Introduction to Microbiology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides a foundational understanding of the microbial world, exploring the diversity, structure, function, and importance of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course covers essential topics including microbial physiology, genetics, metabolism, ecology, and the roles microorganisms play in health, disease, and the environment. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will gain practical skills in culturing, identifying, and analyzing microbes, as well as an appreciation for their significance in biotechnology, medicine, and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) What would John Tyndall have needed to use to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation with his experiments?
A) a swan-neck flask
B) a microscope
C) an autoclave
D) organic media
Answer: C
Q2) Why does traditional microbial growth media only allow for the growth of 0.1% of all microorganisms in pure culture in the laboratory?
Answer: Traditional microbial growth media contains nutrients that are used to feed humans.While some microorganisms can flourish in these conditions,many are much more diverse and cannot grow on these nutrients or will be outcompeted by those organisms that can.
Q3) Which key characteristic differentiates a prokaryote from a eukaryote?
A) the absence of proteins
B) the presence of DNA
C) the absence of membrane-bound organelles
D) the presence of a cell wall
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) What is the difference between an emerging and a reemerging disease?
A) Emerging diseases are of viral origin,and reemerging diseases are bacterial.
B) Emerging diseases are ones for which vaccines exist;reemerging diseases lack vaccines.
C) Emerging diseases are new to humans;reemerging are known but are rapidly increasing in incidence and/or geographic range.
D) Emerging diseases evolve within humans,but reemerging diseases are of zoonotic origin.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a urogenital route?
A) using fresh needles,that is,not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) wearing a mask that covers the nose and mouth
D) washing hands before eating
Answer: B
Q3) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of
Answer: immunopathology
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) Which microscope technique is best used for visualizing the surface structures of cells and viruses?
A) phase-contrast
B) bright-field
C) scanning electron
D) darkfield
Answer: C
Q2) Which microscope best allows the observation of internal cell structures in a natural state?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) electron microscope
Answer: B
Q3) Electron microscopy uses beams of ________ to generate high-resolution images. Answer: electrons
Q4) Refraction occurs by the ________ of light and is the key property enabling a lens to magnify an image.
Answer: bending
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) What are some structural differences between cellular DNA and RNA?
Q2) What does amphipathic mean?
Q3) DNA is synthesized by enzymes that use which of the following as substrates?
A) NTPs
B) dNTPs
C) NDPs
D) dNDPs
Q4) In a reaction where substrates A and B combine to form products C and D (A+B yields C+D),which of the following could drive the reaction to the right toward products?
A) decreasing the concentration of A
B) decreasing the concentration of B
C) increasing the concentration of C
D) decreasing the concentration of D
Q5) Polysaccharides are a polymer of what kind of monomer?
A) amino acids
B) deoxyribonucleotides
C) lipids
D) sugars
Q6) Describe the difference between ionic and hydrogen bonds.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids?
A) They reinforce the cell wall.
B) They may help pathogens attach to host cells.
C) They are recognized by the host immune system.
D) They repel the Gram stain.
Q2) In Gram-negative bacteria the cell membrane separates the
A) periplasm from the external environment.
B) cytoplasm from the external environment.
C) cytoplasm from the nucleoid.
D) DNA from the RNA.
Q3) Which of the following is true of growing bacteria?
A) DNA synthesis occurs continuously.
B) DNA synthesis occurs during a defined period.
C) They suspend flagella rotation to put energy toward DNA replication.
D) DNA synthesis cannot occur at the same time as transcription.
Q4) Pili and stalks enable bacterial
A) adherence.
B) chemotaxis.
C) photosynthesis.
D) symport.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Explain what effect the loss of heterotrophs would have on the carbon cycle and the world.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT involved in biofilm formation or function?
A) rorespore engulfment
B) quorum sensing
C) exopolysaccharide formation
D) antibiotic resistance
Q3) Which of the following could describe the relationship between the cyanobacterium Nostoc and E.coli related to the carbon cycle?
A) Nostoc produces carbohydrates from lithotrophy,and E.coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO .
B) Nostoc produces carbohydrates from phototrophy,and E.coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO .
C) Nostoc produces CO that E.coli turns into carbohydrates.
D) E.coli produces carbohydrates that Nostoc uses as energy to produce more carbohydrates.
Q4) Explain how many microorganisms are able to grow at pH levels outside the functional pH range of their enzymes.
Q5) Explain why extremophiles are not a pathogenic threat to humans.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Q2) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
Q3) Which of the following is a benefit to humans of the Calvin cycle?
A) It releases oxygen into the atmosphere,which humans require for aerobic respiration.
B) It creates biomass,which is the basis for food chains.
C) It synthesizes antibiotics that can help combat emerging pathogens.
D) It reduces nitrogen,eliminating the need for expensive fertilizers.
Q4) During photosynthesis,ATP is produced via
A) oxidation of glucose.
B) transfer of a phosphate from NADPH onto ADP.
C) ATP synthase powered by a pmf.
D) ATP synthase powered directly by light.
Q5) Which of the following is true of nitrogen fixation?
A) It requires ATP but not reducing agents.
B) It requires reducing agents but not ATP.
C) It is an important reaction carried out by organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Only prokaryotes have the metabolic capability to fix nitrogen.
Q6) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway?
A) base excision repair
B) methyl mismatch repair
C) recombination
D) SOS repair
Q2) In a two-component signal transduction system the response regulator activity is altered via phosphorylation.This is an example of
A) changing the DNA sequence.
B) transcription control.
C) translation control.
D) posttranslational control.
Q3) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
Q4) An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a ________.
Q5) What enzyme is used to produce cDNA?
A) DNA polymerase III
B) DNA ligase
C) RNA polymerase
D) reverse transcriptase
Q6) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Genes for transfer RNA can be predicted through A) amino acid sequence similarity.
B) protein function prediction.
C) gene function prediction.
D) conservation over vast phylogenetic distances.
Q2) What is the best option for characterizing a completely unknown organism?
A) DNA sequencing
B) dichotomous key
C) probabilistic indicator
D) phylogenetic tree construction
Q3) Which is NOT a useful way to identify a microorganism?
A) sequencing its genome
B) phenotypic trait analysis
C) microscopic observation alone
D) phylogenetic analysis
Q4) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life.
Q5) For each domain of life,list three characteristics that distinguish it from the other two domains.
Q6) The enzyme ________ is important for generalized recombination.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which one of the following diseases is NOT caused by Actinobacteria?
A) tuberculosis
B) leprosy
C) diphtheria
D) botulism
Q2) Spirochete cells are unique because they possess
A) periplasmic flagella.
B) multiple nuclei.
C) a thick outer sheath of lipopolysaccharides.
D) two distinctive life stages.
Q3) A long,tight,spiral-shaped bacteria is found in the gut of termites.This bacteria is most likely a(n)
A) enterobacteria and a pathogen.
B) chlamydia and an intracellular parasite.
C) spirochete and a symbiont.
D) cyanobacteria and a pathogen.
Q4) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
Q5) The major group of bacteria that causes sexually transmitted infections and the eye disease trachoma and are obligate intracellular pathogens is ________.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the
A) production of bread.
B) production of beer.
C) decomposition of wood.
D) decomposition of animal bodies.
Q2) Describe how the parasites that cause malaria are able to evade an immune response during an infection.
Q3) What is the function of the apical complex on a merozoite form of Plasmodium falciparum?
A) The apical complex is used for aerobic cellular respiration.
B) The apical complex is used to allow a merozoite to enter a red blood cell.
C) The apical complex is used to allow asexual reproduction.
D) The apical complex is used to provide energy for flagella.
Q4) Isolda travels from her home in Texas to Mexico to visit extended family.During her trip she becomes ill with amebic dysentery after drinking contaminated water.Contrast the form of ameba cell she most likely ingested with the form of ameba cell found within her intestine.
Q5) What distinguishing characteristic places helminths and arthropods under the category of "eukaryotic microbiology" and outside of the category of "true" microbes?
