Introduction to Microbiology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology is a foundational course that explores the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students will examine microbial physiology, genetics, metabolism, and the essential roles these organisms play in ecosystems, industry, and human health. The course also covers basic laboratory techniques for culturing, identifying, and studying microbes, as well as the mechanisms of microbial disease and host defense. Through lectures and hands-on activities, learners will gain a comprehensive understanding of microbiologys significance in scientific research, medicine, and everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 15th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Today, the enrichment culture technique developed over a century ago by Martinus Beijerinck remains a feasible approach to discovering bacteria capable of degrading pollutants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) When medical devices are left in the body, bacteria may grow on them as ________, which makes them especially resistant to treatment.
A) biofilms
B) liquids
C) populations
D) communities
Answer: D
Q3) All microorganisms require molecular oxygen to carry on life functions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Explain why a eukaryotic cell needs membrane-enclosed lysosomes and peroxisomes.
Answer: The structures both contain high concentrations of enzymes that serve as a localized region to perform specific reactions. Enclosed membranes provide a barrier to maintain conditions within the lysosomes and peroxisomes that are unlike those in the cytoplasm, which is important because environmental conditions for these processes to be optimal are often different than the conditions in the cytoplasm.
Q2) You have discovered a new microorganism and would like to classify it as a eukaryote or a prokaryote. To investigate this question you prepare a slide with a simple stain and view it with a light microscope with a 40X objective lens and 10X ocular lens. You also prepare a control slide using Saccharomyces cerevisiae (a unicellular eukaryote). You can see the cells on your control slide, but you don't see cells when you look at your unknown microorganism. What can you conclude from this experiment?
A) The experiment failed to visualize the organism because the stain killed it.
B) Your new unknown microorganism is probably a virus.
C) The cells of the new unknown microorganism may be too small to see with the objective and ocular lenses you used.
D) The new unknown microorganism is probably an archaeon.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the standpoint of fermentative microorganisms, the crucial product in glycolysis is
A) ATP and regenerated NAD ; the fermentation products are waste products.
B) ethanol or lactate; ATP is a waste product.
C) CO ; ATP is a waste product.
D) not relevant because glycolysis is not a major pathway.
Answer: A
Q2) Which metabolic cycle or pathway is LEAST likely to be invoked during the biosynthesis of DNA?
A) citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) gluconeogenesis
D) pentose phosphate pathway
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a common energy storage polymer in microorganisms?
A) acetyl~S-CoA
B) glycogen
C) adenosine triphosphate
D) H
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Molecular Information Flow and Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the reaction between the appropriate amino acid and ATP to form an activated amino acid: amino acid + ATP aminoacyl-AMP + P-P.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transcription of chaperones is greatly accelerated when a cell is stressed by A) excessive osmotic pressure.
B) extremes in pH value.
C) lack of oxygen.
D) excessive heat.
Q3) Explain the difference between an intrinsic terminator and a Rho-dependent termination site.
Q4) Throughout the living world, the genetic code is generally universal; however, there are slight variations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the basic flow of genetic information in all cellular life? Include in your answer a diagram that illustrates the relationships between the basic components and steps in the flow of genetic information.
6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Its Control
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Q1) The lag phase does NOT occur if an exponentially growing culture is transferred into a nutrient rich medium with the same components and growth conditions as the previous medium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When attempting to determine viable cell counts of a heat-sensitive bacterial isolate, which cell counting method should be avoided?
A) spread-plate method
B) pour-plate method
C) live staining and direct counting with a microscope
D) both spread- and pour-plate methods
Q3) Microbial contamination is prevented by the
A) use of the quadrant streak method.
B) use of aseptic technique.
C) use of cultures containing special nutrients.
D) spread plate method.
Q4) Explain the present understanding of molecular adaptations to the cytoplasmic membrane as found in psychrophiles.
Q5) Explain why a hyperthermophile is unlikely to be a human pathogen.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Regulatory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between constitutive and inducible genes. Based on your knowledge of bacterial cells, give an example of each.
