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Introduction to Management provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and practices vital to effective management in contemporary organizations. The course explores key management functions including planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while examining the evolution of management theories and their practical applications. Students will analyze decision-making processes, leadership styles, motivation techniques, and strategies for fostering teamwork and managing change. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations and the impact of globalization and technology on managerial roles. Through case studies and practical exercises, students develop essential skills for future leadership and management positions.
Recommended Textbook MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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Q1) Typical titles used for top managers are general manager, plant manager, regional manager, and divisional manager.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Middle managers will most likely have to:
A) facilitate a bottom-up planning approach to supervising
B) manage the performance of entry-level employees
C) implement the changes generated by top managers
D) develop employees' commitment to and ownership of the company's performance
E) monitor long-term environmental trends
Answer: C
Q3) While good management is basic to starting and growing a business, once some measures of success has been achieved, good management becomes less important.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) According to Mintzberg, which of the following lists the three major roles managers fulfill while performing their jobs?
A) interpersonal roles, informational roles, and decisional roles
B) informational roles, ethical roles, and action roles
C) corporate roles, coordination roles, and informational roles
D) decisional roles, informational roles, and organizational roles
E) interpersonal roles, intrapersonal roles, and departmental roles
Answer: A
Q2) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly responsible for producing the company's products or services, are categorized as:
A) general managers
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) top managers
Answer: C
Q2) Top managers are responsible for creating a context for change in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Upper-level managers may actually spend more time dealing with people than lower-level managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following management theorists used his own personal experiences as a CEO to create his theory of management?
A) Elton Mayo
B) Frederick Taylor
C) Henri Fayol
D) Max Weber
E) Frank Gilbreth
Q2) Chester Barnard defined a(n) ____ as "a system of consciously coordinated activities or forces of two or more persons."
A) bureaucracy
B) department
C) work unit
D) organization
E) administration
Q3) According to the systems approach to management, an open system can function without interacting with its environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What principles did the Hawthorne Studies demonstrate to be true?
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Q1) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth studied the psychology of groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the principles of scientific management, work and the responsibility for the work should be divided equally between workers and management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The goal of scientific management was to:
A) make sure workers did not consider their work boring or repetitive
B) decreased wages for individual workers
C) eliminate conflict between workers and management
D) find the one best way to perform each task
E) find different ways to motivate workers
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Q1) A systems view of management allows managers to:
A) deal with the complex environment in which their companies operate
B) manage employee attendance
C) communicate efficiently
D) store and retrieve all types of information
E) eliminate production bottlenecks
Q2) In a departure from mainstream management thinking, Mary Parker Follett believed:
A) rules and procedures should be applied without favoritism
B) group dynamics produces positive peer pressure
C) conflict could be beneficial
D) work specialization was the key to efficiency
E) pay should be performance-based
Q3) Which of the following statements about the origins of management is true?
A) Job enrichment was developed during the last half of the twentieth century.
B) Management as a field of study is only about 125 years old.
C) Information management appeared with the first computers.
D) The use of management functions would have made the building of the Egyptian pyramids more efficient.
E) All of the above statements about the origin of management are true.
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Q1) Refer to Dofasco. The slump in the automobile industry would be part of Dofasco's ____ environment.
A) indirect
B) general
C) competitive
D) primary
E) political/legal
Q2) Organizational heroes can be used to make sense of organizational events and changes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to ____.
A) create benchmarks
B) assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
C) develop new products
D) locate new markets for existing products
E) modify corporate culture
Q4) Define advocacy groups. List the three approaches to influencing businesses that advocacy groups are likely to use. Specify which one of these three is most likely to impact company sales and profits.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a mechanism used to sustain organizational culture after an organization's founders are gone?
A) recruiting practices
B) employee turnover
C) cultural myths
D) organizational policies
E) none of these
Q2) Changes in any sector of the general environment:
A) will typically not impact most organizations
B) tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle
C) inhibit the innovation process
D) influence customers first and then suppliers
E) will eventually affect most organizations
Q3) A company facing a simple environment would:
A) most likely be in the first stage of the environmental cycle
B) exhibit proof of the punctuated equilibrium theory
C) be unable to succeed due to lack of innovation
D) be influenced only by factors in its specific environment
E) have few external factors in the environment that affect it
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of successful organizational cultures?
A) adaptability
B) consistency
C) involvement
D) a clear vision
E) all of these
Q2) The first step managers use to make sense of their changing environments is:
A) environmental scanning
B) perceptual re-engagement
C) modifying budgets
D) downsizing
E) benchmarking
Q3) __________ is/are a primary source of organizational culture.
