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Introduction to Management provides students with a comprehensive overview of management principles, functions, and practices within organizations. The course explores key concepts such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while examining the roles and responsibilities of managers in various business contexts. Students will analyze management theories, decision-making processes, leadership styles, and contemporary challenges, equipping them with foundational skills to effectively manage teams and resources in todays dynamic work environment.
Recommended Textbook
Management 1st Edition by Luis
R. Gomez Mejia
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15 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which approach to management believes that the whole is greater than the sum of the parts?
A) The operational approach
B) The systems approach
C) The administrative approach
D) The behavioral approach
Answer: B
Q2) The operational perspective on management attempted to discover the one best way of doing a job.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following quality experts advanced the use of statistics for constant quality improvement and assisted Japanese business leaders after World War II?
A) W. Edward Deming
B) Joseph M. Juran
C) Phillip Crosby
D) Arnand V. Feigenbaum
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following reflects a major development in the global business community?
A) Higher trade barriers
B) The United States no longer dominates the world economy
C) Stable world output
D) Isolated economic markets
Answer: B
Q2) The geocentric approach to managing an international subsidiary is likely to result in the hiring of more third-country nationals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a reason why international assignments end in failure?
A) Family problems
B) Culture shock
C) A poor benefits package
D) Lack of pre-departure cross-cultural training
Answer: C
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Q1) Discuss the impact of social activist groups on the social responsibility of organizations.
Answer: A business practice that runs counter to an important goal of a social activist group may result in negative media attention for the company or even a product boycott orchestrated by the social activist group.Although corporations cannot always satisfy such groups, it is often in their best interests to compromise with social activist groups to avoid being the focus of a campaign that can badly damage their reputation.
Q2) Which federal law provides protection to whistleblowers who disclose financial fraud in publicly traded corporations?
A) The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) Title VII
C) The ADA
D) Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: D
Q3) Business ethics is the same thing as laws.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following will be most effective in communicating the value a firm truly places on innovation?
A) The number of times the word innovation is used in speeches
B) The number of times the word innovation is used in company brochures and marketing material
C) The extent to which research & development budgets are the first cuts during economic hardship
D) The number of patents the company holds
Q2) Which of the following is not an aspect of an organization's culture?
A) Visible culture
B) Espoused values
C) Core values
D) Organizational personality
Q3) To the extent that organizational culture increases trust among employees, it reduces the need for
A) a code of ethics.
B) a performance appraisal system.
C) written documentation and monitoring of organizational members.
D) a disciplinary process.
Q4) List the choice of tactics for bringing about change in an organization.
Page 6
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Q1) What are tactical action plans? How do they differ from operational action plans?
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a benefit of planning?
A) Planning requires managers to assess the external environment to better respond to challenges.
B) An effective planning process provides an opportunity to separate the planners from the implementers.
C) The planning goals give organizational members a sense of direction and purpose.
D) Planning may help the firm reduce uncertainty by forcing managers to think long term.
Q3) The strength of MBO is its
A) ease of use.
B) lack of control mechanisms.
C) measurability.
D) ease of development.
Q4) How can managers maintain control during the change transition?
Q5) Contrast formal planning and opportunistic planning.
Q6) What are the three criteria for an effective strategic action plan?
Q7) What are the benefits of planning?
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Q1) Which decision-making model is most likely to be used when decision makers are undisciplined and have no clear immediate goals?
A) The garbage can model
B) The nominal group technique
C) The administrative model
D) The Delphi technique
Q2) What is the first step in effective delegation?
A) Be sure you communicate clearly when assigning the task.
B) Match the desired task with the most appropriate employee.
C) Determine what you want done.
D) Hold the employee responsible for the work and any difficulties that may emerge.
Q3) Which of the following may help make the implementation phase more successful?
A) Providing needed resources
B) Developing communication systems that enable management to know if the decision alternative is meeting its planned objective
C) Exercising leadership to persuade others to move the implementation forward
D) all of the above
Q4) List the six stages of decision making.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of strategic intent?
A) Strategic intent indicates how the firm will use its resources.
B) Strategic intent flows from the firm's mission.
C) Strategic intent is internally focused.
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a firm's tangible resources?
A) Reputation
B) Equipment
C) Human capital
D) The ability to create new technology faster than competitors
Q3) The role of boards of directors in monitoring the actions and decisions of top executives changed with the passage of
A) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
B) NAFTA.
C) the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act.
D) the ADA.
Q4) What is portfolio analysis?
Q5) Discuss the four components of an external environmental analysis.
Q6) Describe the recommendations of the Boston Consulting Group's Growth-Share Matrix.
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Q1) Entrepreneurship has provided an alternative career path for many minorities in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a new product that is developed by a corporation does not fit with the company's established products, what is the recommended form of entrepreneurship?
A) Intrapreneurship
B) Spin-offs
C) Franchises
D) Partnerships
Q3) Which of the following are key components of the business plan?
