Introduction to Microbiology Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology explores the fundamental concepts underlying the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of microbial cell structure, genetics, metabolism, growth, and the crucial roles microorganisms play in ecosystems, biotechnology, and human health. The course covers both beneficial and harmful impacts of microbes, emphasizing topics such as disease causation, immunity, and infection control. Laboratory components may provide hands-on experience with basic microbiological techniques, including aseptic procedures, culturing, staining, and identification of microbes.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Q1) Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering?
A)Viruses
B)Bacteria
C)Parasites
D)Fungi
E)Helminths
Answer: A
Q2) Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Hand washing in the healthcare environment is aimed at reducing the number of microbes in the medical setting to prevent the spread of infection and disease.Which of these terms best represents this technique?
A)Sterilization
B)Asepsis
C)Disinfection
D)Antisepsis
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background?
A)Bright field
B)Dark field
C)Phase contrast
D)Fluorescence
E)Electron
Answer: A
Q2) The diameter of field for a 4x lens is measured at 4.6 mm. How many bacterial cells,each measuring 4 m,could be lined up along the diameter?
A)1,150 cells
B)1.15 cells
C)18.4 cells
D)115 cells
E)1840 cells
Answer: A
Q3) The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which statement below supports the argument that gram-negative cells are structurally weaker than gram-positive cells?
A)Gram-negative cells have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan in their cell wall compared to gram-positive cells.
B)Gram-positive cells contain teichoic acids,whereas gram-negative cells lack teichoic acids in their cell wall.
C)The envelope of gram-negative cells comprises a hydrophobic outer membrane.
D)Gram-negative cells contain lipopolysaccharides,the lipid component of which acts as an endotoxin.
Answer: A
Q2) The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be ________.
A)material would not be able to cross the cell membrane
B)protein synthesis would stop
C)destruction of the cell's DNA
D)formation of glycogen inclusions
E)loss of the capsule
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery)is most commonly contracted through the
A)fecal-oral route from contaminated food or water
B)direct transmission from one host to another
C)puncture wounds
D)insect bites
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals.These fungi are called
A)saprobes
B)parasites
C)substrates
D)nonseptate
E)dimorphic
Q3) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nuclear envelope is a single layer.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The core of every virus particle always contains ________.
A)DNA
B)capsomeres
C)enzymes
D)DNA and RNA
E)either DNA or RNA
Q2) Lysogeny refers to ________.
A)altering the host range of a virus
B)latent state of herpes infections
C)virion exiting host cell
D)viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
E)None of the choices are correct
Q3) The development of antiviral drug therapy is difficult because ________.
A)viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the host cell can be harmed by the drug
B)viruses do not have specific replication cycles that can be targeted
C)viruses do not contain genetic material
D)their life cycles do not have distinctive stages
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) Archaea,as a group,are not pathogens.This is because ________.
A)they evolved without mammals
B)mammals evolved special defenses against them
C)mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements
D)they are outcompeted by natural flora
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A)Facilitated diffusion
B)Diffusion
C)Endocytosis
D)Osmosis
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) In the viable plate count method,a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated.Each ________ represents one ________ from the sample.
A)cell; cell
B)cell; colony
C)colony; cell
D)species; colony
E)generation; cell
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) Fatty acids can be converted to acetyl-CoA for entering the Krebs cycle by the process of ________.
A)amination
B)deamination
C)phosphorylation
D)beta oxidation
E)gluconeogenesis
Q2) During aerobic cellular respiration,the final electron acceptor is ________.
A)pyruvic acid
B)oxygen
C)nitrate
D)cytochrome c
E)FAD
Q3) Each of the following is true of enzymes except ________.
A)they can be used over and over
B)they may or may not require cofactors
C)their active site is specific to the substrate
D)they increase the initial energy required for a reaction to start
E)All of the choices are true of enzymes
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Full induction of the lactose operon requires ________.