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) A small subset of the human population does not express the CD4 and CCR5 receptors.To what virus are these individuals naturally immune?
A) HIV
B) HPV
C) influenza
D) hepatitis
Q2) ________ ensures the presence and expression of host surface proteins capable of being bound to by viruses.
A) Transduction
B) Natural selection
C) Lysogeny
D) Lysis
Q3) Influenza contains a ________ genome.
Q4) Where are HPV virions assembled?
A) in the nucleus
B) in the cytoplasm
C) in the ribosome
D) outside the cell
Q5) An infectious particle with an RNA genome and no capsid is known as a ________.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a purpose of low temperatures in microbiology?
A) inhibit microbial growth
B) stop microbial metabolism
C) kill microorganisms
D) preserve microorganisms
Q2) A drug is classified as bactericidal if its minimum bactericidal concentration is no more than ________ its minimum inhibitory concentration.
Q3) Fungal cells grown in the presence of fluconazole have
A) impaired cell division.
B) mutations in DNA.
C) defective cell walls.
D) defective cell membranes.
Q4) Standard conditions for sterilization by ________ are 121°C and 15 psi for 20 minutes.
A) autoclaving
B) pasteurization
C) tyndallization
D) lyophilization
Q5) Penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis to inhibit ________.
Q6) ________ is a category of antifungal agents that inhibits DNA synthesis.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which of the following changes in human behavior has NOT altered the composition of the microbiota?
A) decreased antibiotic usage
B) increased cesarean deliveries
C) living in smaller families
D) use of antibacterial soaps
Q2) A nonmotile Gram-negative organism has breached a tight junction barrier.How will this organism be detected and what will happen immediately inside the host to protect it from infection?
Q3) How has the development of clean water NEGATIVELY affected modern civilization?
A) reduced fecal transmission of bacteria resulting in missing microbiota
B) altered immunological environment
C) increased transmission of hormone-activating compounds
D) decreased amounts of important trace minerals
Q4) ________ is the preferred carbon source for epithelial cells.
A) Glucose
B) L-DOPA
C) Norepinephrine
D) Butyrate
Q5) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Draw and label the process of phagocytosis.Be sure to speak to the main steps in the pathway (adherence,ingestion,and phagolysome formation/destruction).What would happen if an organism was able to avoid phagocytosis?
Q2) Peyer's patches are located within gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).Explain the function of Peyer's patches in regard to their function in the immune system.
Q3) Bacterial cells may be phagocytized and processed for presentation by A) erythrocytes.
B) macrophages.
C) T cells.
D) mast cells.
Q4) The complement cascade produces all of the following outcomes EXCEPT A) creating pores in bacterial membranes.
B) increasing phagocytosis.
C) attracting white blood cells.
D) decreasing inflammation.
Q5) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocyte:
a.Shigella dysenteriae
b.Salmonella typhimurium
c.Listeria monocytogenes
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) One health risk associated with excessive cytokine release is the chance of A) severe tissue damage.
B) cytokines destroying antibodies.
C) damage to virally infected cells.
D) inactivating mitosis.
Q2) Explain how humans are able to produce millions of different antibodies when there are only about 1,000 genes or gene segments involved in antibody formation.
Q3) Rebecca developed measles as a young child.As a teenager,she is reexposed to the measles virus during an outbreak at her high school.Explain the immune response that will most likely prevent Rebecca from experiencing any signs or symptoms of measles.
Q4) A microbe is ingested and broken into fragments by an antigen-presenting cell (APC).Which of the following would you expect to occur?
A) B cells will bind to antigens on the surface of the APC.
B) B cells will release cytokines to activate T cells.
C) Plasma cells will release cytokines to activate the APC.
D) T cells will bind to antigens on the surface of the APC.
Q5) Describe the process of affinity maturation.
Q6) Describe how infection by a virus such as hepatitis B causes tissue damage.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Graves' disease and Hashimoto's disease are different in the fact that Graves' disease
A) targets the thyroid.
