Introduction to Marketing Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Marketing provides students with a foundational understanding of key marketing principles, strategies, and practices. The course explores the role of marketing within organizations and society, covering topics such as market research, consumer behavior, the marketing mix (product, price, place, and promotion), segmentation, targeting, and positioning. Through real-world examples and practical case studies, students will learn how marketing decisions are made and how they impact both businesses and consumers. This course equips students with analytical and creative skills necessary for addressing marketing challenges in a dynamic, global marketplace.
Recommended Textbook Marketing Defined Explained Applied 2nd Edition by Michael P Levens
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Meaning of Marketing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which marketing orientation holds that firms should consider society as a whole as a stakeholder?
A) relationship orientation
B) sales orientation
C) consumer orientation
D) social responsibility orientation
E) production orientation
Answer: D
Q2) Explain the concept of utility in marketing and how consumers are involved in determining utility.
Answer: Utility is the satisfaction received from owning or consuming a product or service. In other words, utility is the value that customers attach to a product. The customers' perception of the product determines its level of utility; marketers work to influence customers' perceptions of the product. The more utility a consumer perceives a product to have, the more likely that consumer is to purchase the product.
Q3) One of a company's many external marketing participants is the government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Market in Marketing
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Q1) The ________ of a business is made up of all the activities that occur within the organizational functions of the business.
A) marketing environment
B) internal environment
C) microenvironment
D) macroenvironment
E) external environment
Answer: B
Q2) By definition, the ________ environment focuses on scientific activities and innovations.
A) cultural
B) political
C) technological
D) competitive
E) legal
Answer: C
Q3) The threat of substitutes can reduce the power of a business.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Planning and Marketing in an Organization
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Q1) Which of the following is a decision process people and businesses use to manage systems to achieve an objective?
A) SWOT analysis
B) business planning
C) ROMI
D) the balanced scorecard
E) the BCG matrix
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the statement of how a business intends to achieve its marketing objectives?
A) business vision
B) business mission
C) marketing mix
D) marketing strategy
E) marketing audit
Answer: D
Q3) Into what BCG quadrant does a high share, high growth product or service fall?
Answer: It falls into the star category.
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Chapter 4: A Broader Perspective on Marketing
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Q1) A central assertion of ________ is that marketing techniques can be used to promote causes and improve the lives of individuals and society.
A) sustainability
B) the social marketing concept
C) marketing ethics
D) consumerism
E) environmentalism
Q2) The United States is most accurately characterized as a(n) ________.
A) global society
B) emerging market
C) underdeveloped market
D) traditional culture
E) consumer society
Q3) The Federal Trade Commission examines advertising from the point of view of a ________.
A) vulnerable consumer
B) reasonable consumer
C) marketer
D) competitor
E) disadvantaged consumer
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Chapter 5: Global Marketing
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Q1) A company with assets and operations in more than one country and that concentrates on penetrating multiple countries with a minimally customized marketing mix is referred to as a(n) ________ company.
A) international
B) outsourced
C) offshored
D) multinational
E) global
Q2) Which of the following holds certain individuals, such as diplomats, accountable to the laws of their home country while exempting them from the laws of a foreign country in which they are operating?
A) jurisdiction
B) extraterritoriality
C) power parity
D) exchange control
E) privatization
Q3) Name three things that marketers need to balance when selecting a market entry strategy.
Q4) Why are marketers exploring more opportunities in emerging markets?
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Chapter 6: Value for Customers
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Q1) It is most accurate to say that customers buy from stores and companies that offer which of the following?
A) the highest value for the dollar
B) the highest customer perceived value
C) the highest level of customer satisfaction
D) the most attractive company image
E) the most concern for society's interests
Q2) Shania works hard to foster an emotional relationship between her Internet customers and the beauty products and services that she and her staff sell. By promoting a company culture that values exceptional value and service, Shania aims to create ________ by going beyond the expected.
A) customer delight
B) customer satisfaction
C) switchable customers
D) neutral customers
E) a fair value zone
Q3) Explain why companies must be careful to "not overpromise and underdeliver" on their products and services.
Q4) Identify and explain the different components of a product's benefits and costs.
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Chapter 7: A Perspective on Consumer Behavior
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Q1) The consumer decision-making process usually involves both rational and emotional factors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A company that wants to market its new clothing line to running enthusiasts is a co-sponsor of a popular marathon. The company is hoping to connect with customers based on their life stage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person's buying choices are influenced by several major psychological factors. Which is NOT one of these factors?