Q2) All of the following are functions of heat shock proteins in bacteria EXCEPT
A) prevention of inappropriate protein subunit aggregation.
B) degradation of denatured proteins.
C) responding to exposure to high levels of ethanol.
D) stimulation of binary fission.
Q3) Attenuation is a type of regulation that can control A) allosteric enzyme activity.
B) transcriptional activity exclusively.
C) translational activity exclusively.
D) both transcriptional and translational activity.
Q4) A cocktail of 30 compounds was identified to harbor a corepressor, and subsequent separation and purification was performed to test individual compounds. Describe an experiment that would enable you to identify the specific compound that acts as a corepressor for a catabolic pathway. Be certain to explain what will be measured and how you could conclude which compound is a corepressor.
Q5) Contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic regulation of gene expression.
Q6) How is transcription in Archaea controlled?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Molecular Biology of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once replication of the chromosome has begun, DnaA is inactivated
A) as a result of being blocked from oriC binding.
B) by increased expression of FtsZ.
C) as a result of increased binding to ATP.
D) by increased binding of DnaA-ATP to oriC.
Q2) Hemimethylated DNA is found on
A) the newly synthesized strand of DNA immediately after replication.
B) the parental strand of DNA immediately after replication.
C) both strands of dsDNA immediately after replication.
D) neither strand of DNA immediately after replication.
Q3) The activity of MinC and MinD direct whether a bacterial cell will be coccoid or bacillus shaped.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are targets of currently used antibiotics EXCEPT
A) DNA synthesis.
B) biofilm formation.
C) transcription.
D) translation.
Q5) Describe the functions of the FtsZ protein and the Z-ring in bacterial cells.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Their Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concentration of infectious plaque forming units (pfu) per volume of fluid is known as the
A) infectivity.
B) virulence.
C) titer.
D) fluid infectivity.
Q2) Explain the potential advantages of lysogeny versus lysis for a temperate virus.
Q3) Virus assembly requires host cell mediated reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although bacteria lack an immune system, they do possess several weapons against viral attack. Explain the mechanisms utilized by bacteria to prevent viral infection.
Q5) Penetration requires that the entire virus is inserted within the host.
A)True
B)False
Q6) RNA viruses encode host restriction systems designed to destroy host DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain why viruses are not considered to be living entities.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codon usage varies from one organism to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Based on the table of average intron frequency given below, predict the relative order of genome size for these four eukaryotic organisms. \(\begin{array}{lc}
\text { Organism } & \text { Average Intron Frequency } \\
\hline \text { Cryptosporidium parvum } & 0 \\
\text { Plasmodium falciparum } & 1 \\
\text { Arabidopsis thaliana } & 5 \\
\text { Homo sapiens } & 8
\end{array}\)
A) Homo sapiens > Arabidopsis thaliana > Plasmodium falciparum > Cryptosporidium parvum
B) Cryptosporidium parvum > Plasmodium falciparum > Arabidopsis thaliana > Homo sapiens
C) Homo sapiens > Cryptosporidium parvum > Plasmodium falciparum > Arabidopsis thaliana
D) Intron frequency cannot be used to predict genome size in eukaryotes.
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Chapter 10: Viral Genomics, Diversity, and Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Integration of Mu DNA into the host genome is essential for A) lytic growth.
B) lysogenic growth.
C) both lytic and lysogenic growth.
D) neither lytic nor lysogenic growth.
Q2) Viruses that infect the hyperthermophilic Archaea tend to contain genomes that are composed of
A) ssDNA.
B) dsDNA.
C) ssRNA.
D) dsRNA.
Q3) Despite viruses require a living host s metabolism to replicate, it remains unclear whether viruses existed before living cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order to replicate its genome, a positive-strand RNA virus must produce a complete negative-strand RNA molecule that serves as the template for protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following experiment. First, large populations of two mutant strains of Escherichia coli are mixed, each requiring a different, single amino acid. After plating them onto a minimal medium, 45 colonies grew. Which of the following may explain this result?
