Introduction to Management Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Introduction to Management provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles, functions, and roles of management within organizations. The course explores key topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while emphasizing the importance of effective communication, decision-making, and strategic thinking in dynamic business environments. Through case studies, practical examples, and group discussions, students will learn about management theories, organizational structures, leadership styles, motivational techniques, and the impact of globalization and technology on management practices, preparing them for further studies and entry-level managerial roles.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Management Concepts and Skills 12th Edition by Samuel C. Certo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introducing Modern Management: Concepts and Skills
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Q1) Roland, a firm believer in management policies, always manages his team by the book. His team members agree that he is more of a manager than a leader. This indicates that Roland should work on ________ his team.
A) organizing
B) influencing
C) controlling
D) monitoring
E) planning
Answer: B
Q2) In terms of management efficiency during the manufacturing process, efficient means that ________ .
A) a small proportion of total resources contributes to productivity
B) a small proportion of total skilled employees contributes to productivity
C) an equal proportion of skilled and unskilled employees contributes to productivity
D) a large proportion of total resources contributes to productivity
E) a small proportion of total human and capital resources contributes to productivity
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Managing: History and Current Thinking
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Q1) Hawthorne study results helped managers to see that ________.
A) better working conditions are subject to the managers' discretion
B) reducing each work task to the most basic movements improves worker efficiency
C) worker bonuses for overproduction helped increase productivity
D) the best way to increase productivity was to set a good piece-rate system
E) understanding what motivates employees is a critical part of management
Answer: E
Q2) Fayol defined centralization as raising the importance of the subordinate role.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following did Gantt advocate in addition to Taylor's piece-rate compensation system for workers?
A) decentralizing authority
B) a bonus for overproduction
C) medical insurance coverage
D) mandatory employee training
E) tenure and job security
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Corporate Social Responsibility, Ethics, and Sustainability
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Sample Questions
Q1) Controlling in the area of social responsibility does not entail assessments or measurements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) ________ can be categorized as "outside" stakeholders of an organization.
A) Stockholders
B) Managers
C) Employees
D) Customers
E) Shareholders
Answer: D
Q3) Adherence to legislated social responsibilities is the minimum standard of social responsibility performance that business managers must achieve.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Management and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ approach teaches employees the norms and practices of another culture to prepare them to interact with people from that culture effectively.
A) culture-specific
B) multicultural
C) golden rule
D) assimilation
E) righting-the-wrongs
Q2) Which of the following is true for organizations that welcome diversity?
A) A diverse organization will lead to reduced customer insight.
B) The organization will see lower productivity and increased costs as a result of this.
C) It will be difficult to develop and implement innovations to the organization's products and services.
D) Employee retention will increase, resulting in lower recruitment costs.
E) The organization will have to hire less competent employees and training costs will increase.
Q3) How can diversity be promoted through equal employment and affirmative action?
Q4) What is diversity and what are the advantages of a diverse workforce?
Q5) Briefly discuss the discrimination against women in organizations.
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Chapter 5: Managing in the Global Arena
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Q1) France is a country where employees tend to follow whatever their managers say. They do not question the authority of their managers. Which of the following statements can be deduced from this information?
A) France has a culture that promotes masculinity.
B) France is a country where short-term orientation is prevalent.
C) France is a country with high power distance.
D) France is a society with low uncertainty avoidance.
E) French society promotes individualism.
Q2) Why do managers make foreign investments? What are the risks involved in this?
Q3) APEC was established in 1989 to further the economic growth and prosperity of the ________ community.
A) North American
B) Asia-Pacific
C) Commonwealth
D) European
E) African
Q4) Domestic organizations essentially operate within a single country.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Hofstede, what are the five basic dimensions of culture?
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Chapter 6: Management and Entrepreneurship
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Q1) Exploitation exists when entrepreneurs overestimate the extent to which they can control the outcome of an opportunity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following demonstrates the correct sequence in the stages of entrepreneurship?
A) opportunity identification, opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation
B) opportunity identification, opportunity exploitation, opportunity evaluation
C) opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification, opportunity exploitation
D) opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation, opportunity identification
E) opportunity exploitation, opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification
Q3) ________ is the first step of the entrepreneurial process.
A) Opportunity identification
B) Opportunity evaluation
C) Opportunity exploitation
D) Opportunity feedback
E) Risk evaluation
Q4) What is entrepreneurial opportunity? Which are the types of opportunities as described by Schumpeter?
Q5) Describe opportunity exploitation.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Planning
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Q1) The CEO of an organization inaugurated the company's state-of-the-art research and development facility. According to Mintzberg, the CEO performed the role of a(n) ________ in this situation.
A) monitor
B) liaison
C) organizational figurehead
D) resource allocator
E) disturbance handler
Q2) The affirmative purpose of planning is to minimize risk by reducing the uncertainties surrounding business conditions and clarifying the consequences of related management activities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the first step in the management by objectives (MBO) process?
