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Introduction to Management provides students with a foundational understanding of the essential principles, functions, and practices of effective management within organizations. The course explores key managerial roles, decision-making processes, leadership styles, organizational structure, planning, and control strategies. Students will analyze case studies, engage in discussions, and participate in practical exercises to develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills relevant to contemporary management challenges. By the end of the course, students will gain an appreciation of managements role in achieving organizational goals and be equipped with basic tools to manage teams and resources efficiently.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding and Managing Organizational Behavior 6th Edition by Jennifer M. George
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Q1) Innovation is the generation of novel and useful ideas. One of the outcomes is creativity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a change in society of which the owner of a breakfast diner must be aware?
A) a new virus killing egg-laying hens
B) an increase in the minimum wage
C) a new development in ipod technology
D) an increase in coffee bean prices
Answer: C
Q3) Global learning does not impact organizational effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Global crisis management does not involve natural disasters.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) People who are low self-monitors are ________.
A) very concerned about what others think about them
B) guided by their own attitudes, beliefs, feelings, and principles
C) likely to attribute their performance to outside forces not within their control
D) apprehensive about their interpersonal communication skills
Answer: B
Q2) Approximately 50 percent of the variation we observe in people's personalities can be attributed to genetic factors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Managers should view employees' personalities as relatively fixed in the short run.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The collection of feelings and beliefs that people have about their organization as a whole is known as organizational ________.
A) loyalty
B) commitment
C) satisfaction
D) attitude
Answer: B
Q2) Jim has told the district attorney's office that illegal activities are taking place at his corporation. He is a ________.
A) cakebaker
B) ballthrower
C) trainman
D) whistleblower
Answer: D
Q3) Values are concerned with aspects of a particular job or organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mark Thomas is furious at the incompetence of the local weatherman, who predicted rain for tomorrow, thereby ruining Mark's plans for a golf outing. Mark is making
A) a self-serving attribution
B) a mistake in the blame game
C) a fundamental attribution error
D) a logical faux pas
Q2) Due to the similar-to-me effect and stereotyping, mixed-race mentor-protégé relationships are rare.
A)True
B)False
Q3) John Andrews believes that fate determines whether an individual will be a successful professional poker player. John has made an internal attribution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The processing of information by perceivers is a passive activity.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
Q5) How can employees guard against thinking stereotypically?
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Q1) Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to contribute to an employee's level of creativity?
A) internal locus of control
B) intelligence
C) self-esteem
D) structure
Q2) OB MOD should be used to encourage subjective, abstract behaviors that are difficult to measure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When you model the study habits you observed in a classmate, who is earning A's in the course, you are engaging in vicarious learning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evidence shows that creativity is more likely to occur in some groups and organizations than in others.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the four schedules of partial reinforcement.
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Q1) The law office of Smith and Smith is one of safety and comfort. Co-workers are friends and there are several office parties. But, everything is not perfect. June has a large family and her salary is just not enough to cover everything. Bill makes the same salary but because he is single and doesn't have many expenses his needs are met. Sam, a new employee, appreciates the office parties but still feels out of the loop. According to Maslow, who is most likely to be motivated by interesting projects and opportunities for growth?
A) June
B) Bill
C) Sam
D) any of the employees may be equally motivated by interesting projects
Q2) All of the following can be the referent referred to in equity theory EXCEPT
A) another worker perceived as similar to oneself
B) oneself at the current point in time
C) one's expectations about what the job should require and provide
D) a group of workers perceived as similar to oneself
Q3) Maslow asserted that unsatisfied needs are the prime motivators of behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A goal is what a person is trying to accomplish through his or her behavior or actions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The job characteristics model reveals exactly how long it takes to perform a task and the best way to perform it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ involves increasing the number of tasks a worker performs, while maintaining the same level of difficulty and responsibility.
A) Job enlargement
B) Job enrichment
C) Job rotation
D) Job expansion
Q4) The job of a carnival ride operator who presses buttons to start and stop rides has a low level of skill variety.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast job enlargement and job enrichment.
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Q1) In a ________, a person progresses through a sequence of jobs, and each job entails progress over the prior one in terms of responsibility, skills needed, and level in the hierarchy of an organization.
A) steady-state career
B) linear career
C) spiral career
D) transitory career
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using bonuses rather than salary increases?
A) Bonuses can be spent much more quickly than can salary increases.
B) Bonuses are tied directly to current performance.
C) Bonuses are usually taxed at a lower rate than are salaries.
D) Bonuses vary less over time than do salary levels.
Q3) In a ________, the performance dimensions and the way employees are evaluated on them are determined in advance.
A) Scanlon plan
B) performance contract
C) formal performance appraisal
D) behavioral observation system
Q4) What are the four general categories of careers?
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Q1) Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY an example of a work-life stressor?
A) concise directions
B) too little work
C) too much work
D) competing demands on time
Q2) One way to address worker stress from promotions or challenging job assignments is for managers to take steps to raise employee ________.
A) self-efficacy
B) extroversion
C) locus of control
D) neuroticism
Q3) Providing personal days and sabbaticals can help reduce stressful feelings and emotions by allowing employees to put their work-related stress aside for a day or two or for a more extended period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List some of the emotion-focused coping strategies for organizations.
Q5) Define stress and briefly explain the different aspects of stress highlighted in the definition.
