Introduction to Microbiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Microbiology provides a foundational understanding of microorganisms and their essential roles in nature, health, and disease. The course explores the classification, structure, and function of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, emphasizing microbial genetics, metabolism, and the interaction between pathogens and hosts. Students also learn about laboratory techniques for culturing and identifying microorganisms, the principles of infection and immunity, and the impact of microbes on human health, industry, and the environment.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Edition by Eugene Nester
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Q1) HIV/AIDS can be categorized as a new or emerging infectious disease. By putting it into this category, we are effectively saying that
A) this infection hasn't been observed in the human population prior to recent (approximately 50 years or sooner) outbreaks.
B) this disease has been in susceptible populations for centuries, but has only recently achieved infection levels that became detectable.
C) the infectious agent is still evolving and changing, unlike with older, more established diseases such as plague or polio.
D) the disease has always been in susceptible populations and causing disease, but we lacked the technology to detect it.
Answer: A
Q2) Plants are dependent on microorganisms for
A) providing oxygen.
B) providing water.
C) changing atmospheric nitrogen to a usable form.
D) providing carbohydrates.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Q1) Acidic or basic amino acids are
A) readily soluble in water.
B) readily soluble in lipids.
C) able to form ions.
D) considered hydrophilic.
E) readily soluble in water, able to form ions AND considered hydrophilic.
Answer: E
Q2) Water soluble substances easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which is true of carbohydrates?
A) They may be part of the structure of bacteria.
B) They may serve as a source of food.
C) They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.
D) They may be bonded to proteins to form glycoproteins.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Q1) A new drug is developed that targets a nd binds to the lipid A portion of LPS from Gram-negative bacterial cells. This drug shows a high degree of activity and binding in a test tube setting against purified lipid A. Based on this information,
A) we should fast track this drug and get it out to physicians immediately to help prevent toxic/septic shock in humans.
B)we should do some animal testing with whole Gram-negative cells and the drug before we jump to any conclusions.
C) we should next proceed by moving to testing in a test tube using whole Gram-negative cells to see if it binds with the same strength.
D) we should abandon the drug entirely. Binding to lipid A won't kill the bacteria, so the drug is useless to develop further. It wouldn't help humans who have septic shock at all.
Answer: C
Q2) Prokaryotes may ingest particles via phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Q1) You are a microbiologist working for a pharmaceutical company and discover a new secreted metabolite that can serve as a medication. Your company asks you to oversee the production of the metabolite. Which of the following is something that is NOT important to consider if you need to grow 5,000 liter cultures of bacteria for the purpose of harvesting the metabolite they secrete?
A) The death rate of the bacteria after stationary phase is complete.
B) The ideal rate of input of new nutrients into the culture to maintain the cells in log phase.
C) The ideal rate of pulling off some of the culture in order to maintain the cells in log phase.
D) The best way to mix the large vat in order to keep it homogenous (constant throughout) in terms of nutrients, temperature, and oxygen levels.
E) The best way to keep the pH of the entire mixture at the ideal level to promote log phase growth.
Q2) Freezing is an effective means of destroying bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) Upon treatment with heat or chemicals, bacteria will
A) all die immediately.
B) die at a constant proportion.
C) die at an exponential rate.
D) die at a geometric rate.
Q2) Compounds of tin, mercury, arsenic, and copper are no longer used to prevent microbial growth in cooling water primarily because A) antibiotics are cheaper.
B) other chemicals were shown to be much more effective.
C) microbes developed resistance to these metals.
D) their use contributes to serious pollution of natural waters.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Heat treatment is an effective method for sterilization or disinfection of all materials. A)True
B)False
Q4) Dry heat takes a much shorter time to sterilize material than wet heat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Q1) Most enzymes
A) are generalists and typically recognize a number of different substrates.
B) are specialists and typically recognize a single substrate.
C) are active over a wide pH range.
D) have several active sites.
E) are generalists and typically recognize a number of different substrates AND have several active sites.
Q2) Coenzymes are derivatives of
A) minerals.
B) proteins.
C) lipids.
D) vitamins.
Q3) Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria
A) obtain electrons from water.
B) do not produce oxygen as a byproduct.
C) may obtain electrons from H<sub>2</sub>S.
D) are obligate aerobes.
E) do not produce oxygen as a byproduct AND may obtain electrons from H<sub>2</sub>S.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From Dna to Protein
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Q1) A stop codon
A) codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.
B) forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.
C) codes for no amino acid.
D) enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.
E) codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine AND forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.
Q2) The term antiparallel
A) refers to the structure of single-stranded RNA.
B) is synonymous with semiconservative.
C) refers to the opposite orientation of the two strands in DNA.
D) refers to a type of prokaryotic replication.
Q3) Rotating the following answers any way necessary, but NOT changing their sequence, which is/are complementary to the sequence 5' AGGCUAAC 3'?
A) 5' TCCGATTG 3'
B) 3' TCCGATTC 5'
C) 5' CTTAGCCT 3'
D) 3' TAAGCTTA 5'
E) 3' TCCGATTC 5' AND 5' CTTAGCCT 3'
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) Every 24 hours, every genome in every cell of the human body is damaged 10,000 times or more. Given the possible DNA repair mechanisms, which order listed below would be most effective at repairing these as quickly as possible in order to prevent mutations from being carried forward in DNA replication?
A) proofreading by DNA polymerase, glycosylase enzyme activities, excision repair, photoreactivation, SOS repair
B) SOS repair, photoreactivation, excision repair, glycosylase enzyme activities, proofreading by DNA polymerase
C) photoreactivation, SOS repair, proofreading by DNA polymerase, glycosylase enzyme activities, excision repair
D) glycosylase enzyme activities, SOS repair, photoreactivation, proofreading by DNA polymerase, excision repair
Q2) The material responsible for transformation was shown to be DNA by A) Watson and Crick.
B) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty.
C) Lederberg.
D) Stanley.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) in humans
A) is always donated to the offspring from both parents
B) can be used to identify related people
C) can be isolated only from intact embryos
D) can be used to establish paternity
Q2) Agarose gel electrophoresis may be considered as a partial purification technique.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A DNA microarray contains oligonucleotides that contain a label.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA microarray technology
A) may use many DNA fragments that function like probes.
B) attaches nucleotides to a solid support such as a glass slide.
C) relies on arrays that contain a detectable tag.
D) uses nucleic acid hybridization.
E) may use many DNA fragments that function like probes, attaches nucleotides to a solid support such as a glass slide AND uses nucleic acid hybridization.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotes
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Q1) Which of the rRNA molecules has proven the most useful in taxonomy/identification?
A) 5S
B) 80S
C) 16S
D) 23S
Q2) Explain the difference between a biotype and a serotype.
A) A biotype is the living type of microorganism identified, while the serotype is an individual's type of blood serum.
B) A biotype is the type of biological environment a microbe will grow in, while the serotype is the type of blood serum that the microbe can grow in.
C) A biotype is the particular phenotypic traits and characteristic structures of a biological microorganism, while the serotype is the list of molecules the microbe is able to make and secrete into the serum of an infected individual.
D) A biotype is the biochemical profile of a particular microorganism, while the serotype is the difference in its surface structures/antigens that will lead to separate immune responses from an organism (characterized by presence of different antibodies in the individual's serum).
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Q1) It has been estimated that 99% of the intestinal bacteria are
A) facultative anaerobes.
B) obligate aerobes.
C) facultative aerobes.
D) obligate anaerobes.
Q2) The Gram-positive rod that is also acid-fast and is a human pathogen is
A) Corynebacterium diptheria.
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Listeria monocytogenes.
Q3) Azotobacter
A) forms endospores.
B) forms cysts.
C) fixes carbon dioxide.
D) are used as an indicator of fecal pollution.
Q4) Obligate aerobes may transform energy via fermentation.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Q1) Protozoans are eukaryotes and as such will always possess a nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fungi that are important for fermentation of fruits
A) are yeasts.
B) are facultative anaerobes.
C) grow well at acid pH.
D) secrete enzymes that degrade organic molecules.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Diatoms are algae whose silicon dioxide-containing shells are useful economically as
A) filters.
B) fertilizers.
C) stabilizers.
D) thickeners.
Q4) Typically arthropods serve as vectors of disease while helminths directly cause disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids and Prions
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Q1) Bacteria infected with filamentous phages are termed A) temperate cells.
B) plaque-producing cells.
C) virulent strains.
D) carrier cells.
Q2) Spongiform encephalopathy occurs in A) humans.
B) cattle.
C) sheep.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Outside of living cells, viruses are A) scavenging glucose.
B) slowly stockpiling ATP from the mitochondria.
C) using cilia to move to the next host.
D) metabolically inert.
Q4) Completed filamentous phages are often found in the cytoplasm of infected bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) One of the strongest indications of infectious disease is
A) a rash.
