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Introduction to Management Exam Review - 1987 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Management Exam Review

Course Introduction

Introduction to Management offers students a comprehensive overview of fundamental management concepts and practices. The course explores the roles and responsibilities of managers within contemporary organizations, covering topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. Students will examine management theories, organizational structures, decision-making processes, and the importance of effective communication and teamwork. Through case studies and real-world examples, learners will gain practical insights into motivating employees, managing change, and fostering ethical behavior in the workplace, preparing them for future leadership roles.

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Organizational Behavior 18th Edition by Stephen P. Robbins

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Page 2

Chapter 1: What Is Organizational Behavior?

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Q1) According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, a(n) ________ searches the organization and its environment for opportunities and initiates projects to bring about change.

A) spokesperson

B) disturbance handler

C) entrepreneur

D) resource allocator

E) negotiator

Answer: C

Q2) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

Q3) Organizational behavior applies the knowledge gained about individuals, groups, and the effect of structure on behavior in order to make organizations work more effectively.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Diversity in Organizations

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Q1) Explain how studying individuals with disabilities is an integral part of the study of organizational behavior.

Answer: With the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) in 1990, the representation of individuals with disabilities in the U.S. workforce rapidly increased. According to the ADA, employers are required to make reasonable accommodations so their workplaces will be accessible to individuals with physical or mental disabilities. Making inferences about the relationship between disability and employment outcomes is difficult because the term disability is so broad. The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission classifies a person as disabled who has any physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. Some jobs obviously cannot be accommodated to some disabilities. For example, the law and common sense recognize that a blind person could not be a bus driver. However, the increasing presence of computer technology and other adaptive devices is shattering many traditional barriers to employment, making it easier for the disabled to enter the workforce.

Q2) Effective diversity management involves eliminating unfair discrimination.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Attitudes and Job Satisfaction

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Q1) The affective component of attitude is the emotional, or feeling, segment of an attitude.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth is referred to as

A) emotional contagion

B) job involvement

C) job stability

D) emotional dissonance

E) direct action

Answer: B

Q3) If there is an inconsistency between an individual's attitude on a specific issue and his/her behavior, there are only two courses of action available-alter the attitude or alter the behavior.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Emotions and Moods

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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an epicurean activity which helps increase a person's positive mood?

A) attending a meeting

B) playing video games

C) going on a ski vacation

D) eating a meal with friends

E) watching a movie

Q2) ________ refers to inconsistencies between the emotions people feel and the emotions they project.

A) Collective efficacy

B) Emotional dissonance

C) Social loafing

D) Positivity offset

E) Self-concordance

Q3) Deep acting is hiding feelings and foregoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are affect, emotions, and moods?

Q5) What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions?

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Personality and Values

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Q1) Milton Rokeach organized values into two categories: ________ values and ________ values.

A) instrumental; terminal

B) fluid; stable

C) flexible; essential

D) unique; general

E) flexible; enduring

Q2) Ellen Athers works as a communication executive at a travel house. She is known to be friendly with her colleagues and interacts with them regularly to build strong work relationships. She knows that her rapport with her co-workers is a crucial part of her work and invests time in these relationships. In addition, she is assertive in making decisions, and colleagues take her decisions seriously. Which of the following types is Athers most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

A) perceiving

B) brooder

C) extraverted

D) introverted

E) solitary

Q3) What are the two main means of measuring personality? Discuss.

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Chapter 6: Perception and Individual Decision Making

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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the rational decision-making model?

A) It takes into consideration the limited information-processing capability of individuals.

B) It involves constructing simplified models without capturing all their complexity.

C) It deals with satisficing decisions by seeking solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient.

D) It assumes that an individual is able to identify all relevant options in an unbiased manner.

E) It is an unconscious decision-making process created from distilled experience.

Q2) With reference to the attribution theory, which of the following terms indicates the extent to which an individual displays different behaviors in different situations?