A) set worker objectives
B) review organizational objectives
C) develop performance evaluation criteria
D) evaluate past performance
E) establish rewards
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Chapter 8: Making Decisions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a traditional technique for solving a programmed decision?
A) judgment
B) rules of thumb
C) habit
D) intuition
E) training
Q2) What is a decision? Explain the difference between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions.
Q3) The advantage of the Delphi technique is that ________.
A) it allows members to come up with wildly impractical ideas
B) it allows members to know why individuals voted the way they did
C) it allows members to discuss ideas in person
D) it is suitable for gathering ideas from group members who are too geographically separated
E) it takes the least amount of time compared to the other decision-making techniques
Q4) What is bounded rationality?
Q5) What are heuristics and biases?
Q6) Discuss briefly the steps in the decision-making process.
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Chapter 9: Strategic Planning: Strategies, Tactics, and Competitive Dynamics
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Q1) According to Porter, threat of new entrants refers to ________.
A) the power that customers have over the firms
B) the power that suppliers have over the firms
C) the extent to which customers may use services from another industry instead of the focal industry
D) the ability of new firms to enter an industry
E) the intensity of competition among the organizations
Q2) The answer to which of the following critical questions indicates whether the organization is progressing satisfactorily or not?
A) What are the purposes and objectives of the organization?
B) Where is the organization presently going?
C) In what kind of environment does the organization now exist?
D) What can be done to better achieve organizational goals in the future?
E) What does our SWOT analysis show?
Q3) ________ is the purpose for which - and the reason why - an organization exists.
A) Organizational objective
B) Organizational strategy
C) Organizational mission
D) Organizational policy
E) Organizational rule
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Plans and Planning Tools
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Q1) The sales forecasting method is the most complex method available to managers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A relatively formal sales forecasting method that gathers, evaluates, and summarizes expert opinions as the basis for a forecast is the ________.
A) nominal group technique
B) salesforce estimation method
C) time series analysis method
D) Delphi method
E) trend analysis method
Q3) Standing plans are plans used over and over again because they focus on organizational situations that occur frequently.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compile a list of a few situations where plans can fail.
Q5) What is a Gantt chart, explain its features.
Q6) A policy is a single-use plan that furnishes broad operating guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of Organizing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, the closer subordinates are physically, the more of them managers can supervise effectively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Follett said that coordination can be attained with the least difficulty through
A) a bureaucratic structure
B) a strict adherence to the chain of command
C) minimizing the human element
D) direct horizontal relationships and personal communications
E) discussions with people higher up the organization hierarchy
Q3) According to Fayol's guidelines for organizing resources, you should avoid
A) formulating precise decisions
B) using sanctions against faults and errors
C) instituting and effecting controls
D) regulations, redtape, and paperwork
E) defining duties
Q4) What are the forces influencing formal structure?
Q5) Discuss the five main steps in the organizing process.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Responsibility, Authority, and Delegation
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Q1) ________ consists of the right to advise or assist those who posses line authority.
A) Functional authority
B) Staff authority
C) Informal authority
D) Lateral authority
E) Rational-legal authority
Q2) A manager responsible for executing a limited portion of a function has ________.
A) general responsibility
B) specific responsibility
C) operating responsibility
D) organizational responsibility
E) consultative responsibility
Q3) Organizational members should be obligated to perform only those activities that lead to goal attainment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is accountability? Why is it important in organizations?
Q5) What is delegation? Explain the steps in the delegation process.
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Chapter 13: Human Resource Management
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Q1) Which of the following items is likely to be found in a job description?
A) physical effort needed
B) equipment used
C) educational qualifications desired
D) job responsibilities
E) experience required
Q2) Typing and keyboarding tests are examples of aptitude tests.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the weaknesses of performance appraisals is that the emphasis is on completing paperwork rather than on critiquing individual performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is the process of outlining who will follow whom in various organizational positions.
A) Organizational restructuring
B) Succession planning
C) Forecasting
D) Headhunting
E) Scheduling
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Chapter 14: Organizational Change: Stress, Conflict, and Virtuality
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Q1) The CEO of a company decides to introduce decentralization to help the organization exercise greater control over its subunits and increase employee motivation. This is an example of a ________ change.
A) people
B) administrative
C) technological
D) managerial
E) structural
Q2) ________ is a conflict management technique where managers simply ignore the conflict.
A) Resolving
B) Compromising
C) Cooperating
D) Avoiding
E) Conciliating
Q3) A change agent is an environmental factor that acts as a moderator for organizational changes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the concept of grid organizational development (grid OD).
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Chapter 15: Influencing and Communication
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Q1) Many organizations implement grievance procedures to assist employees. Such procedures are an example of ________.
A) downward communication
B) upward communication
C) collaborative communication
D) lateral communication
E) parallel communication
Q2) Which of the following is a communication macrobarrier?
A) need for complex information
B) destination's view of the source
C) message interference
D) receivers' perception
E) multimeaning words
Q3) Lateral organizational communication relates primarily to the direction and control of employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe formal communication and explain the three basic types of formal communication.
