Introduction to Management
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Management provides an overview of the fundamental concepts, principles, and functions of management within modern organizations. The course covers key topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, with a focus on decision-making, organizational structure, leadership styles, and effective communication. Students will explore the roles and responsibilities of managers at various levels, analyze real-world business scenarios, and develop essential management skills crucial for future careers in business and administration.
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MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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54 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Amazon.com. Which traditional management function will be key to make sure Amazon is never again burdened with thousands of dollars worth of unsold inventory?
A) organizing
B) leading
C) planning
D) motivating
E) controlling
Answer: E
Q2) Refer to Volkswagen. In late September, Pischetsrieder flew to Brussels to meet with employees at a VW plant and explain his plans for improving the company's profitability. In this example, the CEO assumed the role of:
A) figurehead
B) spokesperson
C) liaison
D) disseminator
E) monitor
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly responsible for producing the company's products or services, are categorized as:
A) general managers
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) top managers
Answer: C
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Q1) Which type of skills tends to be most important to the success of lower-level managers?
A) decisional skills
B) human skills
C) conceptual skills
D) motivation to manage
E) technical skills
Answer: E
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Top managers are responsible for creating a context for change in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: History of Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The contingency approach to management holds that there is not one best way to manage an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Henri Fayol is responsible for developing ____.
A) bureaucratic management
B) administrative management
C) operations management
D) contingency management
E) human relations management
Q3) Which of the following management theorists believed that workers ultimately grant managers their authority?
A) Chester Barnard
B) Max Weber
C) Mary Parker Follett
D) Elton Mayo
E) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth
Q4) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth studied the psychology of groups.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Q1) Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Gantt chart:
A) was a precursor to the organizational chart
B) is a chart that shows when and where tasks need to be completed so that a job can be completed in a timely fashion
C) was an early method for breaking jobs down into their smallest common denominator
D) was a major tool of scientific managers and is not widely used today
E) is a method for continuous training of front-line employees
Q3) Nearly all organizations should be viewed as ______ that interact with their environments and depend on them for survival.
A) covert systems
B) open systems
C) synergistic subsystems
D) closed systems
E) entropic subsystems
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Page 7
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) A Gantt chart can be used to track informal communication paths.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the origins of management is true?
A) Job enrichment was developed during the last half of the twentieth century.
B) Management as a field of study is only about 125 years old.
C) Information management appeared with the first computers.
D) The use of management functions would have made the building of the Egyptian pyramids more efficient.
E) All of the above statements about the origin of management are true.
Q3) Management ideas and practices have actually been used from the earliest times of recorded history.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Frederick Taylor was the father of systems management.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Q1) An increase in ____ can lead to opportunistic behavior in which one party benefits at the expense of the other.
A) managerial commitment
B) buyer dependence
C) industry regulation
D) advocacy group activities
E) consumer confidence indicators
Q2) Refer to Dofasco. Dofasco operates according to the punctuated equilibrium theory. This means the company ____.
A) incorporates both planning and control within its long-term strategy
B) operates with a virtually flat organizational structure
C) has periods of long stability punctuated by short periods of dynamic change
D) motivates its employees by maintaining a salary/wage equilibrium
E) emphasizes working in harmony with its environments
Q3) Discuss how difficult is it to change an organizational culture. Then identify three approaches that can be used to accomplish that goal.
Q4) Briefly define and explain the relationship between environmental change, complexity, uncertainty, and resource scarcity.
Q5) Briefly differentiate the two basic approaches used for monitoring customers.
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) An organization engaged in __________ is searching the environment for important events or issues that might affect an organization.
A) a competitive assessment
B) environmental scanning
C) environmental advocacy
D) an internal situational analysis
E) a market audit
Q2) Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to:
A) create benchmarks
B) assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
C) develop new products
D) locate new markets for existing products
E) modify corporate culture
Q3) The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) __________ involves deciding who your competitors are, anticipating competitors' moves, and determining competitors' strengths and weaknesses.
A) Competitive mapping
B) A market audit
C) A SWOT analysis
D) A proactive strategy
E) A competitive analysis
Q2) External environments are the forces and events outside a company that have the potential to influence or affect it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In terms of environmental complexity, __________ environments have few environmental factors, whereas __________ environments have many environmental factors.
A) non-competitive; competitive
B) simple; complex
C) stable; dynamic
D) scarce; abundant
E) market-oriented; product-oriented
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) What does it mean when the text says that the U.S. Sentencing Guidelines use a "carrot and stick" approach?
A) The method of punishment is similar to Halloween "trick or treat" practices.
