Introduction to Management Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Introduction to Management provides students with a comprehensive overview of foundational management theories, principles, and practices. This course explores the key functions of management including planning, organizing, leading, and controlling and examines the roles and responsibilities of managers within various organizational settings. Students will analyze real-world case studies, develop problem-solving and decision-making skills, and learn about effective leadership, communication, motivation, and team dynamics. By the end of the course, students will understand how managers contribute to organizational success and be equipped with essential tools for future leadership roles.
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MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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54 Chapters
2662 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Amazon.com. As CEO of Amazon, Jeff Bezos:
A) is responsible for developing employees' commitment to the company's performance
B) monitors and manages the performance of subunits and individual managers who report to him
C) is responsible for setting objectives consistent with top management's goals
D) teaches employees how to do their job more efficiently
E) coordinates and links groups, departments, and divisions within a company
Answer: A
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Managers are responsible for doing the basic work in the company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Q1) A manager engaged in the management function of __________ is monitoring progress toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) motivating
Answer: D
Q2) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Q1) Managers are responsible for doing the basic work in the company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Typical responsibilities for __________ include setting objectives consistent with organizational goals and then planning and implementing the subunit strategies for achieving these goals.
A) top managers
B) shift supervisors
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) middle managers
Answer: E
Q3) Top managers are responsible for creating a context for change in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 2: History of Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describes an advantage of the systems approach to management?
A) It simplifies the management process by supporting the principle of unity of command.
B) It allows managers to reward workers on the basis of their performance.
C) It allows managers to move comfortably in and out of the various managerial roles.
D) It forces managers to create coordinated communication.
E) It forces managers to view their organization as part of a whole.
Q2) Because of Eli Whitney's ideas for increasing production in a gun-manufacturing operation, most products are manufactured today using standardized, interchangeable parts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The contingency approach to management holds that there is not one best way to manage an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What advantages does the systems approach to management offer that other approaches do not?
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Q1) The goal of scientific management was to:
A) make sure workers did not consider their work boring or repetitive
B) decreased wages for individual workers
C) eliminate conflict between workers and management
D) find the one best way to perform each task
E) find different ways to motivate workers
Q2) Which of the following management theorists helped develop human relations management?
A) Max Weber
B) Mary Parker Follett
C) Henri Fayol
D) Frederick Taylor
E) Henry Gantt
Q3) According to the principles of scientific management, work and the responsibility for the work should be divided equally between workers and management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) Frederick Taylor is famous for:
A) developing time and motion studies
B) first defining the functions of managers
C) developing the 14 principles of management
D) creating the principles of scientific management
E) doing all of these
Q2) _____ involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A) Operations management
B) Resource management
C) Systems management
D) Contingency management
E) Bureaucratic management
Q3) Which of the following statements about the origins of management is true?
A) Job enrichment was developed during the last half of the twentieth century.
B) Management as a field of study is only about 125 years old.
C) Information management appeared with the first computers.
D) The use of management functions would have made the building of the Egyptian pyramids more efficient.
E) All of the above statements about the origin of management are true.
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Page 8
Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Q1) The creation of Ingram Distribution allows booksellers to streamline the ordering and return procedures of their books. Ingram made all the books bookstore owners wanted available in one centralized warehouse. Many new bookstore owners would be unwilling and/or unable to return to the method of ordering books from the individual publishers. This is an example of the creation of ____.
A) high buyer dependence on a supplier
B) pure competition
C) transactional freedom
D) high supplier dependence on a buyer
E) none of these
Q2) The Edmonton Oilers ice hockey team develops a sense of history for its current players by raising banners showing its success - five championships - and the retired numbers of great players from the past in its stadium and locker room. What tactics for maintaining organizational culture are the Edmonton Oilers using?
A) organizational complexity and consistency
B) organizational benchmarking
C) cultural laddering
D) organizational stories and organizational heroes
E) behavioral addition and behavioral substitution
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
Q2) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A company facing a simple environment would:
A) most likely be in the first stage of the environmental cycle
B) exhibit proof of the punctuated equilibrium theory
C) be unable to succeed due to lack of innovation
D) be influenced only by factors in its specific environment
E) have few external factors in the environment that affect it
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) In terms of environmental complexity, __________ environments have few environmental factors, whereas __________ environments have many environmental factors.
A) non-competitive; competitive
B) simple; complex
C) stable; dynamic
D) scarce; abundant
E) market-oriented; product-oriented
Q2) __________ is/are a primary source of organizational culture.