A) The company's founder
B) The organization's competitive strategy
C) The industry in which the organization operates
D) Employees
E) Customers
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Q1) When media in India informed the public that Coca-Cola products bottled in India contained a high level of certain cancer-causing pesticides, they were acting in the role of ____.
A) overt constituents
B) covert constituents
C) secondary shareholders
D) secondary stakeholders
E) functional customers
Q2) Ethical intensity depends on all of the following EXCEPT ____.
A) temporal immediacy
B) probability of effect
C) proximity of effect
D) social commitment
E) concentration of effect
Q3) Under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines, companies without compliance programs can pay fines many times larger than companies with established compliance programs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and briefly describe Kohlberg's three phases of moral development.
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Q1) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
A) how the behavior was motivated
B) where the motivation occurred
C) the target of the deviant behavior
D) the intent of the violator
E) organizational norms
Q2) The __________ determined that companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.
A) U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines
B) U.S. Supreme Court
C) U.S. Department of Labor
D) U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
E) Federal Trade Commission
Q3) The stakeholder model holds that the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize profits.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Historically, __________ responsibility means making a profit by producing a product valued by society. It has been business's most basic social responsibility.
A) discretionary
B) ethical
C) legal
D) fiscal
E) economic
Q2) Which of the following principles of ethical decision making would support the practice of "looking after number one"?
A) the principle of long-term self-interest
B) the principle of personal virtue
C) a discretionary code of ethics
D) a utilitarian code of ethics
E) the equity principle
Q3) Kohlberg's three phases of moral development in order are law and order, instrumental exchange, and universal principle.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of S.M.A.R.T. goals?
A) Synergistic
B) Measurable
C) Timely
D) Attainable
E) Realistic
Q2) ____ is a systematic process of defining problems, evaluating alternatives, and choosing optimal solutions.
A) Problem identification
B) Rational decision making
C) Benchmarking
D) Multivariable selection
E) Keystoning
Q3) The process of rational decision making emphasizes the use of systematic procedures to arrive at optimal solutions. Not all processes of decision making follow suit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly identify and explain the two accepted methods of tracking progress toward goal achievement.
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Q1) Both absolute comparisons and relative comparisons are methods for identifying decision criteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of decision making emphasizes the use of systematic procedures to arrive at optimal solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
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Q1) Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
A) policies
B) procedures
C) rules and regulations
D) forecasts
E) MBO plans
Q2) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
Q3) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
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Q1) List the five industry forces that determine overall levels of competition in an industry. Identify what happens to competition as these forces increase in strength.
Q2) Which of the following statements about portfolio strategy is true?
A) The evidence supports the usefulness of acquiring unrelated businesses.
B) Dysfunctional consequences can occur when companies are categorized.
C) The strategy may weaken the strongest performer in the corporate portfolio, the problem child.
D) Labeling a top performer as a cash cow will strengthen employee morale.
E) Maslow's hierarchy can be used to determine the level of motivation needed to acquire and make a success of portfolio strategy.
Q3) The ____ is a portfolio strategy that managers use to categorize their corporation's businesses by growth rate and relative market share. This strategy helps them to decide how to invest corporate funds.
A) investment matrix
B) SWOT matrix
C) BCG matrix
D) portfolio management matrix
E) Maslow grid
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Q1) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry-specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
Q2) Reactors follow the consistent strategy of anticipating and reacting to potential external opportunities and threats prior to their occurrence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first step in the strategy-making process is to:
A) assess the need for strategic change
B) conduct a situation analysis
C) choose strategic alternatives
D) evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment
E) create a strategic budget
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Q1) Significant cost reductions, layoffs of employees, closing of poorly performing stores, offices, or manufacturing plants, or closing or selling entire lines of products or services would be characteristic of a __________ strategy.
A) portfolio
B) retrenchment
C) stability
D) firm-level
E) rehabilitation
Q2) Which of the following is a mechanism used to examine external threats and opportunities facing a firm as well as its internal strengths and weaknesses?
A) organizational scanning
B) internal marketing
C) shadow-strategy task forces
D) benchmarking
E) a situational analysis
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Q1) In the typical S-curve pattern of innovation, increased effort (i.e., money, research, and development) brings only small improvements in technological performance when performance limits of the technology are reached ____.