B) The Guidelines reward quick-responding reactive organizations.
C) The Guidelines offer lower fines to companies that take proactive steps.
D) The Guidelines ask companies not to emphasize just one area of ethical behavior.
E) none of these
Q2) Kowalski's Markets, a local supermarket chain in Minneapolis, expanded by purchasing four existing stores. One of the stores was located in Minneapolis' Camden neighborhood, a lower-class community unlike the store's typical upscale customer demographic. Rather than sell the property, the owners decided they had a(n) ____ to provide a neighborhood grocery store to that community.
A) equitable responsibility
B) legal stakeholder duty
C) fiscal responsibility
D) organizational responsibility
E) social responsibility
Q3) Identify and briefly describe Kohlberg's three phases of moral development.
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Page 12
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) The categories of social responsibility for a company are economic, legal, ethical, and discretionary
A)True
B)False
Q2) Traditional college students who think about their parents' and grandparents' reactions to their decisions before putting the decision into action are more than likely operating according to which principle of ethical decision making?
A) the principle of long-term self-interest
B) the principle of utilitarian requirements
C) the principle of distributive justice
D) the principle of community injunctions
E) the principle of personal virtue
Q3) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
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Page 13
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Q1) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
Q2) Which of the following principles of ethical decision making would support the practice of "looking after number one"?
A) the principle of long-term self-interest
B) the principle of personal virtue
C) a discretionary code of ethics
D) a utilitarian code of ethics
E) the equity principle
Q3) Kohlberg's three phases of moral development in order are law and order, instrumental exchange, and universal principle.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Q1) A manufacturer of suntan lotion could set a(n) ____ goal to increase revenues by 8 percent over the next five years and a(n) ____ goal to increase sales next June in the Miami Beach area by 3 percent.
A) tactical; strategic
B) operational; tactical
C) distal; proximal
D) operational; strategic
E) proximal; distal
Q2) An Australian manufacturer of surfboards wants to increase awareness of its brand in the U.S. market. A ____ plan to accomplish this objective might be to host a series of surfboard competitions in California .
A) contingency
B) single-use
C) standing
D) visionary
E) tactical
Q3) All decision making by management is rational.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q2) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
A) policies
B) procedures
C) rules and regulations
D) forecasts
E) MBO plans
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Q1) The first step in rational decision making is to:
A) conduct a systematic environmental analysis
B) define the problem
C) evaluate the alternatives
D) choose the solutions
E) create a management team
Q2) Top management is responsible for developing long-term __________ that make clear how the company will serve customers and position itself against competitors in the next two to five years.
A) standing plans
B) tactical plans
C) operational plans
D) strategic plans
E) mission statements
Q3) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Q1) Starbucks, the operator of Starbucks coffeehouses, also markets a line of compilation CDs and other non-coffee items. The making and marketing of the CDs and other non-coffee products would be an example of ____.
A) related differentiation
B) related diversification
C) an integrated acquisition
D) competency acquisition
E) unrelated diversification
Q2) When making travel plans, many tourists have selected Thomas Cook, a British tour operation, because they perceive that no other tour company can duplicate the customer service and satisfaction that Thomas Cook has provided over its years of operation. Thomas Cook has apparently created a sustainable competitive advantage by using ____ resources.
A) synergistic
B) valuable
C) tangible
D) nonsubstitutable
E) rare
Q3) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.
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Page 18
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) Reactors follow the consistent strategy of anticipating and reacting to potential external opportunities and threats prior to their occurrence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first step in the strategy-making process is to:
A) assess the need for strategic change
B) conduct a situation analysis
C) choose strategic alternatives
D) evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment
E) create a strategic budget
Q3) According to Strategic Reference Point Theory, managers have two basic strategic alternatives. They are:
A) risk-avoiding strategy and pioneering strategy
B) risk-avoiding strategy and risk-seeking strategy
C) risk-maintenance strategy and conflict-avoidance strategy
D) frontal attack strategy and guerrilla strategy
E) none of these
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19
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) Significant cost reductions, layoffs of employees, closing of poorly performing stores, offices, or manufacturing plants, or closing or selling entire lines of products or services would be characteristic of a __________ strategy.
A) portfolio
B) retrenchment
C) stability
D) firm-level
E) rehabilitation
Q2) An organization implementing a(n) ____________________ strategy would NOT follow a consistent strategy.
A) defender
B) pioneer
C) analyzer
D) reactor
E) prospector
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Page 20
Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) The General Electric workout is a special kind of ____.
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
Q2) What are innovation streams? Describe a typical innovation stream.