B) involves autoantibodies.
C) causes hyperthyroidism.
D) causes hypothyroidism.
Q2) All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases EXCEPT A) lupus.
B) Lyme disease.
C) Graves' disease.
D) type-1 diabetes.
Q3) All of the following are consequences of bare lymphocyte syndrome (MHC II deficiency)EXCEPT
A) the MHC II molecule is expressed on APCs.
B) T cells will not form into T<sub>H</sub>1,T<sub>H</sub>2,or other types of helper T cells.
C) cytotoxic T cells cannot be activated.
D) B cells do not isotype switch.
Q4) Draw and label the key mediators of a type 1 hypersensitivity.Be sure to indicate where medical intervention can take place.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Antigenic drift occurs when
A) two viruses infect the same cell.
B) a new viral strain is produced.
C) random mutations occur in the neuraminidase spike.
D) random mutations occur in the hemagglutinin spike.
Q2) Organized,high-density communities of cells that embed themselves in self-made exopolymer matrices are called ________.
Q3) Type I pili are different from type IV pili in that type I pili
A) are static structures.
B) are thin and flexible.
C) allow for twitching motility.
D) are dynamic.
Q4) Alpha toxin secreted by Staphylococcus aureus is a A) hyaluronidase.
B) leucocidin.
C) kinase.
D) hemolysin.
Q5) Explain the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.How might antigenic shift relate to the generation of a new flu pandemic?
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat.Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother,who had shingles.What infection does the eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) rubella
D) fever blisters
Q2) Why is vaccination for rubella recommended?
A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children.
B) Death from secondary infections is common.
C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections.
D) It is no longer recommended;rubella has been eradicated.
Q3) Which of the following lists the layers of the skin in the correct order from deepest to superficial?
A) stratum basale,stratum spinosum,stratum granulosum,stratum corneum
B) stratum corneum,stratum granulosum,stratum spinosum,stratum basale
C) stratum granulosum,stratum corneum,stratum basale,stratum spinosum
D) stratum spinosum,stratum basale,stratum corneum,stratum granulosum
Q4) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
Q5) A sight-threatening inflammation of the cornea is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus and influenza are responsible for the majority of cases of A) bacterial pneumonia.
B) viral pneumonia.
C) sinusitis.
D) kidney failure.
Q2) A young boy with a sore throat,cervical lymphadenopathy,and a low-grade fever is seen by his physician.Upon examination,his physician notes a thick,grayish membrane that bleeds when scraped covering the boy's tonsils and soft palate.A bacterial culture will most likely reveal the presence of
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Moraxella catarrhalis.
D) Bordetella pertussis.
Q3) The Eustachian tubes connect the upper respiratory tract to the A) sinuses.
B) middle ears.
C) inner ears.
D) eyes.
Q4) Coccidioidomycosis is endemic in the ________ United States.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) The herpes virus that initially infects the oropharyngeal epithelium,tonsils,and salivary glands,and is associated with endemic Burkitt's lymphoma,is known as ________.
Q2) Acute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by
A) Streptococcus mutans.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
Q3) The blood vessels returning oxygenated blood to the heart are the ________.
Q4) The rapidly dividing protozoan cells that circulate throughout the body during a toxoplasmosis infection are called A) promastigotes.
B) tachyzoites.
C) bradyzoites.
D) asmastigotes.
Q5) Two major systemic bacterial diseases associated with septicemia are A) vibriosis and Lyme disease.
B) typhoid fever and salmonellosis.
C) tularemia and leptospirosis.
D) brucellosis and epidemic typhus.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Karen is suffering from a gastrointestinal illness caused by a Gram-negative bacterium without flagella.Which of the following conditions could Karen have?
A) salmonellosis
B) shigellosis
C) hemolytic uremia syndrome
D) peptic ulcers
Q2) What is chyme?
A) the wavelike motion of intestinal muscles
B) semisolid waste
C) food broken down by muscle contraction and gastric juices
D) the interior stomach lining
Q3) Which part of the human digestive tract cannot be colonized by microorganisms?