A)lactose present
B)lactose and glucose present
C)lactose present without glucose
D)lactose and arabinose present
E)All of the choices induce the lactose operon
Q2) The gene that codes for a protein capable of repressing an operon is called the ________.
A)operator
B)structural locus
C)regulator
D)promoter
E)terminator
Q3) The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.
A)conjugation
B)transposons
C)transformation
D)transduction
E)transmission
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) All of the following are disadvantages to using compounds containing heavy metals,except ________.
A)they can only be taken in pill form,not applied as a lotion or ointment
B)they may cause allergic reactions in susceptible individuals
C)organisms can develop resistance to the compounds
D)they are not effective against endospores
E)they can be toxic
Q2) Which pair of physical control methods will achieve complete sterilization?
A)Autoclaving and ionizing radiation
B)Ultraviolet radiation and filtration
C)Freezing and filtration
D)Osmotic pressure and incineration
E)Pasteurization and ultraviolet radiation
Q3) Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by ________.
A)blocking its synthesis
B)digesting it
C)inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis
D)All of the choices are correct
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Q1) Semisynthetic penicillins have an advantage over their naturally occurring counterparts in that ________.
A)they have a broader target range and are less susceptible to penicillinases
B)they target both cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosome
C)they can target both bacterial and eukaryotic organisms
D)they cause fewer allergic reactions than naturally occurring penicillins
Q2) Side effects that occur in patient's tissues while on antimicrobial drugs include all the following except ________.
A)development of resistance to the drug
B)hepatotoxicity
C)nephrotoxicity
D)diarrhea
E)deafness
Q3) A superinfection results from ________.
A)buildup of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
B)the wrong drug administered to the patient
C)an immune system reaction to the drug
D)decrease in the microbiota with overgrowth of an unaffected species
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Q1) Which of the following terms most appropriately describes the role of the raccoon in the patient's exposure to infection?
A)Living reservoir
B)Nonliving reservoir
C)Carrier
D)Biological vector
Q2) Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are ________.
A)fomites
B)aerosols
C)mechanical vectors
D)droplet nuclei
E)biological vectors
Q3) An endotoxin is
A)secreted by pathogenic organisms.
B)indicative of gram-negative organisms.
C)indicative of gram-positive organisms.
D)indicative of fungal infections.
E)indicative of viral infections.
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) The ________ system of blood proteins acts to lyse foreign cells and viruses.
A)humoral immunity
B)cell-mediated
C)complement
D)lymphoid
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is ________.
A)lactic acid
B)hydrochloric acid
C)lysozyme
D)histamine
E)bile
Q3) Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation?
A)Start tissue repair
B)Destroy microbes
C)Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site
D)Block further invasion
E)Cause a fever
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Superantigens are ________.
A)body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign
B)cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members
C)bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
D)those that evoke allergic reactions
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Lymphocyte maturation involves ________.
A)hormonal signals that initiate development
B)B cells maturing in bone marrow sites
C)T cells maturing in the thymus
D)release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) During presentation of APC-bound antigen,macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine,________,that activates T helper cells.
A)interferon
B)interleukin-2
C)interleukin-1
D)histamine
E)None of the choices are correct.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time?
A)Degranulation
B)Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue?
A)Skin graft
B)Blood transfusion
C)Organ transplantation
D)Both skin graft and organ transplantation
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)Degranulation
B)Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's urine culture was collected using a clean-catch method.After inoculation and incubation,several organisms were identified in amounts that were reported as normal microbial flora.Which of the following statements by the student nurse indicates proper understanding of the findings?
A)The patient is superinfected and needs immediate antimicrobial treatment.
B)The specimen was contaminated and another clean-catch urine specimen needs to be cultured.
C)The results point to an infection,but due to multiple organisms,further testing needs to be done to isolate the offending microbe.
D)This is a common finding due to contamination of a clean-catch urine sample with normal microbiota from the urogenital area.
Q2) Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents,a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?
A)Malassezia
B)Trichophyton
C)Microsporum
D)Epidermophyton
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Measles is described as a ________ skin lesion.