B) pustules.
C) vesicles.
D) fever.
Q2) Fever
A) enhances bacterial growth.
B) inhibits bacterial growth.
C) speeds up the body's reactions.
D) triggers complement.
E) inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions.
Q3) Defensins are short antimicrobial peptides found within mucus membranes and phagocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about interferon is incorrect?
A) It only works on a few specific types of virus.
B) It makes cells resistant to viral infection.
C) It is a species specific molecule.
D) It does not directly inactivate viruses.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Antigens may be processed for presentation by A) macrophages.
B) dendritic cells.
C) erythrocytes.
D) T cytotoxic cells.
E) macrophages AND dendritic cells.
Q2) Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Perforin is produced by A) B cells.
B) macrophages.
C) NK cells.
D) T helper cells.
E) macrophages AND NK cells.
Q4) Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Q1) Why is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell?
A) It ISN'T a good strategy-host cells could shift to a backup receptor and shut down production of the main receptor, preventing infection.
B) If it's a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn't have a backup system in place to switch to-so, even though it makes it susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there. This benefits the microbe.
C) Microbes want to evade detection and elimination by the immune system-the closer they can adhere to host cells, the less likely they are to trigger destructive immune responses. This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation.
D) It ISN'T a good strategy-by binding to receptors, microbes will be phagocytosed by cells and destroyed within them.
Q2) During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Q1) The type of hypersensitivity expressed with the lysing of red blood cells is
A) Type I.
B) Type II.
C) Type III.
D) Type IV.
E) Type V.
Q2) If the thymus fails to develop
A) functional T cells are absent.
B) functional B cells are absent.
C) Di George's syndrome exists.
D) complement deficiencies exist.
E) functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists.
Q3) Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves A) sensitized T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) antibodies.
D) IgD.
Q4) First exposure to an allergen results in a violent hypersensitivity reaction.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Q1) Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just an antigen from that agent for a vaccine?
A) This is actually a disadvantage-it's much more dangerous to use an attenuated agent over a subunit (single antigen) vaccine due to the possibility of reversion of the microbe to a pathogenic state.
B) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the antibody production (humoral response) of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.
C) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the cytotoxic T cell (CTL, cell-mediated) side of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.
D) An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral (antibody) AND cell-mediated (T cell) portions of the adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Q1) Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are
A) vectors.
B) fomites.
C) vehicles.
D) reservoirs.
Q2) Diseases that primarily exist in animals, but may be transmitted to humans are called
A) parasitic.
B) symbiotic.
C) zoonotic.
D) epidemic.
Q3) Which of the following is called a zoonotic disease?
A) measles
B) typhoid
C) common cold
D) plague
Q4) Cross-sectional surveys are very useful in establishing cause of a disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Q1) Why are nucleoside analogs active only against replicating viruses?
A) These drugs can only be taken up by cells that are infected by viruses. They are shut out from non-infected cells. This makes them effective only against cells where viruses are replicating.
B) Each of these drugs is specifically activated by enzymes produced by the viruses. The viruses will only produce these enzymes when they are replicating, so the drugs can only become activated when these processes are occurring.
C) Nucleoside analogs work by directly inhibiting the activity of nucleic acid polymerases. If the virus isn't actively replicating, there's no DNA/RNA polymerase active for the drug to inhibit, so the drug cannot work.
D) Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. As such, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well.
Q2) The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Q1) The causative agent of the pneumonia that causes permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial and has a high mortality if untreated is
A) S. pneumoniae.
B) K. pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. aureus.
Q2) Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as A) productive.
B) contagious.
C) infective.
D) paroxysmal.
Q4) Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are two glycoproteins called A) leukocidin and hemolysin.
B) hyaluronidase and coagulase.
C) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
D) lysozyme and coagulase.
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Q1) The surface layer of the skin is the A) cutaneous.
B) keratin.
C) dermis.
D) epidermis.
Q2) The oily secretion that lubricates the hair follicles of the skin is A) sebum.
B) eczema.
C) suder.
D) acne.
Q3) Rocky Mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n) A) animalosis.
B) tickonosis.
C) plantonosis.
D) zoonosis.
Q4) Rubella is a member of which virus family?
A) paramyxo virus
B) herpes
C) togavirus
D) papovavirus
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Q1) Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in an individual receiving antibacterial medications?
A) This fungal organism can actually utilize the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state.
B) This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal flora. As such, when the bacterial normal flora is wiped out by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind.