A) during the introductory stage of the cycle
B) at the breakeven point of the cycle
C) during the maturity stage of the innovation cycle
D) throughout the cycle
E) at the end of the cycle
Q2) Backward compatibility is an important consideration for software users who are using an accounting program to facilitate their tax preparation and who want to use a newer version that has greater capacity. Therefore, many software manufacturers engage in ____.
A) coercive change
B) dominant design manipulation
C) generational change
D) intuitive change
E) incremental modification
Q3) Identify the methods that can be used to manage resistance to change. Which one should be used only as a last resort?
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Q1) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q2) Which of the following approaches is aimed at changing large systems, small groups, or individuals?
A) General Electric workout
B) the functional approach to change
C) organizational development
D) results-driven change
E) Lewin's change synthesis
Q3) Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The same techniques for managing innovation work equally as well after technological discontinuities as during periods of incremental change.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q3) The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
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Q1) The ____ is a regional trade agreement that liberalizes trade between countries more than any other such agreement.
A) Maastricht Treaty of Europe
B) Association of South East Nations
C) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation agreement
D) North American Free Trade Agreement
E) Free Trade Area of South America
Q2) Which of the following forms of organizing a global business help companies to avoid tariff and nontariff barriers to entry of a given foreign market?
A) licensing
B) franchising
C) global joint ventures
D) wholly owned affiliates
E) all of these
Q3) When conducting global business, companies should attempt to identify the two types of political risk, which are political uncertainty and economic uncertainty.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) More than any other regional trade agreement, the Maastricht Treaty of Europe liberalizes trade between countries so that businesses can plan to operate in a single market instead of multiple national markets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the strategies that can be used to minimize or adapt to the political risk inherent to global business?
A) protectionist, avoidance, and offensive strategies
B) creative, cooperative, and defensive strategies
C) cooperative, customary, and nationalistic strategies
D) avoidance, protectionist, and guerrilla strategies
E) control, avoidance, and cooperative strategies
Q3) An expatriate is someone who:
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
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Q1) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
Q2) A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:
A) a large population of unskilled workers
B) an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site
C) a small youth population
D) natural boundaries
E) all of these
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Q1) All organizations can be categorized clearly as either completely mechanistic or completely organic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Specialized jobs are characterized by simple, easy-to-learn steps; low variety; and high repetition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ is the degree to which a job is perceived to have a substantial impact on others inside or outside the organization.
A) Task significance
B) Skill feedback
C) Skill variety
D) Autonomy
E) Task identity
Q4) Using reciprocal interdependence, work must be performed in succession because one group or job's outputs become the inputs for the next group or job.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
A) Reengineering
B) Functionalization
C) Organizational structure
D) Production positioning
E) Organizational process
Q2) __________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
A) Pooling interdependence
B) Reciprocating interdependence
C) Reengineering
D) Repositioning
E) Manufacturing conversion
Q3) The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view of the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) __________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
A) Pooling interdependence
B) Reciprocating interdependence
C) Reengineering
D) Repositioning
E) Manufacturing conversion
Q2) __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
A) Reengineering
B) Functionalization
C) Organizational structure
D) Production positioning
E) Organizational process
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Q1) Which of the following statements about team development is true?
A) The growth stages are forming, norming, and performing.
B) Group cohesion is relatively strong at the informing stage.
C) Team performance begins to decline at the de-norming stage.
D) Decline will inevitably occur in every team.
E) None of these statements about team development is true.
Q2) Which of the following types of teams has the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
A) self-designing teams
B) sequentially interdependent teams
C) semi-autonomous work groups
D) self-managing teams
E) self-autonomous teams
Q3) Which of the following types of conflict is most strongly associated with improvements in team performance?
A) cognitive conflict
B) horizontal conflict
C) behavioral conflict
D) vertical conflict
E) affective conflict
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Q1) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q3) As a member of a typical of traditional work group, Joshua should expect to be responsible for:
A) doing what he is told to do
B) giving advice and making suggestions to management
C) making decisions and solving problems regarding major production/service tasks
D) cross training employees who are not part of his work team
E) creating ideas through processes like brainstorming
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Q1) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
Q3) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is sexual harassment? Identify the two kinds of sexual harassment from a legal perspective. Describe some frequent misunderstandings about sexual harassment. Specify steps that companies can take to make sure that sexual harassment laws are followed and not violated. Give one example of possible sexual harassment that you have heard or read about and explain which of the steps just described could have averted or resolved that situation more effectively.
Q2) A job specification summarizes the basic tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, and a job description summarizes the qualifications needed to successfully perform the job.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does U.S. Federal employment law apply?
