Introduction to Microbiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, classification, and diversity of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course explores microbial genetics, metabolism, growth, and the roles that microorganisms play in health, disease, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for culturing and identifying microbes, as well as current applications in medicine, industry, and biotechnology. This course equips students with essential knowledge and practical skills for further study in biology and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Q1) The overarching term that describes the study of the factors responsible for the prevalence and transmission of infectious diseases is
A)Pathogenesis
B)Epidemiology
C)Immunology
D)Virology
Answer: B
Q2) Which substance or process decreases the virulence of a bacterial pathogen in a host?
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Adaptive immune cells
C)Virulence factor
D)Binary fission
E)Toxins
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) The quaternary structure of a protein refers to
A)Its amino acid sequence
B)The way the protein folds
C)The links that stabilize the protein
D)The way protein subunits interact with each other
E)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Chlorine has at atomic number of 17.Therefore,which of the following is not correct regarding chlorine?
A)Chlorine has a mass number of 34
B)Chlorine has 2 electrons in the first shell, 8 electrons in the second shell, and 7 electrons in the third shell
C)If chlorine accepts an electron, it becomes a chloride cation
D)Chlorine needs only one electron to fill its outer shell
E)Atomic chlorine has 17 electrons
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) In feedback inhibition which reaction in the following pathway would the final product inhibit? W X Y Z
A)W X
B)X Y
C)Y Z
D)Y
E)Z
Answer: A
Q2) Which is an example of a hydrolysis reaction?
A)Amino acids to protein
B)DPN to DPNH
C)DPNH to DPN
D)Glycogen to glucose
E)Glucose to phosphoglucose
Answer: D
Q3) When a molecule is oxidized it receives electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) An appropriate stain for a sputum sample from a patient with tuberculosis is the _____ stain.
A)Gram
B)Flagella
C)Acid-fast
D)Endospore
E)Negative
Q2) Which of the following is the organelle that is on the path of proteins between the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus?
A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) Describe the molecular composition and structure of the phospholipid bilayer.Where is the phospholipid bilayer located in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Q4) Name and describe the three components that contribute to the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells.
Q5) What is the endosymbiont theory? Provide an example of this process.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Botulinum toxin kill neurons
B)Exotoxins are often synthesized in an inactive form
C)Exotoxins make up part of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria
D)Exotoxins are encoded on plasmids can be transmitted to other bacteria
E)Only one molecule of diphtheria toxin is needed to kill a host cell
Q2) _____ enhances fibrin blood clots,whereas _____ breaks them down.
A)hemolysin; leukocidin
B)hyaluronidase; collagenase
C)coagulase; streptokinase
D)coagulase; collagenase
E)endotoxin; exotoxin
Q3) How does Bacillus anthracis ensure that the activity of the anthrax toxin is exerted only inside the host cell?
Q4) Urinary tract infections are more prevalent in women than in men because
A)Women use tampons
B)Women prefer bathing to showering
C)Of the closer proximity of the anus to the urethra
D)The resident bacteria of women are different from those of men
Q5) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Calculate the morbidity,mortality,and incidence rates,given the following information: in a study conducted between January 1 and January 31,80 new cases of influenza were reported in a community of 10,000 individuals,bringing the total number of active influenza cases to 100.In this same period,2 individuals died from complications of the disease.
Q2) Describe and provide examples for the three types of contact transmission.
Q3) The Hantavirus has a limited transmission because
A)It is transmitted by droplets
B)It is not transmitted from human to human
C)Only a small fraction of humans are susceptible
D)It is transmitted by direct contact
Q4) Explain why patients with malignant tumors who are receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy are more susceptible to infections.
Q5) The risk of a(n)_____ infection is increased in clinical settings.
A)Super-
B)Nosocomial
C)Opportunistic
D)Antibiotic susceptible
E)Ubiquitous
Page 8
Q6) Explain the difference between morbidity rate and mortality rate.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
Q2) Which of the following has a sudden onset and causes widespread inflammation and necrosis of tissues?