A) The company's founder
B) The organization's competitive strategy
C) The industry in which the organization operates
D) Employees
E) Customers
Q3) The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) After identifying the problem in the basic model of ethical decision-making, the next step is to ____.
A) diagnose the situation
B) identify the constituents
C) determine alternative solutions
D) analyze your options
E) create a forecast of what is to be accomplished
Q2) In an article about BP Amoco, its CEO said that the company's commitment to ____ is all about trying to align its policies, values, and behavior with those of the societies in which it operates because, ultimately, superior performance means being in touch.
A) social consensus
B) social munificence
C) social responsibility
D) shareholder responsibility
E) social proximity
Q3) Proximity of effect is the time between an act and the consequences the act produces.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) The stakeholder model holds that the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize profits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines, companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
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13
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary stakeholders are important to a company because:
A) it depends on them for long-term survival
B) they can affect public perceptions and opinions
C) the company is endangered by a termination of their relationship
D) they have the direct power to control management decisions
E) they create an awareness of overt organizational integrity
Q2) What is social responsibility?
A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society
B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders
E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers
Q3) Kohlberg's three phases of moral development in order are law and order, instrumental exchange, and universal principle.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the terms decision making and rational decision making. Briefly differentiate between them.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the six steps in the rational decision-making process?
A) choose a minimally acceptable alternative solution
B) evaluate the effectiveness of the decision
C) weight the criteria
D) introduce the decision to those who will be impacted by it
E) identify customer service gaps
Q3) Both proximal and distal goals are used to provide additional motivation and rewards for employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Management by objectives is a two-step process in which managers and their employees discuss possible goals and then meet regularly to review progress toward the accomplishment of those goals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and explain the purpose of the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines.
Q6) Identify the four basic steps in the management by objectives process.
Page 15
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) The process of decision making emphasizes the use of systematic procedures to arrive at optimal solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q3) Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
A) policies
B) procedures
C) rules and regulations
D) forecasts
E) MBO plans
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Q1) __________ occurs when managers choose an alternative that is good enough, rather than the best possible alternative.
A) Maximizing
B) Optimizing
C) Availability bias
D) Negative frame
E) Satisficing
Q2) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.
A) action plans and their implementation
B) proximal and distal goals
C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques
D) framing and non-framing goals
E) open-ended and close-ended techniques
Q3) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Deutsche Bank became the world's largest bank through mergers with Bankers Trust, a transatlantic banking operation. Since both banking companies had similar core capabilities, this would be classified as an example of ____.
A) related differentiation
B) related diversification
C) an integrated acquisition
D) competency acquisition
E) unrelated diversification
Q3) Which of the adaptive strategies tends to result in the poorest performance?
A) niche marketers
B) analyzers
C) prospectors
D) defenders
E) reactors
Q4) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry-specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
Q2) An analysis of an organization's external environment begins with an assessment of the company's distinctive competencies and core capabilities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much, or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) Resource similarity and __________ are factors that determine the extent to which firms will be in direct competition with each other.
A) market commonality
B) resource similarity
C) related diversification
D) product differentiation
E) customer autonomy
Q2) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry-specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
A) unfreezing
B) organizational dialogue
C) change definition
D) incremental change
E) change mentoring
Q2) Downsizing has thinned the ranks of hospital personnel. Hospital employees were adamantly resisting any more change. What method could hospital administrators use to manage this resistance?
A) educate employees about the need for change
B) let the employees participate in implementing the change process
C) provide significant managerial support
D) let employees discuss and agree on who will do what after change occurs
E) any or all of these
Q3) Companies that want to sustain a competitive advantage must understand and protect themselves from the strategic threats of innovation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
A) innovation maps
B) organization development
C) results-driven change
D) innovation streams
E) cyclical inventions
Q3) Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The research on technology cycles and technological innovation applies only to high-tech products developed in the bioengineering, robotics, and computer industries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) A technology __________ begins with the "birth" of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and "dies" as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
A) process
B) pattern
C) cycle
D) hierarchy
E) continuum
Q2) The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
Q3) The first stage of organizational decline is:
A) crisis
B) inaction
C) blinded
D) faulty action
E) dissolution
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Chapter 8: Global Management
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Questions
Q1) A cosmetics company that is considering entering the South American market would be especially interested in the discretionary income within that region. In other words, which of the following would be a determining factor in its global strategy?
