Introduction to Medical Imaging Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Medical Imaging provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles and technologies used in the visualization of anatomical structures and physiological processes within the human body. The course explores the physical and technical foundations of major imaging modalities such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Students will learn about image acquisition, processing, and interpretation while considering safety standards, clinical applications, and the role of medical imaging in diagnosis and treatment planning. The course also introduces emerging trends and ethical considerations in the rapidly evolving field of medical imaging.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Radiologic and Imaging Sciences and Patient Care 6th Edition by Arlene M. Adler
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Imaging and Radiologic Sciences
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Q1) To study the blood vessels of the brain,kidneys,liver,and other organs,contrast material is administered into these vessels by using A)catheters.
B)stents.
C)balloons.
D)none of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) Particular care must be taken when using radiation for medical imaging.This is the result of radiation's ability to create __________ in human tissue and possible biochemical changes.
A)ionizations
B)radio waves
C)sound waves
D)thermal changes
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Professional Organizations
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Q1) Accredited programs in radiologic technology are recognized by the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT).Programs seeking this recognition necessarily must comply with the JRCERT
A)Standards or Essentials.
B)rules and regulations.
C)registry requirements.
D)internal policies for operation and conduct.
Answer: A
Q2) Many organizations are involved with medical imaging that make up this great profession.A common goal of all of these organizations is to A)ensure the highest quality of care within the profession.
B)improve the standard of care within medical imaging.
C)foster positive public relations and communication with the general public and governmental agencies.
D)accomplish all of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Educational Survival Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steps for successful test taking include
1)memorizing acronyms to remember important formulas.
2)going out for a pasta dinner the night before an examination to be with friends.
3)wearing bright colors the day of the examination.
4)relaxing the day before the examination and avoiding cramming.
5)rechecking your answers,particularly if you had to record them on a scan sheet using blackened circles.
6)on the day of the test,changing your driving route to class to vary your day even though the new route is shorter and under construction.
7)helping a classmate cram for the examination as a favor just before you take the test.
A)1,4,5,and 6
B)2,3,5,6,and 7
C)3,4,and 5
D)2,4,6,and 7
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Critical-Thinking and Problem-Solving Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following situations would require critical analysis thinking skills?
1)A patient asking for directions to the restroom
2)A physician asking you to call his office to speak to his nurse
3)Improvising the angulation of the x-ray tube to compensate for a patient condition
4)Your supervisor asking you to develop a new quality control plan
5)Repositioning a patient after assessing the patient's previous images
6)Providing a gown to a patient with instructions on putting it on correctly
7)Modifying exposure factors after reviewing the patient's history
A)2,3,5,6,and 7 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)3,4,5,and 7 only
D)1,2,and 6 only
Q2) The transfer of knowledge gained in the laboratory or classroom setting is best demonstrated
A)on human phantoms in the practice laboratory.
B)through essay questions on a major examination.
C)on volunteer patients in a skills laboratory.
D)in an actual clinical setting on patients.
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Clinical Education
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Q1) All of the following are true of a radiologic technology program director EXCEPT
A)he or she must possess a master's degree.
B)he or she must be a full-time employee and dedicated to program operation.
C)the program director must be registered in radiologic technology by the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT).
D)the program director should be competent in curricular design,evaluation and assessment,instruction,and academic advising.
Q2) A female radiography student is considered pregnant when she
A)verbally states she is pregnant to her classmates and clinical instructor.
B)begins to show the typical signs of a pregnancy.
C)voluntarily declares her pregnancy in writing to program officials.
D)requests a second personnel monitoring device and a wraparound lead apron.
Q3) Student learning that occurs in a classroom setting is referred to as _____ learning.
A)psychomotor
B)transfer of C)didactic
D)competency-based
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Chapter 6: Radiology Administration
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Q1) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)performance improvement (PI).
B)quality control inspections (QCI).
C)continuous quality improvement (CQI).
D)total quality management (TQM).
Q2) It is not uncommon for a technologist to be disciplined for
A)ignoring a patient's request for information.
B)equipment abuse and damage.
C)gossiping and secretive employee behaviors.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The health care industry is a significant part of the U.S.economy.Hospitals,clinics,imaging centers,rehabilitation centers,and other institutions all make up a sizeable network of this country's health care delivery system.The complexities of a hospital and all of its departments,professions,infrastructure and design can be likened to
A)communities within a community.
B)isolated enterprises that operate with complete independence.
C)simple businesses with a single product or service to offer its customers.
D)a family-run business with only a few employees.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Radiographic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective measure of actual exposure compared to a target exposure value is the use of a(n)
A)S number.
B)deviation index (DI).
C)exposure index (EI).
