Introduction to Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides a foundational overview of the microbial world, exploring the structure, physiology, genetics, and roles of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course delves into microbial diversity, metabolism, growth, and the essential functions microbes serve in environments, industry, and human health. Students will also investigate host-microbe interactions, mechanisms of pathogenesis, and methods of controlling microbial growth. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, aseptic practices, and critical thinking required for studying and understanding the impact of microbes on society.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that contain a nucleus are __________ cells. Answer: eukaryotic
Q2) The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are __________.
Answer: prions
Q3) Micrographia,a publication illustrating insects,sponges,as well as plant cells,was published by
A)Robert Hooke.
B)Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Hans Janssen.
D)John Needham.
Answer: A
Q4) Which of the following diseases is generally caused by contaminated food?
A)Mumps
B)Shigellosis
C)Legionellosis
D)Tuberculosis
Answer: B
Q5) Another term for spontaneous generation is __________. Answer: abiogenesis
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atomic number equals the number of A)protons.
B)neutrons.
C)electrons.
D)protons and neutrons.
Answer: A
Q2) The bond between sodium and chlorine atoms in sodium chloride is a(n) A)hydrogen bond.
B)ionic bond.
C)polar covalent bond.
D)nonpolar covalent bond.
Answer: B
Q3) A positively charged ion is a(n)__________. Answer: cation
Q4) Lactose is composed of glucose and __________. Answer: galactose
Q5) The monomers of triglycerides are __________ and fatty acids. Answer: glycerol
Q6) Chemically,ATP is a(n)__________.
Answer: nucleic acid
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrolase
A)Cytoskeleton
B)Cytosol
C)Mitochondria
D)Golgi apparatus
E)rER
F)Bacterial ribosome subunit
G)Enzyme
H)Dental plaque
I)Phospholipids
J)Endocytosis
K)Cell wall
L)Passive transport
Answer: G
Q2) The anticodons are located in
A)tRNA.
B)rRNA.
C)mRNA.
D)ribosomes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococci are _______________ facultative anaerobes.
Q2) Typhoid fever
A)Rickettsia rickettsii
B)Chlamydia psittaci
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Helicobacter pylori
E)Salmonella
F)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
G)Clostridium perfringens
Q3) Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40° C)are called A)thermophiles.
B)psychrophiles.
C)mesophiles.
D)psychrotrophs.
Q4) Bacteria that use oxygen,but only at low concentration,are classified as A)obligate aerobes.
B)microaerophiles.
C)obligate anaerobes.
D)aerotolerant anaerobes.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Group VI viruses according to the Baltimore classification system include the families Metaviridae,Pseudoviridae,and __________.
Q2) A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a __________.
Q3) RNA viruses belong to which of the following types according to the Baltimore classification system?
A)I, II, III
B)II, III, IV
C)I, IV, V
D)III, IV, V
Q4) The Baltimore classification system places viruses into __________ groups. A)four
B)five
C)seven D)nine
Q5) Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called A)envelopes.
B)protomeres.
C)capsids. D)nucleoids.
Q6) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slime molds have both fungal and __________ characteristics.
Q2) The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by A)algae.
B)slime molds.
C)fungi.
D)protozoans.
Q3) Algae that contain agar in their cell walls belong to A)Chrysophyta.
B)Rhodophyta.
C)Chlorophyta.
D)Phaeophyta.
Q4) The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a __________.
Q5) A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature?
A)15° C
B)20° C
C)25° C
D)37° C
Q6) Fungi growing on the surface of the skin or hair may cause infections called __________ mycoses.
Q7) The common name for nematodes is __________.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors:
A)Time of exposure, wavelength
B)Intensity, frequency, thickness of sample
C)Distance, frequency, nature of sample
D)Chemical composition, intensity, shielding
Q2) The bioassay method for testing the effectiveness of disinfectants and antiseptics on microorganisms is the ______________________.
Q3) Phenolic compound
A)Iodine
B)Triclosan
C)Aldehydes
D)Quaternary compounds
E)Damage to DNA
F)Mercury
G)Osmotic pressure
H)Penicillin
Q4) Sterilization using dry heat requires a temperature of __________° C for a period of __________.
Q5) The autoclave uses pressurized steam at approximately __________° C and __________ psi.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the
A)acid-fast stain.
B)methylene blue stain.
C)Gram stain.
D)negative stain.
Q2) Bacteria that appear red after gram staining are said to be gram-__________.
Q3) The destruction of all microorganisms and their endospores is referred to as A)disinfection.
B)degermination.
C)sanitization.
D)sterilization.