A)purpura
B)bulla
C)papule
D)macule
E)maculopapular
Q3) The provider orders a specimen to be obtained for microbial analysis.What is the most appropriate site to culture in this case?
A)The lesion itself,since there seems to be a superficial infection.
B)The posterior pharynx,since the tonsils are likely the primary source of infection.
C)The blood,since the infection was probably carried systemically.
D)The urine,since the kidneys are probably removing bacterial casts from the body.
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following diseases should the nurse be most concerned about,considering the patient's presentation?
A)Meningitis
B)Tetanus
C)Polio
D)Typhoid
Q2) Polio virus initially multiplies in the ________.
A)liver
B)CNS
C)oropharynx and intestine
D)nasal mucosa
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A)Most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis
B)Has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis
C)Produces alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide
D)Small gram-positive flattened coccus
E)Responds well to penicillin
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is ________.
A)Salmonella typhimurium
B)Yersinia enterocolitica
C)Bartonella henselae
D)Brucella suis
E)Francisella tularensis
Q2) Since the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems are not directly accessible to microbes ________.
A)it was initially believed that the systems lacked normal biota,however the Human Microbiome Project suggests that low levels of microbes may exist in the healthy state
B)both systems are sterile in the healthy state
C)the abundant microbiota enter via the gastrointestinal tract then cross the blood vessels
D)the Human Microbiome Project confirmed that only pathogens exist in both systems
Q3) Plague is a zoonotic disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of whooping cough?
A)Secondary infections can occur during the convalescent phase
B)Caused by a small gram-positive rod
C)Incubation period is 3-21 days
D)Coldlike symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage
E)An uncontrollable cough occurs during the paroxysmal stage
Q2) Cold viruses are transmitted by ________.
A)droplet contact and indirect contact
B)endogenous
C)direct contact
D)None of the choices are correct.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Symptoms of influenza include ________.
A)nasal discharge,mild fever,and absence of cough
B)fever,diarrhea,and vomiting
C)fever,myalgia,sore throat,cough,and nasal discharge
D)fever,sore throat,rash,and cough
E)fever and pneumonia
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include ________.
A)mucus,acid,and saliva
B)secretory IgA and lysozyme
C)peristalsis
D)GALT
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The most common infectious disease in humans is ________.
A)the common cold
B)dental caries
C)pharyngitis
D)diarrhea
E)gastritis
Q3) Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called ________.
A)hepatitis
B)jaundice
C)liver cancer
D)mononucleosis
E)None of the choices are correct.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) The student states,"My friend had syphilis,but the lesion healed without antibiotics.Do I really need to take medications?" What is the best response by the nurse?
A)The lesion will probably heal independently,but antibiotics will make it heal faster.
B)The lesion will heal on its own,but latent syphilis will cause serious disease later on and must be treated.
C)Syphilis is primarily viral in nature so an antibiotic is used to prevent bacterial infection of the healing lesion.
D)Antibiotics will protect you from contracting other sexually transmitted infections while the lesion is healing.
Q2) The HPV vaccine prevents infection by a single pathogenic strain of HPV. A)True B)False
Q3) The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection. A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is least likely to transmit cholera?
A)Human fecal contamination of drinking water supplies
B)Run-off from large dairy and beef farms into water sources
C)Human fecal contamination of water used to irrigate fruits and vegetable crops
D)Human fecal contamination in water from which shellfish are harvested
Q2) Which of the following has been chemically modified to make it biodegradable?
A)Glass
B)Aluminum foil
C)Styrofoam
D)Laundry detergent
Q3) Which term is used to describe a novel,chemically synthesized compound that does not occur naturally but can be made to be biodegradable?
A)Antibiotic
B)Probiotic
C)Autobiotic
D)Xenobiotic
E)Pseudobiotic
Q4) Biodegradable plastics or plastic substitutes exist today that can be composted.
A)True
B)False
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