D)half-value layer.
Q2) Bowel gas in the abdomen is an example of a _____ material,with regard to the x-ray beam.
A)radiopaque
B)radiolucent
C)radiofrequent
D)radioresistant
Q3) The x-ray tube component that stops the stream of electrons and produces the x-ray beam is called the A)cathode.
B)anode.
C)tetrode.
D)positode.
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Chapter 8: Radiographic and Fluoroscopic Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to x-ray tubes that can shorten their useful life can occur with
A)unnecessarily prolonged anode preparation times.
B)repeated preparation of the tube several times before exposures are performed.
C)preselection of exposure factors before the tube is boosted.
D)both a and b.
Q2) In a radiographic/fluoroscopic (R/F)system,the primary barrier is considered to be the
A)fluoroscopy lead apron in front of the spot film device.
B)image intensifier or flat panel detector.
C)tabletop of the R/F table.
D)patient.
Q3) Radiographic exposure technique selection is performed with what component of an x-ray system?
A)Generator electronics cabinet
B)X-ray tube assembly
C)Operator's console
D)Radiographic table
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Chapter 9: Basic Radiation Protection and Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dose equivalent limits for radiation workers are based on the radiation received from what source(s)?
A)Background radiation
B)Medical and dental radiography
C)Occupational exposure
D)Radiation fallout
Q2) For a pregnant radiographer who declares her pregnancy to the employer,a second personnel monitoring device is provided.The purpose of this additional monitor is to ensure that the monthly equivalent dose to the embryo or fetus does not exceed _____ mSv (_____ rem).
A)0.5;0.05
B)10;1
C)5;0.5
D)50;5
Q3) Nausea is principally associated with the
A)prodromal period.
B)latent period.
C)central nervous system syndrome.
D)doubling-dose period.
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Chapter 10: Human Diversity
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Q1) The irrational fear of a homosexual person's sexual orientation is referred to as A)heterosexuality.
B)unisexuality.
C)homophobia.
D)homogeneosity.
Q2) A social organization that seeks to understand and accept peoples from diverse backgrounds through policies and procedures,communication media,activities,and so on in an effort to achieve a positive cross-cultural environment is seeking to achieve A)socialism.
B)cultural competency.
C)social autonomy.
D)segregation.
Q3) An ethnic group that would place a cultural core value on the sacredness of the earth and its waters,clean air,wildlife,and foliage would most likely be
A)Native American.
B)Latino.
C)Mexican American.
D)European American.
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Chapter 11: Patient Interactions
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Q1) A common emotion of most patients entering the hospital is
A)optimism.
B)fear of the unknown and about their condition.
C)eagerness to meet new people.
D)insincerity.
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Non-English-speaking patients typically understand simple phrases and commands such as "Yes," "No," and "Stop."
B)Pediatric patients always require special attention.
C)To minimize feelings of alienation,it is useful to treat geriatric patients as adolescents to make them understand your instructions.
D)Dealing with mentally impaired patients often requires the technologist use a strong yet reassuring tone of voice.
Q3) The cadence and rhythm of your speech,often referred to as the "music of speech," is known as
A)auditory communication.
B)paralanguage.
C)therapeutic communication.
D)negative therapeutic communication.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: History Taking
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Sample Questions
Q1) It would be professionally appropriate for the imaging professional to
A)gently touch the patient to clarify the location of his or her pain.
B)touch the patient with varying degrees of pressure to measure the patient's pain tolerance over the area of interest.
C)ask the patient to give you a general idea of the area of concern before the examination is started.
D)aggressively palpate the patient on the regions that do not hurt to isolate the area of interest.
Q2) When questioning patients to obtain an accurate patient history,
A)keep your questions general in nature so as not to offend the patient.
B)start with open-ended questions and then follow up with more direct inquiries.
C)do not let the patient talk too much in order to keep the examination moving.
D)use medical "jargon" to impress the patient with your expertise.
Q3) When taking a patient history,it is important to
A)remain very impersonal and show little emotion or empathy toward the patient.
B)call the patient by his or her first name to establish instant credibility.
C)maintain a polite and professional demeanor when gathering information.
D)memorize the patient's comments to relay them to the radiologist later.
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Chapter 13: Safe Patient Movement and Handling Techniques
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Q1) When positioning a patient in a rolling motion transfer, A)always move the patient toward you.
B)ask the patient which way he or she wants to be rolled.
C)roll the patient toward his or her weak side.
D)never roll a patient because it creates postural hypotension.
Q2) For efficient and safe patient transfers and handling,the imaging professional should A)use mobility muscles for posture.
B)use red postural muscles for support.
C)narrow the stance and stand on tiptoes for flexibility.