Q3) The use of milestones in the experiential approach to innovation ____.
A) provides structure to the general chaos that follows technological discontinuities
B) shortens the innovation process
C) builds momentum by giving people a sense of accomplishment
D) lets an organization know when to take corrective action
E) does all of these
Q4) Briefly describe the typical pattern of technology cycles that occurs during technological innovation.
Q5) Resistance to change usually results from organizational factors: such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following approaches is aimed at changing large systems, small groups, or individuals?
A) General Electric workout
B) the functional approach to change
C) organizational development
D) results-driven change
E) Lewin's change synthesis
Q3) A technology __________ begins with the "birth" of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and "dies" as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
A) process
B) pattern
C) cycle
D) hierarchy
E) continuum
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following approaches is aimed at changing large systems, small groups, or individuals?
A) General Electric workout
B) the functional approach to change
C) organizational development
D) results-driven change
E) Lewin's change synthesis
Q2) Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
A) innovation maps
B) organization development
C) results-driven change
D) innovation streams
E) cyclical inventions
Q3) The first stage of organizational decline is:
A) crisis
B) inaction
C) blinded
D) faulty action
E) dissolution
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Chapter 8: Global Management
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Q1) The Green Giant consumer products company learned that it could not use their Jolly Green Giant character in parts of Asia where a green hat worn by a man signifies that he has an unfaithful wife. This is an example of a(n) ____ that influenced global marketing.
A) geocentric attitude
B) control strategy
C) cooperative strategy
D) cultural difference
E) avoidance strategy
Q2) The criteria for choosing an office/manufacturing location are different from the criteria for entering a foreign market.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly explain how companies can assess the growth potential of new markets.
Q4) Global new ventures bring a good or service to market in one foreign market at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe a regional trade agreement and a worldwide trade agreement.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) More than any other regional trade agreement, the Maastricht Treaty of Europe liberalizes trade between countries so that businesses can plan to operate in a single market instead of multiple national markets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
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25
Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
A) government import standards and industry import standards
B) qualitative and quantitative barriers
C) voluntary and involuntary barriers
D) nationalistic and geocentric barriers
E) tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
Q2) An expatriate is someone who:
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
Q3) One of the major questions that a company must typically answer once it has decided to go global is:
A) How many additional employees will the company need?
B) To what extent should the company standardize or adapt business procedures?
C) To what extent should a company abide by global or regional trade agreements?
D) Will the organization's mission statement need to be changed?
E) How many new shareholders will be influenced by global activities?
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Page 26
Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) A(n) ____ is a form of matrix departmentalization in which managers in different parts of the matrix negotiate conflicts and resources directly.
A) simple matrix
B) networked matrix
C) empathetic matrix
D) matrix of convenience
E) synergistic matrix
Q2) Explain what is meant by the term departmentalization. List the five traditional approaches to departmentalization.
Q3) Which of the following statements about functional departmentalization is true?
A) Functional departmentalization allows work to be done by highly qualified specialists.
B) Functional departmentalization increases costs by reducing duplication.
C) Functional departmentalization complicates communication and coordination for departmental managers.
D) Functional departmentalization requires the same kinds of functional departments in any company.
E) Functional departmentalization is also called free-form specialization.
Q4) What is job specialization? Briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others, __________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants.
A) modular organizations
B) hierarchical organizations
C) boundaryless organizations
D) organizational networks
E) virtual organizations
Q2) The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
Q2) A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
A) modular
B) departmentalized
C) standardized
D) organic
E) mechanistic
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) What are virtual teams? Speculate on their likely role in global organizations in the future.
Q2) When teams are used properly and in the right settings, work teams can ____.
A) help organizations respond to specific problems and challenges
B) dramatically improve company performance
C) instill a sense of vitality in the workplace that is otherwise difficult to achieve
D) increase customer satisfaction and service quality
E) do all of these
Q3) Since teams that get stuck in the storming stage will be strained but productive, it is important for team leaders to focus the team on balancing cognitive and affective conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the five guidelines managers use to determine the use of teams?
Q5) What are stretch goals? What four things must occur for stretch goals to motivate teams effectively?
Q6) Define cross training. Briefly explain how cross training can lead to increased job satisfaction.
Q7) Explain what managers can do to manage conflict in teams effectively.
Page 30
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
Q3) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
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31
Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q2) How would you respond to the following statement? "Group conflict is always bad."
A) Affective conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.
B) Both a-conflict and c-conflict are harmful, but b-conflict is not.
C) All cognitive conflict is bad, but all affective conflict is beneficial to the group.
D) Cognitive conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.
