms receive from nutrients comes from anabolism.
D)Microorganisms break down hydrogen bonds to release electrons as energy.
Answer: A
Q2) Glucose:
A)is abundant in milk and fruit
B)is a rare monosaccharide
C)is never produced within cells
D)none of these
Answer: D
Q3) Which is a false statement about chemical reactions
A)Catabolic reactions are exergonic and release energy.
B)Polymerization and the building up of large molecules is a catabolic reaction.
C)Anabolic reactions require energy.
D)Energy is stored in the form of chemical bonds.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) The best electron microscopes have a resolution of _____ nm.
A)0.1
B)1
C)10
D)100
Q2) Which of the following can be used to examine live specimens
A)TEM
B)SEM
C)scanning tunneling electron microscope
D)atomic force microscope
Q3) Most light microscopes contain a/an ________ that converges the light beam so that it passes through the specimen.
A)objective lens
B)iris diaphragm
C)mechanical stage
D)condenser
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Inclusions found in bacteria generally would not include:
A)granules
B)volutin
C)metachromatic granules
D)ribosomes
Q2) The most important structural component of bacterial cell walls is _____.
A)teichoic acid
B)lipotechoic acid
C)peptidoglycan
D)glutamic acid
Q3) Which of the following statements about cell walls is false
A)All bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acids.
B)Plants and fungi have cell walls.
C)Bacteria which have lost their cell wall are known as L-forms.
D)Algal protists have cell walls.
Q4) Peptidoglycan makes up more than 50% of a ________ cell wall.
A)Gram negative
B)Gram positive
C)Gram variable
D)acid-fast
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) During the metabolism of fats,the product of beta-oxidation enters:
A)glycolysis
B)Krebs cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
D)electron transport chain
Q2) Oxidation is defined as the ________ while reduction is the ________ .
A)gain of electrons,loss of protons
B)loss of electrons,gain of protons
C)loss of electrons,gain of electrons
D)loss of protons,gain of protons
Q3) Substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis refers to the transfer of phosphate groups from:
A)ATP to glucose
B)1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid to ADP
C)Phosphoenolpyruvic acid to ADP
D)ATP to ADP
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following is not a stage in endospores returning to the vegetative state
A)Traumatic agent such as low pH or heat damages the coat.
B)Outgrowth occurs in a medium with adequate nutrients.
C)Divisions of the endospores early in their development.
D)Water and nutrients penetrates damaged coat.
Q2) The streak plate method produces pure cultures by separating individual bacterial cells from one another by _____.
A)dragging them across a solid surface
B)dispersing them in liquid media
C)killing off those cells that are not able to survive in hot agar
D)embedding some cells in the agar so that they are exposed to lower concentrations of oxygen
Q3) Which of the following is considered a trace element
A)carbon
B)zinc
C)sulphur
D)phosphorous
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9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true
A)The first position of a codon determines the amino acid.
B)An amino acid can be specified for by more than one codon.
C)Nonsense codons contain no information.
D)Because DNA only contains four letters there are very few number of possible genes that can exist.
Q2) When an E.coli cell contains high levels of lactose,the lactose will bind with the _____.
A)repressor
B)operator
C)promoter
D)RNA polymerase
Q3) In the lac operon RNA polymerase first binds to the:
A)promoter
B)operator
C)repressor
D)regulator
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) Recombinant bacteria have been used to produce _____.
A)human growth hormone
B)vaccines
C)insulin
D)all of these
Q2) In Griffith's transformation experiments,which of the following did not take place
A)Live,capsulated pneumococci killed mice
B)Live unencapsulated bacteria were able to retrieve the DNA from dead encapsulated bacteria and become virulent
C)DNA was transferred from capsulated to unencapsulated bacteria using a bacteriophage
D)Dead,capsulated pneumococci had no effect on mice
Q3) RFLP's are the result of _____.
A)treating cells with enzymes that remove their cell walls
B)fusing two cells together
C)genes being transferred by a virus
D)cutting DNA with restriction enzymes
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following organisms shows the proper use of binomial nomenclature
A)escherichia coli
B)Escherichia Coli
C)Escherichia coli
D)escherichia Coli
Q2) In the five-kingdom scheme of classification,algae are classified along in the Kingdom:
A)Monera
B)Protista
C)Plant
D)Protista and Plant
Q3) Which of the following criteria is not commonly used to classify Bacteria
A)Morphology
B)Shape of ribosomes
C)Staining characteristics
D)Biochemical characteristics
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Q1) A viral infection is treated with a drug designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase.Which of the following viruses would NOT be affected
A)Human Immunodeficiency virus
B)Murine leukemia virus
C)Hepatitis B virus
D)None of these choices
Q2) Because viruses such as bacteriophages lead to bursting of the bacterial host cell they are known as ________ viruses.
A)lytic
B)lysogenic
C)recurring
D)lethal
Q3) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________.