D)keep the knees straight and taut and lift from the shoulders.
Q3) When transferring patients for medical imaging procedures,communication is an essential component of a safe and efficient transfer.Which of the following is not a recommended communication strategy to achieve a safe transfer?
A)Call the nursing floor to learn of the patient's mobility.
B)During the transfer,try to stay quiet so as not to alarm the patient.
C)Ask the patient how much he or she can assist with the movement.
D)Ask the patient if he or she has been moved recently and how the experience went.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Immobilization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) To achieve extreme dorsiflexion of the ankle,the most effective immobilization method uses
A)sandbags.
B)tape.
C)a draw sheet.
D)Velcro straps.
Q2) All of the following are true of the Pigg-O-Stat infant immobilizer EXCEPT
A)it can be used for supine abdominal studies of the child.
B)its design provides for lead protection over the child's gonads.
C)it is made of contour-shaped,clear acrylic restraining forms.
D)the patient can be rotated 360 degrees for various oblique projections.
Q3) When using sandbags as immobilization devices,
A)refill any sand that leaks out of the bag before the examination begins.
B)make a note for the radiologist,as the sandbag is radiopaque and may leave an artifact.
C)place the sandbag over the area of interest,so the radiologist knows you used one. D)do both b and c.
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Chapter 15: Vital Signs, Oxygen, Chest Tubes, and Lines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a rectal temperature of 100.5° F is A)febrile.
B)hyperthermic.
C)hypothermic.
D)normal.
Q2) The flow rate of oxygen therapy is given in A)liters per minute.
B)cubic meters per minute.
C)pounds per square inch.
D)millimeters of mercury.
Q3) A patient is thought to have had a cardiac arrest.The patient's pulse should be checked at the _____ artery.
A)radial
B)brachial
C)carotid
D)femoral
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Chapter 16: Basic Cardiac Monitoring: The
Electrocardiogram
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Q1) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)AV node.
B)Purkinje fibers.
C)SA node.
D)mitral valve.
Q2) The QRS complex on a typical ECG represents
A)depolarization of atrial muscle.
B)depolarization of ventricular muscle.
C)repolarization of ventricular muscle.
D)ventricular diastole.
Q3) If the PR interval is longer than normal on a typical ECG tracing,one can assume that
A)the patient has tachycardia.
B)the patient has normal sinus rhythm.
C)an atrioventricular (AV)node block is present.
D)the patient has bradycardia.
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Chapter 17: Infection Control
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Q1) Bacteria have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT they
A)are eukaryotic organisms.
B)have the ability to produce endospores.
C)are single-cell organisms.
D)may live on a host in a colony form.
Q2) By what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes?
A)Vector
B)Vehicle
C)Direct contact
D)Droplet
Q3) The process of establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host is referred to as
A)inflammation.
B)infection.
C)pathogen.
D)nosocomial.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Aseptic Techniques
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Q1) The purpose of the inflatable balloon portion at the tip of the Foley catheter is to
A)hold the catheter within the bladder.
B)present the backflow of urine into the ureters.
C)permit its visualization under fluoroscopy.
D)induce the stimulus for voiding.
Q2) If the sterility of an object is unknown,which of the following should be done?
A)Ask the physician if it is alright to use the object.
B)Use the object as long as it has not been dropped on the floor.
C)Consider the object unsterile and do not use it.
D)Clean the object with a disinfectant or antimicrobial before using it.
Q3) When opening a sterile tray,your fingers
A)may not touch any metal content.
B)must be covered with sterile gloves.
C)may not touch any cloth content.
D)must never touch the inside of the tray.
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Chapter 19: Nonaseptic Techniques
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Q1) For a single-contrast barium enema,
A)approximately 500 mL of barium is used for an adult.
B)air or carbon dioxide is used as a contrast agent.
C)spot images of the cecum,hepatic flexure,splenic flexure,and sigmoid are taken.
D)a postevacuation image is unnecessary.
Q2) In many instances,cleansing enemas are self-administered by the patient before the examination.Instructions for a self-administered enema include
1)eating fruits and vegetables within 24 hours of the examination.
2)limiting water intake to prevent hydration.
3)using purgation mixtures.
4)eating a low-residue diet.
5)a clear liquid diet,including carbonated beverages,clear gelatin,clear broth,or coffee and tea with sugar.
6)administering a cleansing clear water enema.
A)1,2,4,5,and 6 only
B)3,4,5,and 6 only
C)2,3,5,and 6 only
D)1,3,4,and 6 only
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Chapter 20: Medical Emergencies
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Q1) When performing two-person CPR,
A)compressions are at rate of 100 per minute.