A)Acute septic shock
B)Subclinical infection
C)Viremia
D)Toxic shock
E)Hemolytic anemia
Q3) Escherichia coli cells producing bacteriocins are participating in A)Opportunism
B)Antibiotic resistance
C)Commensalism
D)Parasitism
E)Microbial antagonism
Q4) Explain the process by which Streptococcus pyogenes causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS).
Q5) Name and describe the three strategies used by health professionals to control communicable diseases.Characterize each of them.
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) Could there be a connection between global warming and the dissemination of deadly strains of avian influenza? Explain your answer.
Q2) All of the following are possible modes of transmission for the West Nile virus except
A)Tainted blood transfusion
B)Inhalation of rodent excrement
C)Mosquito bites
D)Infected organ transplant
Q3) Describe two hurdles to the interspecies transfer of viruses and how these may be overcome.Which viruses are most effective at accomplishing this? Provide examples.
Q4) Which of the following groups is susceptible to tuberculosis (TB)?
A)Malnourished individuals
B)AIDS patients
C)Immunocompromised individuals living in long-term care facilities
D)Alcoholics
E)All of the choices
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Q6) Explain the term "incubator" as it applies to an influenza pandemic involving pigs.
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) All of the following participate in adherence except
A)Slime layers
B)Axial filaments
C)Fimbriae
D)Pili
E)Capsules
Q2) Bacterial conjugation is a process in which
A)Genetic material is transferred from a donor to a recipient by means of a pilus
B)The host binds to the surface of the bacterium and then ingests it by phagocytosis
C)Biofilms form through glycocalyx formation
D)End flagella rotate and move the bacterium in a corkscrew motion
E)Nutrients are transported to the cytoplasm down a concentration gradient
Q3) Which disease is caused by Treponema pallidum? Explain which characteristics enable this bacterium to enter the body through epithelia of the genitourinary tract but end up in the central nervous system.
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates the structure that permanently stains with crystal violet?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a Gram-negative cell portion?
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Which of the following methods would be used to obtain a clinical sample from the stomach?
A)Catheterization
B)Intubation
C)Needle aspiration
D)Sterile swab
E)"Clean catch" method
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Eosin methylene blue agar allows Gram-positive,but not the growth of Gram-negative organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A consequence of raising the temperature above the maximum growth temperature when culturing bacteria produces a marked
A)Destabilization of hydrogen bonds in proteins
B)Increase in the oxygen concentration
C)Decrease in pH causing acidification
D)Increase in osmotic pressure
Q4) Which growth medium is needed to culture Haemophilus influenzae in the laboratory? How is this medium made and why is it needed?
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Elongation of DNA from the 5' end is required because of the stereochemistry of the bases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Anticodon loop: codon recognition
B)Promoter: DNA polymerase
C)Origin of replication: DNA polymerase
D)P site: peptidyl-tRNA
E)Acceptor arm: amino acid
Q3) Identify the three types of RNA that are made in bacterial cells.How are they similar and what is the specific function of each?
Q4) Explain which two regulatory components control replication initiation in circular bacterial chromosomes.
Q5) Discuss five ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Q6) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon AUG?
Q7) Suppose the translation is aberrant and an inactive truncated protein is produced.In the figure which letter (A-C)do you predict you would find UAG?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) Identify the sequence of events that occurs during the lytic cycle of an animal virus infection.Describe in basic terms what takes place at each step.
Q2) A capsid is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q3) Endosomes that assist in the uncoating of non-enveloped viruses function via
A)Hydrolytic enzymes
B)An acidic environment
C)Host proteases
D)Virally encoded lipases
E)Fusion pores
Q4) What processes can viruses use to spread within a host and describe how they help avoid and evade host defenses?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the part that will eventually fuse with the host cell plasma membrane?
Q6) How does a simple icosahedral virus differ from a complex icosahedral virus?