A) flexibility

B) integrity

C) consensus

D) consistency

E) distinctiveness

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Chapter 7: Motivation Concepts

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Q1) Which of following needs best corresponds to McClelland's need for affiliation?

A) safety-security

B) interpersonal relationships

C) esteem

D) self-actualization

E) physiological belongingness

Q2) Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?

A) Joe

B) Mary

C) Tim

D) Sarah

E) Doug

Q3) Briefly explain Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory.

Q4) MBO emphasizes goals that are ________.

A) tangible, verifiable, and measurable

B) achievable, controllable, and profitable

C) inspirational, verifiable, and creative

D) tangible, rewarding, and assigned

E) profitable, attainable, and self-set

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Motivation: From Concepts to Applications

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Q1) Extraverted and emotionally stable individuals tend to be more receptive to and perform better under pay for performance, whereas conscientious employees are not as receptive.

A)True

B)False

Q2) People with more education are more apt to work from home.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Andrew is a software tester. He runs through the same types of programs day after day looking for bugs and reporting them. He is taking night classes on programming. Often, he knows the best solution to many of the bugs, but he is still learning to code.

Describe two job characteristics that Andrew is striving to improve, and explain two ways that Andrew's manager can redesign his current job to help him reach his goals.

Q4) Explain how participative management can enhance skill variety, task identity, and autonomy as described in the Job Characteristics Model (JCM).

Q5) Flexible benefits plans are available worldwide.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Foundations of Group Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a(n) ________ for him.

A) nominal group

B) organizational group

C) control group

D) intervention group

E) reference group

Q2) Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Describe the punctuated-equilibrium model.

Q4) Discuss the impact of brainstorming on the possibility of groupthink.

Q5) Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.

Q6) Explain group polarization.

Q7) Describe cohesiveness as a property of groups. How can a group be made more cohesive?

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Chapter 10: Understanding Work Teams

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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding a culturally diverse team?

A) Elements of diversity do not interfere with team processes.

B) Culturally homogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems than culturally heterogeneous teams.

C) Teams dominated with high cultural status individuals improve performance for every member.

D) Cultural diversity within a team is not advisable for those tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints.

E) Culturally diverse teams are more affected by surface-level diversity than by deep-level diversity.

Q2) Teams and traditional departments have the same level of flexibility and responsiveness to external changes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is organizational demography? What is its significance?

Q4) Discuss the difference between a work group and a work team.

Q5) What is the relationship between task conflicts and reflexivity among team members?

Q6) What is a cross-functional team?

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) When attempting to communicate a written message persuasively, it is desirable that ________.

A) the receiver has an information overload

B) the sender has a high need for cognition

C) the sender has used phrases and jargon to clarify the meaning of the message

D) the receiver and the sender can view each other's nonverbal cues

E) the receiver is in a positive mood

Q2) Communication apprehension applies to oral and written communication.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements is true with regard to communication?

A) Communication cannot be used to motivate and control employees in an organization.

B) Communication involves the transfer and understanding of meaning.

C) Communication involves the mere imparting of meaning to another person or group.

D) Perfect communication is not dependent on a channel and its richness.

E) Perfect communication results in dissimilar mental models.

Q4) Explain how the grapevine functions and why it exists in organizational communication.

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Chapter 12: Leadership

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most important event an organization needs to plan for?

Q2) According to the Fiedler contingency model, a very favorable situation in which the leader has a great deal of control is characterized by ________.

A) high task structure, good leader-member relations, and strong position power

B) limited position power, good leader-member relations, and low task structure

C) less structured jobs, strong position power, and moderate leader-member relations

D) broad employee responsibilities, low position power, and moderate leader-member relations

E) good leader-member relations, low position power, unstructured jobs

Q3) In the context of the Fiedler contingency model, leader-member relations measures the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Ohio State Studies started with more than a thousand dimensions of leader behavior.