B)compressions are paused briefly to give two ventilations.
C)the rescuers can smoothly switch positions as they choose.
D)all of the above are correct.
Q2) CPR can be stopped when
A)the rescuer is physically exhausted.
B)a physician says it's time to stop CPR.
C)the patient responds and shows signs of recovery.
D)all of the above are correct.
Q3) What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?
A)Cardiogenic
B)Septic
C)Anaphylactic
D)Neurogenic
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22
Chapter 21: Pharmacology
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Q1) Any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable or improper is its A)risk-to-benefit factor.
B)tolerance.
C)solubility.
D)contraindication.
Q2) A patient who is scheduled to have surgery of the esophagus for a diverticulum will likely be given a(an)_______ to decrease mucosal secretions and esophageal muscular activity.
A)analgesic
B)diuretic
C)anticholinergic
D)antiemetic
Q3) Transdermal patches are intended to release a drug over an extended period of time.Particular care must be used with this type of drug administration owing to its design and thin metal backing.The modality of concern in medical imaging would be A)CT scanning.
B)sonography.
C)MRI scanning.
D)PET scanning.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Principles of Drug Administration
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Q1) All patients should expect correct procedures with regard to drug administration.These correct procedures or "rights" include the
1)the right route of administration.
2)the correct time for giving the drug.
3)he correct person giving the drug.
4)their own physician ordering the drug.
5)their own physician administering the drug.
6)the correct drug and drug amount administered.
A)1,2,4,and 5 only.
B)1,2,and 6 only.
C)3 and 4 only.
D)4 and 5 only.
Q2) During an intravenous drug administration,a small area around the needle site is growing and swelling.The patient states that the area is starting to burn slightly.In this situation,
A)extravasation has occurred.
B)the needle needs to be removed immediately.
C)a warm,moist compress needs to be applied.
D)all of the above are correct.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Contrast Media and Introduction to Radiopharmaceuticals
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Q1) When a nonionic contrast agent is injected into an artery such as the carotid,visualization of the artery occurs because
A)blood in the artery chemically changes into iodine.
B)iodine in the contrast agent mixes with blood and makes the artery radiopaque.
C)the contrast medium turns the vessel radiolucent.
D)the contrast agent changes into a radiopharmaceutical.
Q2) When working with a radiopharmaceutical,the nuclear medicine professional must be aware of
A)the half-life of the isotope.
B)any isotope spills or leaks.
C)contamination of isotope that yields image artifacts.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Barium sulfate would be contraindicated for a patient with A)colonic polyps.
B)a suspected duodenal bulb perforation.
C)diverticulosis.
D)all of the above.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Professional Ethics
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Q1) The best way to characterize an ethical dilemma is to describe it as the
A)correct choice is absolutely identified.
B)incorrect choice is absolutely identified.
C)correct choice is not entirely clear and has both positive and negative consequences.
D)moral thing to do based on your religious values.
Q2) When undertaking an ethical analysis,
A)identification of human values pertinent to the analysis must be considered.
B)your professional society membership card should be presented.
C)your ARRT certification needs to be included in the analysis.
D)seniority with your employer should be considered.
Q3) Which of the following would be considered an unethical practice for a radiologic technologist?
A)Repeating a radiograph because of incorrect technique selection
B)Watching an interesting case
C)Criticizing a doctor or team member in a private or public forum
D)Reporting unethical practices of a coworker
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Chapter 25: Health Records and Health Information Management
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Q1) Health records for inpatients should contain what information?
1)Patient identification data
2)Number of patient visitors during the stay
3)Reports of any diagnostic or therapeutic studies
4)Physical examination data
5)Number of times the nurse call light is activated for nursing care
6)All informed consent documents
7)Medical history,including the chief complaint
A)1,2,4,6,and 7 only
B)1,3,4,6,and 7 only
C)2,3,4,5,and 7 only
D)1,4,and 6 only
Q2) An effective hospital quality improvement program
A)presents its findings and recommendations to the hospital medical staff and board of trustees.
B)includes only departments that are perennially problematic.
C)deals exclusively with the financial strength of the hospital.
D)publishes all of its findings in the local newspaper and on television and radio.
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Chapter 26: Medical Law
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Q1) A process by which patients can agree to be treated or refuse to be treated based on information provided by the radiographer about the examination is called _____ consent.
A)implied
B)informed
C)simple
D)inadequate
Q2) The most common legal claim against health care providers is
A)slander.
B)libel.
C)assault.
D)negligence.
Q3) As you begin a barium study of the colon,the patient states clearly that she wants the examination to stop.A professional imaging technologist should
A)Negligence
B)Defamation
C)Assault
D)False imprisonment
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