A) A description of the product or service
B) Sources of funding
C) An analysis of market trends and potential competitors
D) all of the above
Q4) Among the skills required for success by entrepreneurs are negotiation skills, networking skills, and leadership skills.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is formalization?
Q2) When managers must work with managers of other units or with customers outside of their organization, they have been given ________ without equal levels of ________.
A) authority; responsibility
B) accountability; responsibility
C) responsibility; authority
D) responsibility; accountability
Q3) The ________ is a variation of the product-based divisional structure that is made up of a set of unrelated businesses.
A) matrix
B) conglomerate
C) functional structure
D) team approach
Q4) The matrix approach superimposes a divisional structure over a functional structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three basic organization designs? Describe their features.
Q6) What are the symptoms of a malfunctioning organization design?
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of U.S. unions as compared to unions in most other countries?
A) U.S. unions tend to pursue political goals.
B) The government is closely involved in labor-management relations.
C) U.S. unions tend to be organized by the type of job.
D) In all countries, the labor relations system stresses competition rather than cooperation.
Q2) The law considered to be the most important addressing discrimination is
A) the Occupational and Safety Act.
B) the Fair Labor Standards Act.
C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
D) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
Q3) An indicator that signals something is wrong with HR practices is
A) the inability to recruit top talent.
B) the loss of key employees to competitors.
C) low innovation by employees afraid of taking risks or with outdated skills.
D) all of the above
Q4) What is the difference between disparate treatment and adverse impact?
Q5) Describe the three components of the staffing process.
Q6) Discuss the difference between external and internal equity.
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Q1) A challenge presented to HR managers and companies by diversity programs is that
A) white males may view a program as a threat to their own opportunities for advancement.
B) the perception of special treatment may undermine the formal procedures, policies, and enforcement mechanisms of the diversity program.
C) women and minorities in positions of authority may not receive as much respect from their subordinates and colleagues as do white men.
D) all of the above
Q2) Motorola's phones with a zoom function to bump up the font size on the screen and internal speakers that can be connected to hearing aids were intended to target ________ consumers.
A) female
B) aging
C) disabled
D) minority
Q3) Discuss the stereotypes and reality of older workers.
Q4) What are the myth and the reality of the "American melting pot"?
Q5) What is the difference between affirmative action and diversity?
Q6) What are some of the unique challenges of women in the workforce?
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Q1) The view that having the strength to act in a particular way depends on people's beliefs that their actions will produce outcomes they find valuable and attractive is the basis of
A) equity theory.
B) attribution theory.
C) expectancy theory.
D) path-goal theory.
Q2) According to House's path-goal theory, what are the four leadership behaviors?
Q3) The two dimensions of leadership studied in the Ohio State research were
A) consideration and initiating structure.
B) production-oriented and employee-oriented behaviors.
C) concern for production and concern for people.
D) team management and country club management.
Q4) Often when people who are promoted on the basis of technical ability fail in their new jobs, it is because they lack emotional competencies that are crucial at the higher level.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Fiedler, what are the determinants of a situation to identify which leader behavior is suitable?
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Q1) Free riders are also known as
A) social loafers.
B) disruptive high performers.
C) insecure supervisors.
D) nonconforming high performers.
Q2) Which is not one of the stages of team development?
A) Forming
B) Dorming
C) Storming
D) Adjourning
Q3) To be fully functional, self-managed team members need to be trained in A) technical skills.
B) management skills.
C) interpersonal skills.
D) all of the above
Q4) An effective team
A) does not enforce violations of norms with sanctions.
B) operates with low levels of cohesiveness.
C) exhibits independence among team members.
D) trusts one another.
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Q1) Communication is successful when A) information is transmitted.
B) meaning is understood.
C) information is received.
D) all of the above
Q2) Describe the communication model.
Q3) Organizational communication patterns operate A) downward.
B) upward.
C) horizontally.
D) all of the above
Q4) Discuss information richness and provide examples of rich and lean communication channels.
Q5) An advantage to companies using social networking tools for recruiting is A) it is faster and cheaper than traditional recruiting methods.
B) everyone is already on a social networking site.
C) it ensures that applicants have IT skills.
D) it allows companies to perform due diligence on applicants.
Q6) What are the barriers to effective communication?
Q7) What is the difference between one-way and two-way communication?
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Q1) Recently, TQM has become less visible in the organization because it is less important overall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is considered the father of quality management.
A) Imai
B) Pareto
C) Deming
D) Kanban
Q3) What is MRP?
Q4) What is flexible manufacturing?
Q5) Common causes of ongoing variances that operations management should correct include which of the following?
A) Scheduling errors
B) Inaccurate documentation
C) Weak designs
D) all of the above
Q6) What are the steps that make up the quality approach according to Deming?
Q7) What is operations management and what are the three stages of operation?
Q8) What are the three basic control types that a manager can exercise? Page 17
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