A) motivation
B) perception
C) evaluation of alternatives
D) learning
E) beliefs
Q4) Listing them in the proper order, what are the stages in the buyer decision-making process? Describe each.
Q5) Give two examples of how the digital environment influences consumer behavior.
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Chapter 8: Consumer Insight
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Q1) ________ attempts to answer questions related to practical problems.
A) Syndicated research
B) Secondary data
C) Applied research
D) Pure research
E) Ethnographic research
Q2) You want to observe how often consumers listen to music throughout their day and what different audio devices they use. You are also interested in how consumers store and access their own music collections. You should conduct ________ research.
A) causal
B) experimental
C) secondary
D) pure
E) exploratory
Q3) Provide three reasons that a company may decide that marketing research is not appropriate.
Q4) Briefly compare and contrast the three general categories of research design.
Q5) Briefly identify and explain the two primary elements of a measurement plan.
Q6) Describe the five steps of the basic marketing research process.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Brand
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Q1) Which of the following was NOT among the top ten in Business Week's Annual Rating of the Best Global Brands for 2009?
A) Gap
B) Coca-Cola
C) Microsoft
D) IBM
E) Toyota
Q2) In the competition between ________ and ________ brands, retailers have the advantages of controlling what products will be stocked, where products will be stocked, and what prices will be charged.
A) national; manufacturer
B) store; private label
C) manufacturer; private label
D) store; licensed
E) private label; distributor
Q3) Identify the four central ideas that influence strategies to create global brand equity.
Q4) Briefly discuss how brand management is affected by social media and how a company can use social media to its advantage.
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Chapter 10: Segmenting, Targeting, and Positioning
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Q1) Many firms make an effort to identify smaller, better-defined target groups by using
A) user rates
B) loyalty segmentation
C) multiple segmentation bases
D) positioning
E) mass marketing
Q2) A company operating in the business market may find it useful to segment possible customers based on their level of risk aversion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Demographic segmentation is so frequently used in market segmentation because it ________.
A) creates smaller segments than other methods do
B) creates more easily reached segments than other methods do
C) does not involve stereotypes
D) involves the easiest information to obtain
E) involves the fewest attributes
Q4) Provide an example of behavioral targeting.
Q5) Compare and contrast the three major segmenting strategies.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Marketing Plan
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Q1) It is most accurate to say that a business plan is used to communicate the performance and direction of a business to ________.
A) targeted markets
B) consumers
C) government regulators
D) potential investors and stakeholders
E) marketers
Q2) The forecasting section of a marketing plan draws on data analysis rather than subjective judgment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Advertising, promotion, customer service, and distribution strategies are typically part of the ________ section in a marketing plan.
A) sales forecast
B) strategic controls
C) operational controls
D) marketing mix
E) BCG growth-market matrix
Q4) Identify and briefly describe the main components of a typical marketing plan.
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Chapter 12: Product and Service Strategies
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Q1) Which of the following is the innovation that involves the greatest degree of change?
A) concept change
B) cannibalization
C) context change
D) cosmetic change
E) style change
Q2) When Ringler set up a demonstration booth to learn about consumers' feelings toward her vacuum cleaner, she was doing which of the following?
A) concept testing
B) marketing strategy
C) idea screening
D) business analysis
E) commercializing
Q3) Cannibalization is a possible result of adding products to a portfolio.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give three examples of specialty products.
Q5) Give an example of the most basic level of product, the core benefit.
Q6) Describe the three different levels of a product.
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Chapter 13: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) Which of the following statements about break-even analysis is true?
A) It is used to determine how much production experience a company must have to achieve desired efficiencies.
B) It is a technique used to calculate fixed costs.
C) It determines the amount of retained earnings a company will have during an accounting period.
D) It is a technique marketers use to examine the relationship between supply and demand.
E) It is calculated using variable costs, the unit price, and fixed costs.
Q2) As production workers become better organized and more familiar with equipment, the average cost per unit decreases. This is called the ________.
A) demand curve
B) experience curve
C) skimming cost
D) penetration cost
E) marginal utility
Q3) A demand curve never appears on a graph as a straight line.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Supply Chain and Distribution Strategies
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Q1) ________ is the coordination of all activities related to the transportation or delivery of products and services that occur within the boundaries of a single business or organization.