A) selection decisions
B) compensation decisions
C) performance appraisals
D) training and development activities
E) all of these
Q4) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
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Q1) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q2) Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
Q3) The only time that gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
A)True
B)False
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Q1) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q2) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A __________ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates, peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
A) 360-degree feedback
B) performance appraisal iteration
C) reciprocal appraisal
D) grapevine appraisal
E) circular feedback program
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
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Q1) Affirmative action programs are typically designed to ____.
A) create homogeneous diversity
B) be punitive
C) compensate for past discrimination
D) protect white, non-Hispanic Americans
E) do all of these
Q2) Activity-based diversity training teaches employees the practical skills they need for managing a diverse work force, skills such as flexibility and adaptability, negotiation, problem solving, and conflict resolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly identify and provide an example of the likely content for each of the two basic types of diversity training programs.
Q4) Organizational plurality is consistent with ____.
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
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Force: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972
Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q3) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:
A) Gender, personality, age, and values
B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age
C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender
D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs
E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes
Q4) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41971
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Q1) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A) emotional stability
B) extraversion
C) conscientiousness
D) empathy
E) agreeableness
Q3) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q4) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False

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146 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) Currently the U.S. Olympic Committee (USOC) pays Olympic athletes $25,000 for each gold medal, $15,000 for a silver medal, and $10,000 for a bronze medal. Since 1960, the Paralympics for disabled athletes has been an integral part of the Olympic Games, yet the USOC pays disabled athletes only 10 percent of what the Olympic athletes are paid, and Paralympic athletes are not allowed to participate in opening ceremonies. For disabled athletes who believe their efforts will not be fairly rewarded, the motivation to win a Paralympics medal would have a(n) ____.
A) low valence
B) strong expectancy
C) low performance value
D) high valence
E) strong instrumentality
Q2) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
A) Feedback should not be specific.
B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.
D) Goals can energize behavior.
E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41975
Sample Questions
Q1) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the expectancy theory, __________ affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation.
A) equity, value-added, and instrumentality
B) valence, expectancy, and instrumentality
C) expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality
D) instrumentality, equity, and expectancy
E) expectancy, equity, and reinforcement
Q3) Once lower-order needs are satisfied, it is difficult to predict which higher-order needs will motivate behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41974
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary ways for creating reinforcement contingencies in organizations are:
A) extrinsic rewards and the schedules of reinforcement
B) extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
C) perceptions of equity and reward desirability
D) situational motivators
E) higher-order needs and organizational structure
Q2) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41979
Q1) Refer to Oakland Athletics. By describing Beane as ardent and controlling, his co-workers are using ____ to define its leader.
A) trait theory
B) path-goal theory
C) motivation decision theory
D) contingency theory
E) situational leadership theory
Q2) Which of the following leadership theories uses a decision tree to determine the appropriate level of participation by subordinates in decision-making?
A) Fiedler's contingency theory
B) Blake and Mouton's leadership grid
C) path-goal theory
D) Vroom-Yetton-Jago's normative decision model
E) trait theory
Q3) Since there are no consistent trait differences between leaders and non-leaders, or between effective and ineffective leaders, trait theory is wrong.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) While transformational leaders use visionary and inspirational appeals to influence followers, transactional leadership is based on an exchange process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q3) Fiedler's contingency theory assumes:
A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform
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Q1) Fiedlers contingency theory assumes:
A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform
Q2) Research at three universities has confirmed that two basic leader behaviors, ______ and ______, are central to successful leadership.
A) initiating structure; consideration
B) initiating structure; job-centered leadership
C) employee-centered leadership; consideration
D) concern for production; job-centered leadership
E) autonomous; participative
Q3) According to the normative decision theory, using the right degree of employee participation improves the quality of decisions and the extent to which employees accept and are committed to decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41982
Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Urban Legends. Top managers who encouraged subordinates to do everything in their power to assure customers that Internet myths about their companies were false engaged in ____.
A) downward communication
B) information diffusion
C) upward communication
D) establishing a grapevine
E) horizontal communication
Q2) In the model of the communication process presented in the text, ____ occurs when a message is put into a written, verbal, or symbolic form that can be recognized and understood by the receiver.
A) encoding
B) decoding
C) transmission
D) feedback
E) receiving
Q3) Define constructive and destructive feedback. Briefly describe the impact when a manager uses each of these to communicate with a work group.