Q4) Which of the following is a biological test organism for validating dry or moist heat sterilization?
A)Bacillus subtilis var.niger
B)Escherichia coli
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q5) A culture that contains a single species of an organism is a __________ culture.
Page 10
Q6) A disinfectant is designed to be used only on __________ surfaces.
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Names with similar meaning
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
Q2) Dangerous and exotic agents need to be handled in a BSL-__________ environment.
Q3) OSHA was established in A)1921.
B)1971.
C)1980.
D)1985.
Q4) A form that contains data regarding the properties of a particular substance is the __________ form.
Q5) Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by __________.
Q6) CDC stands for the Centers for Disease Control and __________.
Q7) PASS stands for pull,aim,squeeze,and __________.
Q8) Chemical trade names are also called __________ names. Page 11
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are ways the kidney are used for urine formation and drug clearance except
A)Filtration
B)Tubular secretion
C)Tubular filtration
D)Tubular reabsorption
Q2) Drugs and substances with a high probability for abuse with no therapeutic use and a lack of safety controls are classified as Schedule __________.
Q3) The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention,treatment,and/or diagnosis is A)pharmacotherapeutics.
B)toxicology.
C)pharmacokinetics.
D)pharmacy.
Q4) The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.
A)on the skin
B)intravenous
C)intramuscular
D)sublingual
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
Q2) Cephalosporins have __________ generations of developed agents.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against mycobacteria?
A)Penicillin
B)Rifampin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalosporin
Q4) All of the following are general metabolic or structural targets for antimicrobial drugs except
A)Lipid synthesis inhibition
B)Protein synthesis inhibition
C)Interference with nucleic acid synthesis
D)Interference with cell wall synthesis
Q5) A drug that kills pathogenic bacteria is referred to as __________.
Q6) In the MIC method of determining antibiotic effectiveness,the lowest concentration containing no living organisms is called the __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parenteral route
A)Pandemic
B)Nosocomial
C)Septicemia
D)Adhesion
E)Pathogen
F)Bacteremia
G)Evasion
H)Microbiota
I)Surgery
Q2) All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except
A)Peritoneum
B)Urethra
C)Vagina
D)Mouth
Q3) A disease that breaks out only occasionally,such as typhoid fever in the United States,is referred to as a(n)__________ disease.
Q4) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
Q5) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
Q6) The study of the cause of disease is called __________.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The category of immunoglobulins that is implicated in allergic reactions is
Q2) An antibody is
A)a substance initiating an allergic response.
B)a marker on the cell surface of macrophages.
C)a protein produced by plasma cells.
D)a marker on the cell surface of macrophages
Q3) The body's decreased ability to fight infections is called __________.
Q4) Self-antigens are coded by a group of genes located on chromosome ____ and form the MHC (major histocompatibility complex).
A)21
B)8
C)6
D)5
Q5) A substance capable of raising the body temperature is A)heparin.
B)pyrogen.
C)serum. D)prostaglandin.
Q6) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
Page 16
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Chapter
Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genital herpes
A)HSV-1
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)HSV-2
D)Actinomyces
E)Escherichia coli
F)Varicella-zoster
G)HHV-6 and -7
H)Malassezia furfur
Q2) Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the A)feet.
B)scalp.
C)mouth.
D)hands.
Q3) Leprosy is caused by __________.
Q4) "Athlete's foot" is referred to as A)tinea capitis.
B)tinea corporis.
C)tinea versicolor. D)tinea pedis.
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diphtheria
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Coxiella burnetii
C)Klebsiella oxytoca
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E)Streptococcus faecalis
F)Legionella pneumophila
G)Bordetella pertussis
Q2) SARS is a respiratory illness caused by A)Streptococcus.
B)Coronavirus.
C)Histoplasma.
D)Type A viruses.
Q3) The most virulent pathogen of the human flu virus is type A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.
Q4) The bacterium Mycoplasma pneumonia is unique in that it lacks a(an)____________________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The painful burning sensation in the limbs known as St.Anthony's fire is associated with the fungal infection __________________.
Q2) A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called
Q3) Giardiasis is a waterborne gastrointestinal disease caused by Giardia intestinalis,which is a A)protozoan.
B)bacterium.
C)fungus.
D)virus.
Q4) "Thrush" is caused by the organism __________.
Q5) Pinworm
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most virulent of all botulinum toxins is considered to be type A)A.
B)B.
C)E.
D)F.
Q2) American trypanosomiasis is also referred to as __________.
Q3) African trypanosomiasis is caused by __________.