A)prophage,lysogen
B)plaque,lysogen
C)lysogen,prophage
D)prophage,retrovirus
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13
Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Helminths:
A)are all obligate parasites
B)have left and right halves that are mirror images
C)are a type of protozoa
D)are all hermaphroditic
Q2) A host in which a parasite reproduces sexually is a _____.
A)primary host
B)definitive host
C)intermediate host
D)reservoir host
Q3) A mechanical vector:
A)lives on or in another organism at the expense of the host
B)simply carries microbes on the outside of its body
C)reproduces as an asexual form in this host
D)infects by mechanical insertion of a syringe
Q4) The only non-motile group of protozoans is the _____.
A)mastigophorans
B)amebozoans
C)apicomplexans
D)ciliophorans
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Denaturation of proteins by antimicrobial agents _____.
A)prevents viruses from infecting host cells
B)disrupts hydrogen and disulfide bonds
C)aids in preserving the shape and function of proteins
D)two of these
Q2) When an antimicrobial agent permanently denatures proteins thus preventing renaturation to their native states it is considered:
A)bacteriostatic
B)bactericidal
C)bacterial lysis
D)an inhibitor of growth
Q3) Dry heat does most of its damage against microorganisms by _____.
A)disrupting membrane lipids
B)disrupting hydrogen bonds
C)oxidizing molecules
D)denaturing proteins
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Why are resistant organisms found often in hospitalized patients
A)Stringent efforts maintain sanitary conditions.
B)Many infections in patients are being treated with different antibiotics.
C)Doctors are treating outpatients with multiple antibiotics.
D)Two of these.
Q2) Which of the characteristics apply to an ideal antimicrobial agent
A)Allergenic
B)Instability
C)Short shelf life
D)Selective toxicity
Q3) Because the tetracyclines are effective against a large variety of different organisms,they are considered to:
A)be narrow-spectrum drugs
B)have a therapeutic dosage level
C)be bacteriocidal
D)be broad-spectrum drugs
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) A disease in which the agent is acquired directly from the environment and is NOT transmissable is a/an:
A)local disease
B)secondary disease
C)noncommunicable disease
D)acute disease
Q2) All of the following are true of most diseases caused by a fungus EXCEPT:
A)fungal spores enter the body through a cut or a wound
B)fungi could release enzymes that attack host cells
C)fungi can digest and invade neighboring host cells
D)fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids
Q3) A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship.
A)Parasitism
B)Mutualism
C)Commensalism
D)Contamination
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Droplet nuclei:
A)are non-living carriers that transmit infectious pathogens
B)define the first case in an outbreak
C)consists of dried endospores
D)are filtered out of hemodialysis equipment
Q2) The study of factors and mechanisms of disease frequency and spread within a population is known as:
A)Immunology
B)Pathology
C)Epidemiology
D)Etiology
Q3) Bioterrorism:
A)is a new phenomenon
B)agents all transmit from one human to other humans
C)agents are all transmitted through mechanical vectors
D)might employ pathogens such as Bacillus anthracis
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following proteins activate complement,enhance inflammation and stimulate macrophages to undergo chemotaxis
A)Antiviral proteins
B)Exogenous pyrogens
C)Leukocidins
D)Acute phase proteins
Q2) During inflammation,permeable capillary walls allow accumulation of fluids near injured cells causing which of the following
A)calor
B)redness
C)edema
D)blood clotting
Q3) The condition that is caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens is called _____.
A)edema
B)pain
C)swelling
D)fever
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19
Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Cells that are neither T nor B cells,but function to non-specifically kill cells infected by viruses are called:
A)natural killer cells
B)phagocytic cells
C)memory cells
D)blood cells
Q2) Cross reactions occur in all of the following cases except:
A)when an antibody reacts with structurally similar antigens
B)when syphilis has the same antigens as human cells
C)between a hapten and a carrier molecule
D)recognition of two strains of bacteria
Q3) Injection of a patient with ready-made antibodies produced in a different host is an example of what type of immunity
A)Artificially acquired active immunity
B)Naturally acquired active immunity
C)Naturally acquired passive immunity
D)Artificially acquired passive immunity
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Which serological test uses sheep red blood cells and complement in making diagnostic choices
A)agglutination test
B)precipitin test
C)Fab tests
D)complement fixation test
Q2) Examples of autoimmune diseases include which of the following
A)Systemic lupus erythematosus
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)All of these
Q3) The match between HLAs determines the suitability of transplants,which HLA is known to generate the strongest transplant rejection reaction
A)HLA-A and HLA-B
B)HLA B27
C)HLA Dw3
D)HLA-DR
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Cat scratch fever is caused by:
A)Spirillum minor
B)Pasteurella multocida
C)Bartonella hensalae
D)two of these
Q2) The most common bacteria to cause infections from soaking in a hot tub is__________.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Staphylococcus epidermidis
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Varicella-Zoster virus is associated with all statements below except:
A)causes chicken pox
B)latent virus is reactivated when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
C)causes shingles
D)acyclovir has been shown to be an excellent treatment for shingles
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) The routes of infection in prostatitis include all of the following except:
A)by ascent through the urethra
B)from bloodborne organisms
C)by back-flow of contaminated urine
D)by descent from the seminal vesicles
Q2) Cytomegalovirus causes _____.