C) This is a usual member of the normal flora. However, when the bacterial members of the normal flora are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.
D) This is a protozoan species and part of the normal flora. When the bacterial members of the normal flora are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Why would you expect acyclovir to be ineffective against latent HSV infections?
A) This is an antibacterial drug, and HSV is a virus.
B) This is an antifungal drug, and HSV is a virus.
C) This drug directly inhibits DNA polymerase activity-cells that are latently infected with HSV have no DNA polymerase activity.
D) This drug is a nucleoside analogue-it becomes activated by a viral enzyme that is produced only when the virus is replicating. As such, if the virus is latent, the enzyme to activate the drug is not present (and the drug is ineffective).
Q2) The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis
A) are mature when eliminated in the stool.
B) do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces.
C) are smaller than the oocytes of Cryptosporidium parvum.
D) give rise to three sporozoites.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is
A) measles.
B) herpes.
C) chickenpox.
D) mumps.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Genitourinary Infections
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Q1) The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacterial cystitis
A) is a common nosocomial disease.
B) is typically caused by E. coli.
C) may occur through the use of a catheter.
D) is unusual in men under 50.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is A) human papillomavirus.
B) herpes virus.
C) human immunodeficiency virus.
D) leptospirosis.
Q4) Trichomoniasis is caused by a A) fungus.
B) virus.
C) bacteria.
D) protozoan.
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Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Q1) An infection of the membranes covering the brain is called A) encephalitis.
B) meningitis.
C) arachnitis.
D) ventriculitis.
Q2) The cavities inside the brain are termed A) sinuses.
B) ventricles.
C) cavities.
D) sulci.
Q3) The polio viruses usually enter the body through A) the oral route.
B) contaminated blood.
C) cuts in the skin.
D) the respiratory route.
Q4) The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy A) sensory nerve cells.
B) mixed nerve cells.
C) autonomic nerve cells.
D) motor nerve cells.
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Chapter 27: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Q1) Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva?
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) rabies
C) plague
D) yellow fever
E) infectious mononucleosis AND rabies
Q3) A visible red streak in an infected hand or foot is referred to as A) septicemia.
B) bacteremia.
C) lymphangitis.
D) edema.
Q4) The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of A) ticks.
B) fleas.
C) lice.
D) mites.
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Chapter 28: Hiv Disease and Complications of Immunodeficiency
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Q1) Which of the following may have served as the ultimate source of HIV?
A) orangutans
B) apes
C) gorillas
D) chimpanzees
Q2) The protease inhibitors
A) act late in the virus life cycle.
B) act early in the virus life cycle.
C) act on viral RNA production.
D) prevent the assembly of the virus.
E) act late in the virus life cycle AND prevent the assembly of the virus.
Q3) The first human retrovirus (HTLV) was discovered by
A) Kenmore.
B) Temin.
C) Gallo.
D) Baltimore.
Q4) Infected macrophages and other antigen-presenting cells are a continuing source of infectious virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Streptomyces
A) may produce antibiotics.
B) may produce geosmins.
C) will swarm together to form fruiting bodies.
D) are typically found in the soil.
E) may produce antibiotics, may produce geosmins AND are typically found in the soil.
Q2) Streptomyces produces geosmins which give soil a characteristic musty odor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eutrophic waters
A) are nutrient rich.
B) may become hypoxic.
C) lack phosphate, nitrate and iron.
D) contain 3.5% salt.
E) are nutrient rich AND may become hypoxic.
Q4) The organisms found near warm vents on the bottom of the ocean are typically chemoautotrophic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of
Water, Wastes, and Polluted Habitats
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/59595
Sample Questions
Q1) High BOD values reflect small amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which would be more likely to cause illness-a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for
A) Both would be equally capable of causing illness-all coliforms cause illness.
B) The coliform positive sample would be more likely to cause illness. Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli.
C) The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness. This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.
D) Neither-there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water.
Q3) If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.
A)True
B)False
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/59594
Sample Questions
Q1) The most promising sources of single cell protein are bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Limiting the activity of microbes in food can be accomplished by
A) pasteurization.
B) cold storage.
C) lowering the pH.
D) growth inhibiting substances.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Sugar is used in the making of fermented sausages to
A) help preserve the sausage.
B) provide raw material for the fermentation process.
C) sweeten the taste.
D) counteract the action of the salt in the sausage.
Q4) Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 2.2?
A) Clostridium
B) Streptococcus
C) fungi
D) lactic acid bacteria
E) fungi AND lactic acid bacteria
Page 33
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