E) The statement is correct.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) Which of the following questions is deemed acceptable (i.e., "legal") for employers to ask applicants during the selection process?
A) Are you a United States citizen?
B) Have you ever filed a lawsuit against an employer?
C) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
D) Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
E) None of these
Q2) ____ interviewing typically leads to much more accurate hiring decisions (i.e., correctly predicting which job applicants will perform better, and therefore should be hired).
A) Structured
B) Unstructured
C) Scripted
D) Formalized
E) Scenario
Q3) Identify two common problems that occur during the performance appraisal process. Recommend one approach for avoiding each of these problems.
Q4) Identify and describe the three kinds of job interviews. Which type works best as a selection tool?
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Q1) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) scripted
E) canned
Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) customer complaints
Q2) A __________ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates, peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
A) 360-degree feedback
B) performance appraisal iteration
C) reciprocal appraisal
D) grapevine appraisal
E) circular feedback program
Q3) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
Sample Questions
Q1) Older workers ____.
A) tend to perform less effectively compared to younger workers
B) are more likely to quit, be late, or be absent than younger workers
C) typically demonstrate poor judgment
D) care less about the quality of their output than younger workers
E) are accurately described by none of these
Q2) Affirmative action is defined as the purposeful steps taken by an organization to create employment opportunities for minorities and women. It is required by law for private employers with 15 or more employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Comment on the nature, sources, pervasiveness, and impact of age discrimination in the United States. Give an example of one situation that you are acquainted with that could be construed as an example of age discrimination. Explain how, if at all, the possible remedies for age discrimination provided in the text could have avoided the situation described in your example.
Q4) What does the term diversity mean? Briefly explain why it is an important issue for contemporary business.
Q5) Why does fostering diversity in companies make good business sense?
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force:
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972
Sample Questions
Q1) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following paradigms for managing diversity is similar to the business growth advantage of diversity?
A) the discrimination and fairness paradigm
B) the access and legitimacy paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the personal integration paradigm
E) the cultural stereotype paradigm
Q3) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q3) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a paradigm for managing diversity?
A) the paradigm of organizational diversity
B) the Machiavellian paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the affirmative action paradigm
E) the sociocultural paradigm
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) The three components of ____ are initiation of effort, direction of effort, and persistence of effort.
A) compliance
B) self-management
C) motivation
D) performance
E) efficiency
Q2) A sales manager has carefully selected the members of two sales teams so that they have, as nearly as possible, identical skills and abilities. Both are assigned potential customers in the same industry. Both groups are offered the same rewards. One team makes the sale, and the other does not. This information tells you that ____.
A) performance and motivation are unrelated
B) the concept of synergy is faulty
C) one of the components that leads to job performance was weak
D) nothing motivates some people
E) all of these are true
Q3) Give an example of one well-known needs theory. Be sure to identify the needs described by that theory.
Q4) How can managers use reinforcement theory to motivate their employees?
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Q1) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Overreward frequently causes inequity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
Q2) To use expectancy theory to motivate employees, managers can
A) assign specific, challenging goals
B) make all rewards equal in value
C) avoid overreward and underreward
D) avoid the use of empowerment
E) systematically gather information to find out what employees want from their jobs
Q3) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41979
Sample Questions
Q1) Leadership is the process of influencing others to achieve group or organizational goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare and contrast charismatic and transformational leadership. Explain why ethical transgressions are less likely among transformational leaders than they are among charismatic leaders.
Q3) Briefly explain the difference between transformational and transactional leadership.
Q4) Transformational leaders that pay special attention to followers' individual needs by creating learning opportunities, accepting and tolerating individual differences, encouraging two-way communication, and practice being a good listener describes the component of transformational leadership known as ____?
A) idealized influence
B) inspirational motivation
C) intellectual stimulation
D) individualized consideration
E) influential stimulation
Q5) Identify and define the components of visionary leadership.
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
Q3) Whereas managers tend to have a short-term perspective, leaders tend to have a long-term perspective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are central to successful leadership.
A) initiating structure; consideration
B) initiating structure; job-centered leadership
C) employee-centered leadership; consideration
D) concern for production; job-centered leadership
E) autonomous; participative
Q2) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q3) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41982
Sample Questions
Q1) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about hearing and listening are true?
A) Hearing and listening are synonyms.
B) Hearing is the act of perceiving sounds, while listening is the act of making a conscious effort to hear.
C) Hearing and listening both require paralanguage during communication transmission.
D) By definition, listening is passive, and hearing is active.
E) Listening is an involuntary behavior, and hearing is a voluntary behavior.