A)True

B)False

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Power and Politics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Carl believes that he is lucky to be working under a manager like Mr. Parker-conscientious, flexible and easy to work with. It was Mr. Parker who helped Carl learn the demands of the job, gave him opportunities to learn from the mistakes he made, and always provided sound advice. Mr. Parker, who has been in the field for over eighteen years, never made Carl feel like a novice and this only increased Carl's personal confidence in his work and his loyalty toward his manager. Carl, who is now doing very well on the job, aims to be a manager like Mr. Parker. From this scenario, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

A) Mr. Parker is an authoritarian manager.

B) Carl has a low degree of trust propensity.

C) Mr. Parker has a high degree of referent power.

D) Mr. Parker engages in a lot of ingratiation.

E) Mr. Parker exercises a high degree of coercive power.

Q2) List and discuss the bases of formal power.

Q3) Explain impression management and discuss which impression management techniques are most effective in an interview.

Q4) What are defensive behaviors? Provide three examples of defensive behaviors and explain why an employee would engage in the behavior.

Q5) How does reward power contribute to sexual harassment?

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Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations?

A) Men and women negotiate differently.

B) Men value status more than women.

C) Women value compassion and altruism more than men.

D) Men place a lower value on economic outcomes than women.

E) Women place a higher value on relationship outcomes than men.

Q2) Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________.

A) perceived and felt

B) apparent and experienced

C) expressed and resolved

D) analyzed

E) internalized

Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding distributive bargaining?

A) It operates under zero-sum conditions.

B) It focuses on long-term relationships.

C) It involves high information sharing.

D) It attempts to create a win-win solution.

E) It is rarely used in labor-management negotiations.

Q4) Describe the five conflict-handling intentions that are based on the dimensions of cooperativeness and assertiveness.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Foundations of Organization Structure

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Q1) Organizations following a(n) ________ strategy try to both minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit, moving into new products or new markets only after innovators have proven their viability.

A) innovation

B) cost-cutting

C) imitation

D) organic

E) mechanistic

Q2) As compared to a decentralized organization, a centralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In centralized organizations, top managers make all the decisions, and lower-level managers merely carry out their directives.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is a virtual organization and its advantages and disadvantages.

Q5) Discuss boundary spanning in organizations and between organizations.

Q6) Describe the five common ways of departmentalization. Give an example of each.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Organizational Culture

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Q1) Nike is using ________ to perpetuate its organizational culture when employees reminisce about the days when Oregon track star Steve Prefontaine worked to make running a professional sport.

A) rituals

B) material symbols

C) stories

D) company policies

E) business strategies

Q2) Integrity and high ethical standards are called the ________ of the culture at the Rogue Vogue Corp.

A) foundational values

B) institutional traits

C) core values

D) significant traits

E) unique values

Q3) Discuss the difference between the clan, the adhocracy, the market, and the hierarchy.

Q4) How does organizational culture develop?

Q5) Describe the three stages involved in the process of socialization.

Q6) What are the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Human Resource Policies and Practices

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be used by Scarlett during the initial selection stage to check if an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job?

A) assessment center

B) drug test

C) application form

D) work sample test

E) integrity test

Q2) Define initial selection and identify the devices used during the initial selection stage.

Q3) Which of the following is a form of background check?

A) aptitude test

B) offer letter

C) letters of recommendation

D) application form

E) work-sample test

Q4) Technical training has become increasingly important because of changes in organizational design.

A)True

B)False

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Stress Management

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Q1) Family issues, economic problems, and personality characteristics are examples of the ________ factor of potential stress.

A) social

B) environmental

C) structural

D) psychological

E) personal

Q2) The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called ________.

A) negotiation

B) cooptation

C) manipulation

D) coercion

E) arbitration

Q3) Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called ________.

A) negotiation

B) conciliation

C) education

D) coercion

E) manipulation

Q4) What are the various structural variables that facilitate innovation?

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