Q4) List and briefly define the four parts of the perception process.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The steps of the basic perception process are:
A) Interpretation, attention, retention, and organization
B) Organization, interpretation, attention, and retention
C) Attention, organization, interpretation, and retention
D) Retention, organization, interpretation, and attention
E) Interpretation, retention, attention, and organization
Q2) __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior.
A) Downward guidance
B) Coaching
C) Counseling
D) Leading
E) Supportive supervision
Q3) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41980
Sample Questions
Q1) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as:
A) downward, horizontal, and upward
B) hierarchical, functional, and organizational
C) horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
D) upward, dyadic, and downward
E) vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
Q3) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985
Sample Questions
Q1) ____ control is associated with autonomous work groups.
A) Objective
B) Normative
C) Behavior
D) Concertive
E) Output
Q2) One of the advantages the Balanced Scorecard has over traditional control processes that rely solely on financial measures is that it ____.
A) encourages control delegation
B) eliminates problems with regulation costs
C) minimizes the chances of suboptimization
D) allows companies to determine the ideal control methods
E) creates functional independence
Q3) When self-control is used, leaders and managers provide workers with clear boundaries within which they may guide and control their own goals and behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and briefly define the three basic control methods.
Q5) Define benchmarking and list the three steps in this process.
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ control regulates workers' performances on the job, while __________ control measures the results of their efforts.
A) Input; behavior
B) Motivation; output
C) Concertive; normative
D) Behavior; output
E) Input; output
Q2) Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
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Q1) The basic control process begins with:
A) either benchmarking or keystoning
B) the establishment of clear standards of performance
C) the comparison of actual performance to expected performance
D) problem identification
E) determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed expected performance
Q2) __________ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process.
A) Control feasibility
B) Cybernetic feasibility
C) A quasi-control assessment
D) A balanced scorecard assessment
E) Information management
Q3) Benchmarking is the process of setting corporate norms.
A)True
B)False
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118 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
A) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
B) Knowledge resides in information.
C) Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
D) Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
E) All of these statements about knowledge are true.
Q2) A(n) ____ allows companies to exchange information and conduct transactions by purposefully providing outsiders with direct, Web browser-based access to authorized parts of a company's intranet.
A) extranet
B) virtual portal
C) Web service
D) corporate portal
E) secure logic system (SSL)
Q3) Protecting information is the process of ensuring that data are reliably and consistently retrievable in a usable format for authorized users but no one else.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly distinguish between knowledge and information.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41987
Sample Questions
Q1) Unsupervised data mining is particularly good at identifying:
A) association or affinity patterns
B) sequence patterns
C) predictive patterns
D) data clusters
E) all of these
Q2) A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and publish information using Internet software.
A) LAN portal
B) private company network (PCN)
C) intranet
D) electronic data sharing system
E) information network
Q3) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
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Q1) In the process of capturing information, ASCII text is generated by:
A) bar codes
B) electronic scanners
C) optical character recognition software
D) e-tools
E) data mining
Q2) __________ is the direct electronic transmission of purchase and ordering information from one company's computer system to another company's computer system.
A) Automated processing
B) Electronic data interchange
C) Transaction channeling
D) Data manipulation
E) Information exchange
Q3) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41989
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the textbook, what should a business owner do with excess inventory?
A) cut prices on the product to increase its sales
B) donate the products and get a tax write-off
C) throw the excess away
D) throw a party
E) raise prices and sell the product as a premium product
Q2) Explain why operations management is potentially relevant to every employee in every organization in the 21 century.
Q3) The first step in the service-profit chain is external service quality or the quality of treatment that employees receive from a company's internal service providers.
A)True B)False
Q4) List and briefly identify the three basic measures of inventory that managers use to keep inventory costs from becoming too large.
Q5) List and describe the four kinds of inventory that a manufacturer stores.
Q6) Briefly identify the three different methods of inventory management. Specify the circumstances under which each should be used.
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Q1) It costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two types of productivity are:
A) partial productivity and complete productivity
B) multifactor productivity and partial productivity
C) individual productivity and departmental productivity
D) departmental productivity and organizational productivity
E) organizational productivity and industry productivity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a criterion on which companies are judged when applying for the Baldrige National Quality Award?
A) leadership
B) business results
C) customer and market focus
D) competitive advantage
E) process management
Q2) Two common measures of productivity are extrinsic productivity and intrinsic productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:
A) inventory depreciation
B) inventory amortization
C) weeks of supply
D) multifactor inventory
E) speed of obsolescence
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