A) The colonies may be due to back mutation (reversion).
B) The colonies may be due to recombination.
C) Either A or B is possible.
D) Neither A nor B is possible.
Q2) Laboratory-based genetic systems have been difficult to develop for Archaea, because they do NOT naturally undergo conjugation or transduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genetic recombination involving insertion sequences typically results in what type of mutation?
A) base-pair substitution mutation
B) silent mutation
C) frameshift mutation
D) base-pair deletion mutation
Q4) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Synthetic Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One fundamental technique of genetic engineering includes the ability to cut DNA into random fragments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regardless of the DNA polymerase used in PCR, such as Taq or Pfu, they all have an inherent inability to perfectly copy the template strand, which means the polymerases themselves occasionally make mutations in the sequences they copy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is possible to rapidly screen for mutations in regulatory genes using A) gene fusions.
B) defective proteases.
C) microinjection.
D) Southern blotting.
Q4) High expression levels of a eukaryotic gene in a bacterium such as Escherichia coli cannot be accomplished due to the presence of introns.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the steps of gene cloning using a vector.
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Chapter 13: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called its ________ and it is inferred from ________.
A) taxonomy / phenotype
B) phylogeny / nucleotide sequence data
C) phylogeny / phenotype
D) taxonomy / morphology
Q2) A key concept in evolution is that all mutations are
A) random.
B) neutral.
C) deleterious.
D) either deleterious or beneficial.
Q3) It is believed that phototrophy arose approximately 3.3 billion years ago in A) Bacteria.
B) Archaea.
C) Eukarya.
D) LUCA.
Q4) Microbial species are difficult to define because they are seldom monophyletic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the hydrogen hypothesis and why it is favored over other hypotheses.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Q1) The conversion of light into chemical energy is called photoautotrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Propose why it would be advantageous for a photosynthetic microorganism to have more than one type of chlorophyll or bacteriochlorophyll.
Q3) Carotenoids are hydrophobic accessory pigments and vary widely in the color they can absorb.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some sulfur-oxidizing bacteria can simultaneously reduce nitrate, which enables them to grow anaerobically.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Special pair is the name given to the ________ in the photochemical complex of the purple bacteria.
A) two bacteriochlorophyll a molecules
B) two bacteriochlorophyll b molecules
C) two quinones
D) two reaction centers
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Chapter 15: Functional Diversity of Microorganisms
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Q1) Aside from using light as a source of energy, another important part of the functional diversity of some bacterial phototrophs is their ability to A) bioluminesce.
B) form prosthecate and stalked cells.
C) fix nitrogen gas.
D) degrade neurotoxins.
Q2) Diazotrophs maximize nitrogenase activity by
A) closely coupling N fixation with high rates of photosynthesis.
B) fixing N at times when oxygen is absent or in low concentrations.
C) producing specialized structures to protect nitrogenase from oxygen.
D) producing specialized structures or fixing N at times when oxygen is absent to protect nitrogenase from oxygen.
Q3) The only group of oxygenic phototrophic bacteria are the A) green nonsulfur bacteria.
B) Chloroflexi.
C) Cyanobacteria.
D) Chlorobi.
Q4) How do Cyanobacteria impact the ecology of both aquatic and terrestrial environments on Earth?
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) The most metabolically diverse phylum of Bacteria known to date is the Proteobacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Snapping division is a hallmark trait of ________ which can be visualized under a microscope by ________.
A) Actinobacteria / two adjacent cells linked, appearing as an M dividing into four
B) Actinobacteria / one cell appearing as a V dividing into two
C) Coryneform bacteria / two adjacent cells linked, appearing as an M dividing into four
D) Coryneform bacteria / one cell appearing as a V dividing into two
Q3) Isolating a bacterium of the ________ class would be of high impact due to it only having one cultured representative.