A) mouth
B) All parts of the digestive tract can be colonized.
C) liver
D) small intestine
Q4) How would you distinguish between gingivitis,periodontal disease,and trench mouth?
Q5) During digestion,pepsin is secreted by ________.
Q6) Giardiasis is caused by the ________ Giardia intestinalis.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Sperm are produced in the testes and mature inside the male in a process known as
Q2) Someone is said to have a primary HSV infection when the
A) patient does not have detectable antibodies but a positive PCR test.
B) infection settles into the nerve root.
C) latent virus is reactivated.
D) virus is activated by stress or UV exposure.
Q3) Which of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
A) It is transmitted by direct contact.
B) It is caused by papillomaviruses.
C) It is always precancerous.
D) It is treated by removing them.
Q4) Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
A) gonorrhea
B) genital herpes
C) syphilis
D) trichomoniasis
Q5) Primary syphilis is an inflammatory reaction at the site of infection called a ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) The part of the nervous system that collects data from the environment is the A) meninges.
B) central nervous system.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) peripheral nervous system.
Q2) Which of the following is true about Candida albicans?
A) Normal flora helps this organism to cause disease.
B) It commonly causes disease in immunocompetent individuals.
C) Treatment includes amphotericin B and flucytosine.
D) Candida meningitis is seen more commonly in teenagers.
Q3) The ________ collects data from the outside environment and communicates that information to the ________.
Q4) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
Q5) Microorganisms reach the CNS by all of the following EXCEPT
A) migrating to the CNS from distal sites.
B) toxins traveling along peripheral nerves.
C) infecting bone.
D) inhalation of the organism.
Q6) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q7) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Biochemical tests would most likely be used to diagnose
A) whooping cough.
B) strep throat.
C) HIV.
D) Lyme disease.
Q2) How are API strips inoculated with a bacterium interpreted?
A) Strips with positive reactions for each test indicate a bacterium is Gram negative.
B) Strips with positive reactions for each test indicate a bacterium is Gram positive.
C) Lab personnel interpret strips by using a dichotomous key and beginning with a key reaction.
D) Lab personnel interpret strips by determining the pH of each individual well.
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of using polymerase chain reaction (PCR)instead of relying on biochemical tests?
A) PCR can be completed within hours instead of days.
B) Only PCR provides a conclusive identification of a bacterium.
C) PCR provides information about antibiotic sensitivity.
D) PCR does not require specialized equipment.
Q4) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States,the disease is considered nonendemic.What differentiates measles from endemic diseases,such as chickenpox?
A) Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak.
B) Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area.
C) Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks.
D) Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans.
Q2) One potential bioweapon is a virus that has been eradicated from natural populations;only two WHO-sanctioned laboratories still maintain vials of this virus.This virus is ____.
Q3) An investigator is collecting data identifying the time of year and locations of measles outbreaks within the United States over a ten-year period from 2000 to 2010.This investigator is most likely involved in
A) descriptive epidemiology.
B) cohort studies.
C) analytical epidemiology.
D) experimental studies.
Q4) Describe two ways in which climate change can influence when and where diseases occur.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically,there has been concern about the ingestion of nitrite used as a food preservative.Why does nitrite work well as a food preservative?
A) Nitrites are used to inhibit aerobic respiration of bacteria.
B) Nitrites increase carbon dioxide levels.
C) Nitrites have antimicrobial properties.
D) Nitrites cross cell membranes and release protons intracellularly.
Q2) Your sister leaves the milk out on the counter after breakfast one day.Eight hours later she realizes her mistake and puts the milk back in the refrigerator.The next morning she pours herself a glass of milk,takes a sip of the milk,and immediately spits it out.Was she responding to food spoilage or food contamination? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) A new species of human gut bacteria is discovered.Scientists find that during the process of breaking down and utilizing undigested plant fibers,the bacteria also produces a vitamin that is absorbed by humans.The relationship described is an example of A) amensalism.
B) parasitism.
C) commensalism.
D) mutualism.
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