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) What is virulence and what factors have an effect on the virulence of viral infections? Explain why host susceptibility is such an important consideration in viral virulence.
Q2) Indicate which of the following statements is false.
A)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be transferred in utero
B)Herpes viruses sometimes cause Koplik's spots on mucosal epithelium
C)The transmission rate of rubella from pregnant women to the fetus is more than 80% during the first trimester
D)Viruses disseminating from the blood to other replication sites are using the hematogenous route of transmission
Q3) What are the cause of over 50% of the common colds we acquire?
A)Coronaviruses
B)Cytomegaloviruses
C)Arena viruses
D)Coxsackie virus
E)Rhinoviruses
Q4) Explain why an individual who has had a prior infection with a rhinovirus is quite likely to experience another episode of rhinovirus infection at a later date.Why do we not immunize against rhinovirus?
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is matched incorrectly with its treatment?
A)Trichomoniasis: melarsoprol
B)Toxoplasmosis: pyrimethamine
C)Amebiasis: metronidazole
D)Trypanosomiasis: pentamidine
Q2) All of the following are matched correctly except
A)Malaria: mosquito transmission
B)Amebiasis: fecal-oral transmission
C)Trichomoniasis: sexual transmission
D)Toxoplasmosis: feline transmission
E)Trypanosomiasis: fecal-oral transmission
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: There are no examples of anaerobic fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Fungi are classified according to the characteristics of their sexual spores and hyphal septation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Vasodilation is a systemic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All three complement pathways follow the same sequence once _____ participates in the cascade.
A)C1
B)C2
C)C3
D)C4
E)C5
Q3) Which of the following is an effect of protein C1?
A)Activation of the classical pathway
B)Histamine release
C)Opsonization
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Tears contain IgG,which provides protection for the conjunctiva.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Explain the difference between GALT,MALT,and BALT.Describe what they have in common.
Q2) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
Q3) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A)Helper T cells: CD8
B)MHC class I: cytotoxic T cells
C)Cytotoxic T cells: CD8
D)MHC class II: antigen derived from vesicular compartments
E)Humoral immune response: B cells
Q4) The isotype of an antibody is determined by the
A)Constant and variable regions of the heavy chain
B)Variable region of the light chain
C)Variable region of the heavy chain
D)Constant region of the light chain
E)Constant region of the heavy chain
Q5) Explain what is meant by the phrase "T and B cell cooperation" in the context of adaptive immune responses.Why is it important that the B cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell for this cooperation to occur and how is this accomplished?
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Describe the appearance of lymph nodes during the early asymptomatic phase and the late symptomatic phase of HIV infection
Q2) Some hosts are subject to numerous infections by pyogenic (pus-forming)bacteria.This is indicative of a defect in
A)The complement pathway
B)The production of interferon
C)Antigen presentation
D)Chemotactic factors
Q3) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is characterized by
A)Loss of phagocyte function
B)Thymic aplasia
C)Susceptibility to encapsulated bacterial infections
D)Lack of T cells and B cells
E)The presence of a functional actin cytoskeleton
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of HIV?
A)Enveloped
B)Retrovirus
C)Single-stranded DNA
D)Sexually transmitted
E)Encodes reverse transcriptase
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Surfactants are very effective for disrupting the plasma membrane of cells because surfactant molecules are oxidants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Aseptic: pathogen-free environment
B)Pasteurization: heat to kill pathogens
C)Bacteriocidal: kills all bacteria
D)Sterilization: destruction of all forms of microbes
E)Antisepsis: inanimate objects
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: As the plasma membrane is responsible for enclosing the cytoplasm its loss or damage produces death.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
Q2) Bacteria that have evolved the ability to produce ?-lactamase have become resistant to penicillin because all forms of penicillin contain this ring structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the mechanisms of the anti-trypanosomal drugs eflomithine and melasoprol.
Q4) Which of the following is not a drug used for fungal infections?