A) Alphaproteobacteria
B) Betaproteobacteria
C) Epsilonproteobacteria
D) Zetaproteobacteria
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Archaea
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Q1) In chemolithotrophic Archaea, H is a common electron donor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sulfolobus can only grow chemoorganotrophically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Proteins known as ________ function to refold partially denatured proteins.
A) histones
B) chaperonins
C) HU proteins
D) histones and chaperonins
Q4) Which statement is TRUE of methanogenic and extremely halophilic Archaea?
A) The methanogens are obligate aerobes; the extreme halophiles are obligate anaerobes.
B) The methanogens are obligate anaerobes; the extreme halophiles are mostly obligate aerobes.
C) Both the methanogens and the extreme halophiles are obligate aerobes.
D) Both the methanogens and the extreme halophiles are obligate anaerobes.
Q5) Where is the thermosome found, and what is its apparent role?
Q6) Detail the mechanism by which halophilic Archaea obtain energy from light.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Diversity of Microbial Eukarya
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Q1) Silica is a characteristic component of diatom and oomycete cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA but use the ribosomes of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many parabasalids lack ________, which makes them different than most other eukaryotes.
A) endoplasmic reticula
B) introns in their genomes
C) mitochondria and hydrogenosomes
D) Golgi complexes
Q4) The DNA in chloroplasts and mitochondria of eukaryotic cells is derived from Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss three findings that support the theory of primary endosymbiosis.
Q6) Compare and contrast the life cycles of the cellular and the acellular slime molds.
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Chapter 19: Taking the Measure of Microbial Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning enrichment bias?
A) Dilution of the inoculum may help to avoid enrichment bias in some cases.
B) Enrichment bias is impossible to overcome in some oligotrophic environments.
C) Enrichment bias resulted in the underestimation of prokaryotic diversity.
D) Enrichment bias favors organisms that grow quickly.
Q2) Thirty organisms containing the same phylogenetic marker, with identical or similar orthologous genes, are all considered to be within the same A) phylotype.
B) species.
C) functional group.
D) phylogenetic tree.
Q3) The science of microbial ecology deals with
A) how microbial communities interact with each other and their environment.
B) microbial activity and biodiversity.
C) microbial gene regulation mechanisms in response to environmental change.
D) how the activity and biodiversity of microbial communities affect microbial interactions with each other and the environment.
Q4) Propose a set of procedures or steps to sequence an individual cell s genome present in lake water.
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Chapter 20: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) The primary metal sulfides emitted from the black smokers are ________ sulfides.
A) copper
B) iron
C) magnesium
D) zinc
Q2) Purple phototrophic bacteria that use bacteriochlorophyll a are oxygenic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the soil, oxygen concentrations are highly variable even within a soil particle. The center of the particle may be anoxic even if the outer portions are oxygen rich. In this context, facultative anaerobes could be found
A) at the surface of the particle.
B) in the center of the particle.
C) in the middle regions of the particle.
D) throughout the particle.
Q4) Mineral soils largely come from weathered limestone and sand.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Provide a reason for the ecological importance of pelagic Bacteria and Archaea.
Page 22
Q6) Explain why biofilms are a concern in medicine.
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Chapter 21: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Why is the water solubility of different nitrogen species of importance to agriculturalists? What processes in the nitrogen cycle are LEAST beneficial to agricultural production of crops?
Q2) Ocean acidification decreases the precipitation of calcium carbonate and thus will probably affect the cycling of Ca and other nutrients in the ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is a term used to describe dead organic matter.
A) Humus
B) Loam
C) Pyrite
D) Xenocompost
Q4) Increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide is
A) increasing sedimentation of C, Ca, and Si.
B) increasing the effect of the biological pump.
C) fueling increased primary production in ocean waters.
D) acidifying the ocean and decreasing the rate of formation of calcareous shells.
Q5) What are the similarities and differences between the Fe cycle and Ca cycle?
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Chapter 22: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Which treatment method(s) are used in primary wastewater treatment?
A) biological
B) chemical
C) physical separation
D) biological, chemical, and physical separation
Q2) During secondary aerobic wastewater treatment, some of the activated sludge goes ________ while the rest goes ________.