A)severe disease in fetuses,neonates and immunocompromised people
B)frothy,fishy-smelling discharge
C)painful bleeding lesions on genitals
D)warts on genitals and intense itching
Q3) Syphilis:
A)is often detected in the primary stage as the symptoms don't go away
B)is easiest to treat in the tertiary stage as that is when there are the fewest organisms
C)can be spread by kissing in the secondary stage
D)two of these
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to pneumonia
A)Sinusitis
B)Bronchitis
C)Pharyngitis
D)Epiglottitis
Q2) Which bacterial species is responsible for Q fever
A)Coxiella burnetii
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Corynebacterium pseudoinfluenzae
D)Haemophilus influenzae type B
Q3) Influenza exhibits antigenic drift which involves _____.
A)mutations in genes for hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
B)gene reassortment due to multiple viral infections
C)mutations in envelope phospholipids
D)mutations in capsid proteins
Q4) Which of the following are used in the treatment or prevention of diphtheria
A)Antibiotics
B)Vaccination
C)Antitoxin
D)All of these choices
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which is the only ciliated protozoan that causes a human disease similar to amoebic dysentery
A)Diphyllobothrium latum
B)Hymenolepis nana
C)Balantidium coli
D)Taenia solium
Q2) Which Hepatitis virus only causes severe disease when there is a coinfection with Hepatitis B
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis D
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis G
Q3) Salmonella _________ ,a common cause of food poisoning,is found in many animals including poultry.
A)typhimurium
B)enteritidis
C)typhi
D)typhus
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) In which disease(s)does the merozoite infect red blood cells
A)Malaria
B)Blackwater fever
C)Ehrlichiosis
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Lyme disease is characterized by all of the following except:
A)etiology is Borrelia burgdorferi
B)bull's eye rash
C)genetic predisposition with HLA-DR4 or RLA-DR2
D)debilitating hepatitis is a common complication
Q3) Dengue fever is transmitted via:
A)mosquitoes
B)sand flies
C)mites
D)ticks
Q4) Swelling that results from roundworms blocking lymphatics is called:
A)myocarditis
B)elephantiasis
C)pericarditis
D)lymphangitis
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Mycobacterium leprae is difficult to cultivate but it can be grown _____.
A)on blood agar
B)in armadillos
C)in tissue culture
D)in embryonated eggs
Q2) Which of the following statements about brain infections is false
A)Equine encephalitis infects horses more than humans.
B)Rabies can be transmitted by infected raccoons.
C)Poliovirus often causes no symptoms and goes undetected in small children.
D)Viral meningitis is usually self-limiting and nonfatal.
Q3) Treatment for tubercular meningitis includes:
A)isoniazid
B)penicillin
C)tetracycline
D)amphotericin B
Q4) Clostridium botulinum is characterized by all of the following except:
A)preformed toxin in food prevents release of acetylcholine
B)progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
C)paralysis and death results if not treated promptly
D)in wounds endospores germinate and produce toxin
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Eutrophication leads to:
A)a decrease in oxygen
B)plants become very dense
C)abundant nutrient enrichment
D)all of these choices
Q2) Which bacteria are found in the desert and are oil eating
A)Halobacterium
B)Desulfurovibrio
C)Thiobacillus
D)Arthrobacter
Q3) Which is the order of purification procedures for water
A)flocculation chlorination filtration particulate settling
B)synthetic organic chemicals particulate settling filtration
C)chlorination filtration particulate settling nitrification
D)particulate settling flocculation treatment filtration chlorination
Q4) Nitrification is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A)carried out by autotrophic bacteria
B)supplies plants with a usable nitrogen source
C)produces ammonia
D)nitrogen is oxidized in both of the two steps
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Tuberculosis can be transmitted by _____.
A)unpasteurized milk
B)unpasteurized cheeses
C)fomites in food
D)all of these choices
Q2) Which of the following contamination is incorrectly matched with the food it affects
A)Fusarium fungus- tomatoes infected from fruit flies
B)Leuconostoc and Lactitrous bacteria - fresh fruit juice acts as a high sugar media
C)Monilia fructicola - brown rot in peaches
D)Erwinia carotovora - microbial invasion of melons
Q3) Spirulina has been grown for centuries in alkaline lakes in Africa,in Mexico and by the ancient Incas in Peru to be used _____.
A)as fertilizer
B)as animal feed
C)for human consumption
D)as preservatives
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