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Q1) Maria Henderson is the assistant controller at Tie & Belt, Inc. She meets every Tuesday with Marvin Smith, a sales clerk, and Mark Corbin, a production systems analyst, to discuss common problems they are having learning a computer program. The three decided to start meeting together after they ran into each other at the local computer store, where they were waiting in line to ask a salesperson questions about the program. This group would be classified as ________.
A) a command group
B) a task force
C) a steering committee
D) an informal group
Q2) A ________ is a formal group of members who interact at a high level and work together intensely to achieve a common group goal.
A) sector
B) team
C) division
D) subdivision
Q3) Discuss two types of informal work groups.
Q4) Define the term "deviance" as it pertains to groups and discuss how groups can deal effectively with deviant behavior.
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Q1) Since its tasks are organized in a sequential fashion, members of a reciprocally interdependent work group have few coordination problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a sign of a low level of group cohesiveness?
A) Information flows slowly within the group.
B) The group tends not to achieve its goals.
C) Group members socialize excessively on the job.
D) The group has little control over its members' behaviors.
Q3) If the goal is to obtain the highest level of coordination within reciprocally interdependent groups, which of the following statements would NOT be helpful?
A) Ensure that workers work far apart from one another.
B) Enhance the ability of managers to identify individual contributions.
C) Develop norms recognizing the importance of helping other group members.
D) Decrease the number of individuals who must coordinate their efforts.
Q4) Social loafing sometimes occurs when workers think their own efforts are unimportant or not needed.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ________ is the exercise of influence by one member of a group or organization over other members to help the group or organization achieve its goals.
A) Censorship
B) Sponsorship
C) Leadership
D) Management
Q2) A ________ is something that prevents a leader from having any influence and negates the leader's efforts.
A) leadership vortex
B) leadership surrogate
C) leadership neutralizer
D) leadership blockage
Q3) In general, research suggests that men and women in leadership positions tend to behave in different ways.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the concept of "leader style" in Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership.
Q5) Discuss leader reward and leader punishing behavior.
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Q1) Sally is a waitress at a well-established local restaurant. She works with several other waitresses, each of them of equal status. They do not supervise anyone nor have they been given any authority other than what is required to serve the customers. However, Sally is extremely well liked by patrons, the other waitstaff, and the cooks. Which BEST describes Sally's power within the organization?
A) She has no power since she is a waitress and has no authority.
B) She has a small amount of negligible power within the organization.
C) She holds referent power within the organization.
D) She holds expert power within the organization.
Q2) How is conflict related to performance?
A) As conflict levels rise, performance levels rise along with them.
B) Performance increases with conflict up to a point, then conflict causes performance to fall.
C) The more conflict in an organization, the lower the performance levels.
D) Conflict is unrelated to employee performance unless the conflict is due to scarcity of resources.
Q3) Competition for scarce resources produces conflict.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Managers can often learn new things about themselves by listening to the perceptions that their subordinates hold of them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Effective communicators do whatever they can to make sure they receive feedback.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is enhanced by nonverbal communication?
A) a text message
B) an in-person meeting
C) a telephone message
D) a company's annual report
Q4) A communication medium's information richness measures the amount of information it can carry and the extent to which it enables senders and receivers to reach a common understanding.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The term "verbal communication" does not encompass written messages.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) While heuristics can expedite the decision-making process, it can also lead to biases that cause systematic decision-making errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ involves selecting a high-performing organization that is currently providing high-quality goods and services to its customers and using this organization as a model.
A) Empowerment
B) Production blocking
C) Brainstorming
D) Benchmarking
Q3) ________ occurs when the group as a whole rather than any one individual is accountable for the decision.
A) Brainstorming
B) Diffusion of responsibility
C) Group polarization
D) Potential for conflict
Q4) Define the two basic types of organizational decisions.
Q5) Describe March and Simon's administrative model of decision making.
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Q1) The catapult systems operation crew on an aircraft carrier is responsible for operating the system that launches the aircraft from the carrier. The entire process depends on proper operation of the steam catapult machinery via the performance of standardized duties in a fixed order. As a result, the MOST effective structure for the catapult systems' operation crew is a(n) ________.
A) organic structure
B) functional structure
C) mechanistic structure
D) differentiated structure
Q2) A divisional structure facilitates communication between functions and can improve decision making, thereby increasing performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a marketing structure, functions are grouped by types of customers so that each division contains the functions it needs to service a specific segment of the market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is standardization?
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Q1) Research suggests that people who believe they have little at stake are the ones most likely to act unethically.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organization A has offices that are as small as can be whereas Organization B has offices designed to be conducive for teamwork. What is MOST LIKELY to be true about the organizations?
A) Both Organization A and Organization B value economy.
B) Both Organization A and Organization B value innovation.
C) Organization A values economy. Organization B values innovation.
D) Organization A values innovation. Organization B values economy.
Q3) A mechanistic structure is MOST LIKELY to give rise to a culture in which ________.
A) people have more freedom
B) innovation and flexibility are desired terminal values
C) predictability and stability are desired states
D) desirable instrumental values include being creative and taking risks
Q4) Identify the three main reasons why unethical behavior exists in businesses.
Q5) Describe the ways in which an organization's culture is transmitted to its members.
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Q1) Organizational mirroring is an OD technique designed to improve the effectiveness of interdependent groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are OD techniques directed at changing the attitudes and behaviors of individuals EXCEPT ________.
A) counseling
B) sensitivity training
C) process consultation
D) total quality management
Q3) What is organization change and what are the forces for change?
Q4) Types of change can be classified as either incremental or drastic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Organizations that take up reengineering start the process by focusing on the existing products and services.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some of the global challenges organizations face?
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