A) back to the aerator / to the anoxic sludge digester
B) back to the primary system / to the aerator
C) to the anoxic digester / back to the primary system
D) back to the primary system / to the tertiary digester
Q3) Aerobic secondary treatment is usually best for ________ wastewater.
A) industrial
B) agricultural
C) residential
D) chemical
Q4) Secondary treatment may be aerobic or anoxic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe floc formation in the activated sludge process.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) Which of the following is a common benefit of a microbe-plant symbiosis?
A) increased nutrient availability only
B) decreased pathogen colonization only
C) increased affinity for carbon dioxide
D) increased nutrient availability and decreased pathogen colonization
Q2) Fibrobacteres comprise the greatest proportion of the bacterial species in ruminant guts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the primary difference between a bacteroid a bacterial cell?
A) There are genetic differences that can be detected using 16S rRNA gene sequencing.
B) They are biochemically very different from bacterial cells.
C) Their cell morphology is different from bacterial morphology.
D) They have genetic differences that can be detected using DNA sequencing.
Q4) Plant diversity is generally lower in environments where mycorrhizae are associated with plants due to strong coevolution, which leads to competitive exclusion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Microbial Symbioses with Humans
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Q1) ________ dominate the infant gut microbiota.
A) Candida
B) Actinobacteria
C) Firmicutes
D) Corynebacteria
Q2) Methanogenic Archaea are more common in obese humans compared with thin humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The host-microbiome supraorganism refers to
A) the human body and all of the microbes found within it, but not those on the external surfaces.
B) a nonhuman animal and all of the microbes found within it, but not those on the external surfaces.
C) a human body and all of its commensal microbes.
D) a body and all of its associated microbes.
Q4) The upper respiratory tract usually has a considerable amount of resident microflora in a healthy adult.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
Q5) Explain how prebiotics and probiotics may be useful in preventing acne.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following hemolysins is a phospholipase?
A) lecithinase
B) streptolysin-O
C) Staphylococcal -toxin
D) leukocidin
Q2) It is thought that attenuation occurs especially in a laboratory setting because
A) nonvirulent or weakly virulent mutants grow faster in laboratory media when there is no selective advantage to virulence.
B) pathogens lose virulence with age and survive longer in laboratory cultures.
C) patients can be treated with drugs that induce attenuation.
D) there is selection for more virulent strains in the laboratory.
Q3) Influenza virus targets
A) respiratory epithelium.
B) gastrointestinal cells.
C) oral cavity cells.
D) throat epithelium.
Q4) HIV infection causes immunosuppression because it causes the destruction of CD4 lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Innate Immunity: Broadly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is called A) immune memory.
B) specificity.
C) tolerance.
D) immune memory, specificity, or tolerance.
Q2) An example of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMP) is A) cell-surface proteins.
B) flagellin proteins.
C) lipopolysaccharide (LPS).
D) pilus.
Q3) Briefly describe classical complement activation and cell damage.
Q4) Why do individuals with genetic defects that prevent neutrophil or macrophage development usually die at an early age? Be specific and detailed in your answer to demonstrate your knowledge on the role of these cells in the immune system.
Q5) Pattern recognition receptors are most directly used
A) by granulocytes to trigger degranulation.
B) by neutrophils to detect self tissues.
C) by phagocytes to detect pathogens.
D) by B cells to produce antibodies.
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Chapter 27: Adaptive Immunity: Highly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following is involved in B cell selection and tolerance?
A) clonal anergy
B) clonal deletion
C) clonal anergy and deletion
D) allelic exclusion
Q2) The antigen that induces an antibody or TCR is called the
A) homologous antigen.
B) heterologous antigen.
C) cross-reactive antigen.
D) immunogenic antigen.
Q3) Each immunoglobulin or TCR interacts with a single antigen, but MHC proteins can interact with more than one antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What role does the C domain play in cell surface proteins that interact directly with antigens?