Q5) What is the importance of non-verbal messages in a communicative process?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Leadership
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Q1) Transformational leadership ________.
A) proposes leaders match their style with the maturity levels of their followers
B) proposes that all good leaders possess a set of identifiable traits which are highly desirable
C) is characterized by a charismatic leader who considers the employees' opinion though he or she makes the decisions alone
D) inspires organizational success by affecting followers' beliefs in what an organization should be as well as their values
E) shares the view that leaders' major job is to make decisions that help the organization grow as an independent entity
Q2) A considerate leader would be more effective than a structuring leader when the leader-member relations are good, the task structure is weak, and the leader position power is weak.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the major forces in the situation that influence a manager's determination of how to make decisions? Explain briefly.
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18
Chapter 17: Motivation
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Q1) In Alderfer's ERG theory, which of the following refers to the need for physical well-being?
A) relatedness need
B) esteem need
C) existence need
D) growth need
E) goal need
Q2) Process theories of motivation are explanations that emphasize people's internal characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to McClelland, people having the desire to do something better or more efficiently than it has ever been done before have a high need for ________.
A) dominance
B) achievement
C) power
D) affiliation
E) acceptance
Q4) List the categories of needs identified by Alderfer in his ERG theory.
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Chapter 18: Groups and Teams
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Q1) The model of the evolution of informal groups proposed by George Homans suggests that ________.
A) once established, informal groups will resist changes in the formal work group that threaten the satisfaction of the informal group's members
B) informal groups will naturally evolve into problem-solving groups
C) the sentiments and activities that emerge within an informal group rarely result from the sentiments, interactions, and activities that already exist within a formal group
D) managers should refrain from implementing ideas generated from the feedback received from informal groups as they tend to be biased
E) informal groups instituted at the behest of the management are more fruitful from an organizational perspective than ones that naturally evolve
Q2) The procedure for conducting a sociometric analysis in an organization is highly complex, and managers should weigh the expected benefits, before embarking on it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the benefits of informal group membership.
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20
Chapter 19: Managing Organization Culture
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Q1) What is an organization subculture? What is its significance for an organization?
Q2) The ________ dimension of organization culture is a facet or organization culture that focuses on making sure that an organization emphasizes not only what is good for the organization, but what is good for other human beings.
A) quality
B) customer
C) ethics
D) spirituality
E) innovation
Q3) ________ is defined as the dedication of organization members to uphold the values of the organization and to make worthwhile contributions to fulfilling organizational purpose.
A) Job satisfaction
B) Organizational effectiveness
C) Employee proactivity
D) Business resilience
E) Organizational commitment
Q4) Provide a brief description of organization culture.
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Chapter 20: Encouraging Creativity and Innovation
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Q1) Which of the following statements best corresponds to the monitoring step of the innovation process?
A) Google decides to create Buzz in response to competition from Facebook and other social networking sites.
B) Google's team creates APIs for third-party applications.
C) Google releases the beta-version of Buzz for usability testing.
D) Google rolls out final code complete version of Buzz for users, rid of bugs and defects.
E) Google continues to add newer features and widgets to the Buzz platform and addresses user concerns.
Q2) The most prestigious award instituted to recognize those organizations that produce exceptionally high-quality products and services is the ________.
A) Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award
B) Larry Goill Awards for Quality Management Ideas
C) Deming Award
D) Shingo Prize
E) European Foundation for Quality Management Excellence Award
Q3) Provide a brief note on the time-pressure/creativity matrix.
Q4) Describe the importance of creativity in organizations.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Controlling, Information, and Technology
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Q1) ________ decisions relate to obtaining and effectively and efficiently using the organizational resources necessary to reach organizational objectives.
A) Strategic planning
B) Operational control
C) Strategic control
D) Operational planning
E) Management control
Q2) Because Jamie is the manager, her subordinates follow her instructions. This is an example of ________ power.
A) personal
B) position
C) total
D) social
E) absolute
Q3) Information quality refers to the degree to which information represents reality.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define the terms technology, information technology, and information systems.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Production and Control
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Q1) RFX International, Inc. is a manufacturer of apparels and markets its products in the United States and Canada. The company serves its market from a central manufacturing unit located in California. The company has been facing problems in efficiently managing its operations and controlling the inventory costs. Mark Arthur, the COO, recommends the installation of just-in-time inventory system to streamline the operations of the company. However, the management is skeptical about installing a totally new system. Which of the following information, if true, would support Mark's suggestion?
A) The company offers online personalization and allows customers to customize the products for each order.
B) The apparel industry in the United States is characterized by seasonal demand and companies have to make use of it.
C) The company procures raw materials from four medium sized companies in California.
D) The company procures materials from Altralex, a large scale supplier in the United States.
E) A recent analysis by the operations department revealed that two percent of the raw materials the company receives from its suppliers are defective.
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Page 24