Q3) As a general rule, managers prefer written communication methods over oral communication methods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly explain why it is important for managers to understand nonverbal communication.
Q5) Distinguish between coaching and counseling.
Q6) List and briefly define the four parts of the perception process.
Page 45
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:
A) company hotlines
B) surprise visits
C) survey feedback
D) frequent informal meetings
E) participative management
Q2) In which of the following cases would written communication be preferable to oral communication?
A) when immediate feedback is needed
B) when messages are complex and ambiguous
C) when messages are emotion laden
D) when messages are very simple
E) when paralanguage is required
Q3) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
Q2) The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as:
A) downward, horizontal, and upward
B) hierarchical, functional, and organizational
C) horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
D) upward, dyadic, and downward
E) vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
Q3) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
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Chapter 16: Control
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985
Sample Questions
Q1) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly states what specific actions managers should or should not take in order to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Briefly describe the Balanced Scorecard approach to control. Explain how it differs from the traditional approach to control used in most companies.
Q3) Feedforward control provides information about performance deficiencies by monitoring inputs, not outputs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Control is achieved when behavior and work procedures conform to set standards and that the company goals are accomplished.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Control loss usually has no effect on goal achievement.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the term cybernetic and its relevance to the control process.
Page 48
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers should or should not do to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basic control process begins with:
A) either benchmarking or keystoning
B) the establishment of clear standards of performance
C) the comparison of actual performance to expected performance
D) problem identification
E) determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed expected performance
Q3) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers should or should not do to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The two types of objective controls managers use are:
A) output and input
B) administrative and participative
C) self-control and organizational control
D) autonomous and individualized
E) behavior and output
Q3) The basic control process begins with:
A) either benchmarking or keystoning
B) the establishment of clear standards of performance
C) the comparison of actual performance to expected performance
D) problem identification
E) determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed expected performance
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first company to gain first-mover advantage typically benefits from higher profits and larger market share.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about data mining is true?
A) Data mining is the specific process used to match buyers and sellers.
B) Data mining is too expensive for most companies to use at this time.
C) The two forms of data mining are centralized and decentralized.
D) Data mining typically uses data from a data warehouse.
E) All of these statements about data mining are true.
Q3) Refer to Jupiter Communications. An individual's unprocessed response to a Kibu survey would be an example of ____.
A) information
B) knowledge
C) raw data
D) mining statistics
E) personal statistics
Q4) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
A) Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
B) For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
C) Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing, storage, retrieval, and communication.
D) Useful information does not come cheaply.
E) All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
Q2) Although firewalls can protect personal computers and network services connected to the corporate network, people away from their offices who interact with their company networks via the Internet face a safety risk. Which of the following technologies has proven to be a viable solution to this problem?
A) safe software for logic (SSL) encryption
B) firewall reengineering
C) secure sockets layer (SSL) encryption
D) secure logistical LAN (SLL) encryption
E) virus protected networks (VPNs)
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
Q2) In the process of capturing information, ASCII text is generated by:
A) bar codes
B) electronic scanners
C) optical character recognition software
D) e-tools
E) data mining
Q3) Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to the person for which the data were gathered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41989
Sample Questions
Q1) The first step in the service-profit chain is the establishment of ____.
A) employee satisfaction
B) service capability
C) internal service quality
D) high value service
E) nonmonetary rewards
Q2) In TQM terms, ____ is an organizational goal to provide products or deliver services that meet or exceed customers' expectations.
A) market response
B) customer satisfaction
C) market focus
D) positive framing
E) added value
Q3) Economic order quantity is intended for use with independent demand systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define productivity. Provide an everyday example of a measure of productivity that consumers sometimes use in deciding which car to purchase.
Q5) There are two ways to define quality. Describe both of them.
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
Q2) The two types of productivity are:
A) partial productivity and complete productivity
B) multifactor productivity and partial productivity
C) individual productivity and departmental productivity
D) departmental productivity and organizational productivity
E) organizational productivity and industry productivity
Q3) The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:
A) third party certification
B) delegation
C) participative management
D) customer focus and satisfaction
E) distinctive competence
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41990
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a criterion on which companies are judged when applying for the Baldrige National Quality Award?
A) leadership
B) business results
C) customer and market focus
D) competitive advantage
E) process management
Q2) Two common measures of productivity are extrinsic productivity and intrinsic productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term __________ refers to restoring customer satisfaction to strongly dissatisfied customers.
A) service recovery
B) service enhancement
C) customer focus
D) customer reengineering
E) relationship marketing
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