Q4) To prevent meningitis,routine vaccination in the United States is provided against
A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Listeria monocytogenes.
Q5) One of the first signs of the onset of tetanus is trismus,also referred to as
Q6) Otitis media is most commonly caused by which microorganism?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Listeria monocytogenes
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease and rare complication of A)strep throat.
B)gangrene.
C)brucellosis.
D)tularemia.
Q2) Babesiosis is a vector-borne,malaria-like illness caused by a A)bacterium.
B)virus.
C)helminth.
D)protozoan.
Q3) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
Q4) Borrelia burgdorferi
A)Plague
B)Rat-bite fever
C)Severe malaria
D)Lyme disease
E)VHF
F)Leprosy
G)Common cold
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Q5) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)______________________ mosquito.
Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Q1) Which of the following has not been shown to be preventive against UTIs in women?
A)Taking a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin
B)Urinating soon after sexual intercourse
C)Taking showers instead of baths
D)Urinating when the urge occurs
Q2) The tissues of the urethra become thinner and more fragile in older women because of a decrease in __________,thus increasing the chance of an opportunistic infection.
Q3) Acute necrotizing tubulointestinal nephritis
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q4) __________ and __________ are genera of organisms that are usually associated with UTIs related to sexual activity.
Q5) Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as __________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes such as __________,found in cervical mucus and semen,are instrumental in providing a chemical defense against bacterial infections of the reproductive organs.
Q2) Methods typically used to diagnose bacterial infections of the reproductive system include
A)microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ and microscopic examination of urine for organisms.
B)biopsy of infected tissue and use of selective media.
C)microscopic examination of fecal sample and protein test of urine.
D)antibody agglutination test and coagulation test.
Q3) 30% of vaginitis cases
A)Candida albicans
B)Borrelia vincentii
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Flagellated protozoan
E)Bacillus subtilis
F)Streptococcus pyogenes
G)Gardnerella vaginalis
1. 30% of vaginitis cases
Q4) The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is __________ .
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV is the abbreviation for __________.
Q2) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Q3) Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Chlamydia trachomatis.
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
Q4) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea?
A)Treponema
B)Neisseria
C)Mycoplasma
D)Ureaplasma
Q5) The three types of hepatitis virus that can be transmitted through sexual activity are
A)A, B, and C.
B)B, C, and D.
C)A, B, and D.
D)A, C, and D.
Q6) Hepatitis is an infection of the __________,even though transmission of the virus can occur through sexual activity.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Q1) Congenital CMV infections are caused by A)coronavirus.
B)herpes simplex virus.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q2) Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among A)infants.
B)adolescents.
C)young adults.
D)the elderly.
Q3) The most critical time of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy is during the __________ trimester of pregnancy.
Q4) The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the A)uterus.
B)placenta.
C)vagina.
D)mammary gland.
Q5) Chickenpox is caused by the __________ virus.
Q6) The common name for rubella is __________.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects
on Human Health
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Q1) EPA stands for __________.
Q2) The majority of marine microorganisms are present in the A)benthic zone.
B)littoral zone.
C)profundal zone.
D)limnetic zone.
Q3) Eutrophication is a term used in the A)carbon cycle.
B)phosphorus cycle.
C)sulfur cycle.
D)oxygen cycle.
Q4) Brucellosis is a Category __________ disease.
Q5) Sulfur dissimilation
A)Biomass
B)Eutrophication
C)Denitrification
D)Thiobacillus
E)Yersinia
F)Biodiversity
G)Rhizobium
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) CDC stands for
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B)Children's Disease Center.
C)Central Disaster Control Center.
D)Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center.
Q2) The establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population is a process called A)emergence.
B)adoption.
C)inclusion.
D)appearance.
Q3) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by a tick?
A)Botulism
B)Anthrax
C)Tularemia
D)MRSA
Q4) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
Q5) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
Q6) Anthrax would be considered a group __________ emerging/reemerging disease.
Q7) Acanthamebiasis is a group __________ emerging/reemerging infectious disease.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) The "workhorse" in genetic engineering
A)cDNA
B)Eukaryotic genes
C)Prokaryotic genes
D)Escherichia coli
E)Transformation
F)DNA ligase
G)Staphylococcus aureus
H)Hemophilia
Q2) The hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate stem cells of the bone marrow to mature into red blood cells is __________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of phage therapy?
A)Specificity of phages to target bacteria
B)Specificity of phages to target viruses
C)Replication of phages at the site of infection
D)No or little side effects
Q4) Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as __________.
Q5) The enzyme used to synthesize complementary DNA from an mRNA template is
Q6) Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are __________.
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