A)Azoles
B)Foscarnet
C)Pentamidine
D)Amphotericin B
E)Flucytosine
Q5) Explain why are antibiotics that are protein synthesis inhibitors are excellent choices for therapy in the context of toxicity? Why might large doses of protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics show toxic effects in eukaryotic cells even though they meet the criterion for selective toxicity?
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Compare and contrast the Kirby-Bauer test and the E test.Why are these not appropriate procedures for determining whether an antimicrobial agent is microbicidal?
Q2) Describe six approaches being used to identify novel microbial structures or functions that may be potential new antibiotic targets.
Q3) Which of the following is not a contributory factor to the development of drug resistance?
A)Non-compliance with prescribed drug regimen
B)Underprescription of drugs needed to treat infections
C)Overprescription of broad-spectrum antibiotics
D)Lack of stringency when following aseptic practices in health care facilities
E)Incorporating antibiotics into animal feed
Q4) Specialized membrane proteins are activated in which type of antibiotic resistance?
A)Drug inactivation
B)Target modification
C)Efflux pumping
D)Alternate pathway
Q5) Describe the test used to determine whether an antimicrobial agent is microbicidal.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Indicate which of the following statements is false regarding whooping cough?
A)The causative agent is Bordetella pertussis
B)An effective vaccine is available
C)Animals are a source of infection
D)Ciliated cells of the respiratory tract are destroyed by tracheal toxin
E)On exposure, 80-100% of susceptible individuals develop infection
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae resemble Chinese letters because of a unique interaction between the cells and the agar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: A mild form of pneumonia is called walking pneumonia because there is no need for hospitalization during this infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three important host defenses against infections of the respiratory tract.
Q5) Explain how Ghon complexes are formed.How are they diagnosed and why are they problematic?
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Enterovirus is part of which family of viruses?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Enterohemorrhagic
E. coli are so named because they involve the production of heat-labile toxin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following organisms is the most appropriate match for nosocomial gastrointestinal infection?
A)Salmonella enterica
B)Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Campylobacter jejuni
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
25
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Which of the following is responsible for more than 90% of cystitis cases?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas
D)Enterococcus
E)Escherichia
Q2) Answer true or false to whether the following occurs before the multiplication of reticulate bodies during Chlamydia replication: Elementary bodies are released from the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify four ways in which candidiasis arises.Discuss the morphological and enzymatic changes that are associated with the pathogenesis of Candida albicans.
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Prepubescent females have hyperkeratinized vaginal epithelium and are therefore resistant to gonococcal infections. A)True B)False
Q5) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The pathology of prion infections occurs because of the multiplication of normal prion proteins by contact with infectious prions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with bacterial meningitis?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Neisseria meningitidis
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
E)Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Identify which of the following persistent infections of the central nervous system is a mismatched pair.
A)Human immunodeficiency virus: AIDS dementia complex
B)Progressive panencephalitis: rubella
C)Measles: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
D)Kuru: prions
E)Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease: persistent enterovirus infection
Q5) Describe the three forms of botulism.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.Which is caused by a filovirus?
A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Yellow fever is a potential threat to the southeastern United States because the vector for this virus has migrated to this area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bacteremia is associated with which of the following conditions?
A)Meningitis
B)Skin infections
C)Respiratory tract infections
D)Urinary tract infections
E)All of the choices
Q4) Describe the symptoms leading up to,culminating in,and after septic shock.Explain which measures should be taken to resolve sepsis conditions.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of scaled skin syndrome?
A)Skin lesions common in adolescents
B)Congenital infection can be dangerous
C)Exotoxins termed exfoliatins
D)Inflammation of mucous membranes of vagina or oral cavity
E)Staphylococcal or streptococcal skin lesions
Q2) Which of the following is the best match for human papillomavirus?
A)Latency in nerve ganglia
B)MMR vaccine
C)Variola major
D)Dermal warts
E)Scarring of conjunctiva
Q3) Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)coagulase-negative staphylococci
C)Group A streptococci
D)Dermatophytes
E)Propionibacterium acnes
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
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