A) Third-party logistics
B) Logistics
C) Channel management
D) Supply chain management
E) Transportation management
Q2) Instead of handling its logistics systems internally, a firm could hire a(n) ________ company to manage all or part of its distribution network.
A) just-in-time
B) RFID
C) SKU
D) TMS
E) 3PL
Q3) How might a logistics manager balance the need to both satisfy customer demands and maximize channel profit?
Q4) Distinguish between the three distribution intensity strategies.
Q5) Explain how a channel can provide a marketer with contact efficiency.
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Chapter 15: Retailing and Wholesaling Strategies
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Q1) Why would a producer use wholesalers rather than selling directly to retailers or consumers?
Q2) A retail margin is the difference between ________ and ________.
A) the volume of merchandise ordered; the volume of merchandise sold
B) the revenue generated by a retailer in a year; the taxes paid by a retailer in that same year
C) the retailer's operating expenses; the retailer's revenue
D) a product's retail selling price; a product's wholesale cost
E) a product's wholesale cost; a product's mark-up
Q3) Indiana Wood is best classified as a(n) ________ retailer.
A) full-service
B) self-service
C) limited-service
D) discount
E) off-price
Q4) Adrena Brown works in real estate, earning commissions when she brings a buyer and seller together and assists in the negotiation process. Adrena Brown is a selling agent.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Advertising and Sales Promotion Strategies
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Q1) Which of the following functions is LEAST likely to be performed by a public relations department?
A) sponsorships
B) publicity
C) product placement
D) brand activation
E) advertising media selection
Q2) Public relations involves, by definition, two-way communication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the communication model, a coffee cup printed with a company's name and logo is an example of a medium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the communication model, Sparkle Janitorial's radio spot is the ________.
A) message
B) sender
C) encoder
D) medium
E) feedback
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Personal Selling and Direct Marketing Strategies
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Q1) Through ________ used to train salespeople, all members of the sales force hear the company message at the same time and are motivated by the energy of the meeting.
A) sales meetings
B) webinars
C) on-demand training videos
D) Web-based knowledge centers
E) podcasts
Q2) Life cycle direct marketing is most likely to be used through which of the following?
A) infomercials
B) direct-response TV
C) email
D) telemarketing
E) direct-response advertising
Q3) What are the costs of a high turnover within a company's sales force?
Q4) Order taker and customer service representative are among the key sales roles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how marketers are planning to use personalized URLs and landing pages.
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Chapter 18: The Communications Mix
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Q1) Although network television advertising is expensive, the cost per exposure is relatively low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between media impact and media engagement.
Q3) A percentage-of-sales-revenue approach to setting a media budget is more complex than a task-and-objective approach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do magazines typically have a high degree of credibility and prestige?
Q5) Which of the following statements about magazines as an advertising medium is true?
A) Magazines have long lead times.
B) Magazines do not have a long life span in comparison to other print media.
C) Magazine advertisers almost always use a mass marketing strategy.
D) Magazines do not have a high level of credibility.
E) Magazines have poor reproduction quality of images.
Q6) Briefly describe the advantages and disadvantages of selecting an out-of-home media vehicle.
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Q7) Compare the strengths and weaknesses of the different types of broadcast media.
Chapter 19: The Marketing Mix
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Q1) Today, the most common classification of the components of a marketing mix is the
A) 4 Cs
B) 4 Ps
C) 7 Ps
D) 7 Cs
E) 12 variables
Q2) In addition to understanding the wants and needs of the target audience, what must marketers understand when introducing a new product into an established market segment?
Q3) In Kotler's 4 Cs model, ________ takes the place of promotion in the 4 Ps.
A) customer value
B) channel
C) credit
D) communication
E) convenience
Q4) A change of business objectives should not lead to a reevaluation of the company's marketing-mix strategy.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Marketing Performance Measurement
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Q1) Brand awareness and market share are both examples of ________.
A) data analytics
B) hurdle rates
C) marketing metrics
D) CRM indicators
E) return on marketing investment rates
Q2) Increasing market share and changing brand perceptions are both examples of ________.
A) qualitative metrics
B) quantitative metrics
C) qualitative analytics
D) quantitative analytics
E) marketing objectives
Q3) Briefly discuss why many companies choose to use music in their television and radio advertisements.
Q4) Explain the purpose of brand tracking and describe the three components that form the basic architecture of the brand tracking process.
Q5) When should a company use copy testing? Why?
Q6) What is a CRM program? Briefly explain its purpose.
Page 22
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