Q5) Somatic hypermutation mechanisms generate TCR diversity.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
Q6) Briefly describe how B cells are activated.
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Q1) The basis for blood typing is referred to as
A) neutralization.
B) hemagglutination.
C) immunodiffusion.
D) precipitation.
Q2) Salmonella is commonly associated with wound infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of special culture media and incubation conditions to isolate microorganisms from samples is known as a(n)
A) differential culture.
B) selective culture.
C) enrichment culture.
D) sensitive culture.
Q4) The causal agents of urinary tract diseases are often members of the normal flora. A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss antimicrobial susceptibility testing and the use of minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) values.
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Chapter 29: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An endemic disease is constantly present, usually at low incidence, in a population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of herd immunity?
A) Brucellosis is no longer found in farm animals in the United States.
B) If 70% of the population is immunized against polio, the disease will be essentially absent from the population.
C) Federal law requires that all cattle not immune to anthrax be destroyed.
D) All farm animals used for food must be immunized against all the common agents of disease that infect humans.
Q3) Which of the following emergence factors has contributed to the HIV/AIDS epidemic?
A) climate change
B) rapid pathogen adaptation and change
C) increasing travel to endemic areas
D) exotic pet and meat trade
Q4) A disease that is constantly present in low numbers is called an acute disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Person-to-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via the A) oral route.
B) parenteral route.
C) dermal route.
D) ophthalmic route.
Q2) Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, an enzyme that results in the accumulation of fibrin around the bacterial cells.
A) coagulase
B) collagenase
C) lipase
D) M protein
Q3) Chickenpox, caused by a herpes virus, results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the pathology, diagnosis, and treatment of gastric ulcers caused by Helicobacter pylori.
Q5) More than one type of influenza virus can infect a given cell at a given time.
A)True
B)False
33
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Chapter 31: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Murine toxin is a ________ that is a respiratory inhibitor and lethal to mice.
A) Yersinia pestis endotoxin
B) Rickettsia prowazekii endotoxin
C) Yersinia pestis exotoxin
D) Rickettsia prowazekii exotoxin
Q2) Animal diseases transmissible to humans are known as A) vectors.
B) zoonoses.
C) ferals.
D) radicals.
Q3) The most severe and fatal form of anthrax is A) cutaneous anthrax.
B) inhalation anthrax.
C) intestinal anthrax.
D) zoonotic anthrax.
Q4) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever can be
A) prevented using vaccination.
B) spread by lice.
C) diagnosed by culturing in the laboratory without a host animal.
D) treated effectively with tetracycline or chloramphenicol.
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Chapter 32: Waterborne and Foodborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-negative bacteria are responsible for causing over 60% of foodborne illness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how the membrane filter (MF) procedure is used.
Q3) The principle behind salt or sugar preservation is to
A) introduce a mechanical barrier to microbial invasion.
B) reduce water activity (aw).
C) introduce a microbicide in anticipation of contaminating bacteria or fungi.
D) accomplish all of the described functions depending on the food being preserved.
Q4) Cholera can be transmitted by water or food.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which U.S. government agency monitors water utility reports?
A) Environmental Protection Agency
B) Food and Drug Administration
C) Water Safety Board
D) Natural Resources Conservancy Commission
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Q6) Why are enteric bacteria such as Escherichia coli common meat contaminants?
Chapter 33: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungi, Protozoans, and Helminths
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Q1) The most effective malarial control measure is to interrupt the life cycle of the parasite by eliminating the obligate host, the Anopheles mosquito.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which approach is most effective for controlling malaria?
A) vaccination with DNA vaccines
B) vaccination with recombinant particle vaccines
C) taking measures to reduce tick populations, such as cutting tall grass
D) taking measures to reduce mosquito populations, such as draining swamps
Q3) Meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria fowlerii is always fatal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Roughly half of all adults in the United States are infected with ________ but are asymptomatic.
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Trichomoniasis vaginalis
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) Cyclospora cayetanensis
Page 36
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