A) purchasing power
B) political uncertainty
C) expropriation potential
D) infrastructure
E) sociocultural trends
Q2) The Japanese government has proclaimed that its snow is different from that found in any other region of the world. As a result, all snow skis marketed in Japan must be manufactured in Japan. This is an example of a(n) ____.
A) tariff
B) nontariff barrier
C) import boycott
D) industry subsidy
E) industry nationalization
Q3) Define direct foreign investment. Name one of the top five countries with the largest direct foreign investment in the United States.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
A) government import standards and industry import standards
B) qualitative and quantitative barriers
C) voluntary and involuntary barriers
D) nationalistic and geocentric barriers
E) tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
Q2) A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:
A) a large population of unskilled workers
B) an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site
C) a small youth population
D) natural boundaries
E) all of these
Q3) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) Hofstede's research has shown there are:
A) no cultural differences among nations in which Spanish is the national language
B) two distinct methods for dealing with cultural differences--adaptation and continuation
C) direct relationships existing between type of infrastructures and growth potential
D) five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries
E) four factors upon which a company should base its decision to globalize
Q2) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) As a consequence of the Industrial Revolution and its emphasis on specialization, institutions providing higher education developed strict departments that contained specialized functions. This organizational structure was perceived as a way to enhance the accumulation and dissemination of knowledge. Institutions providing higher education have traditionally used ____.
A) reengineering
B) functionalization
C) departmentalization
D) functional empowerment
E) job dissemination
Q2) Under product departmentalization, it is easier for top managers to assess work-unit performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is job specialization? Briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.
Q4) The term task description refers to the number, kind, and variety of tasks that individual workers perform in doing their jobs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
A) Reengineering
B) Functionalization
C) Organizational structure
D) Production positioning
E) Organizational process
Q2) A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
A) staff
B) line
C) mechanistic
D) organic
E) charted
Q3) The two disadvantages associated with product departmentalization are costly duplication and difficulties with cross-departmental coordination.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following types of departmentalization does NOT have a problem with the duplication of resources?
A) functional
B) geographic and matrix
C) product and customer
D) customer and functional
E) geographic
Q2) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autonomy continuum shows how five kinds of teams differ in terms of autonomy. The correct sequence from low team autonomy to high team autonomy is (1) traditional work groups, (2) employee involvement groups, (3) semi-autonomous work groups, (4) self-designing teams, and (5) self-managing teams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A leading coatings and paints manufacturer established a team made up of members from various departments to increase plant availability and decrease plant downtime. The plant loses considerable time daily because the assembly line has to be cleaned whenever the production schedule calls for a different color or type of paint to be produced. This cross-functional team needs to avoid ____ conflict if it hopes to be successful.
A) c-type
B) affective
C) behavioral
D) cognitive
E) b-type
Q3) What are virtual teams? Speculate on their likely role in global organizations in the future.
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
A) 2 to 3
B) 6 to 9
C) 15 to 20
D) more than 20
E) All sizes tend to perform equally well.
Q2) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
A) self-designing teams
B) sequentially interdependent teams
C) semi-autonomous work groups
D) self-managing teams
E) self-autonomous teams
Q2) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q3) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is true?
A) Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.
B) Performance appraisals can be used as a basis for compensation but not as a basis for determining who needs further training.
C) Since performance appraisal is only a marginally important human resource process, any problems associated with it do not affect organizations overall.
D) Legally, a disgruntled employee cannot sue an employer on the basis of a dissatisfactory performance appraisal.
E) All of these statements about performance appraisal are true.
Q2) Which of the following is a direct (rather than indirect) measure of job applicants' capability to do the job?
A) creativity tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
Q3) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Q1) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q2) The only time that gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) customer complaints
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41968
Sample Questions
Q1) A __________ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates, peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
A) 360-degree feedback
B) performance appraisal iteration
C) reciprocal appraisal
D) grapevine appraisal
E) circular feedback program
Q2) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q3) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
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35
Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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120 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
Sample Questions
Q1) When the world's biggest manufacturer of locks looked at its employee composition, it discovered that its workers were either over 50 or under 30 because the company had done little hiring during the 1980s and 1990s. ____ was needed to get these two groups to respect each other's work abilities.
A) discrimination heterogeneity
B) social integration
C) organizational plurality
D) acculturation
E) an integrative locus of control
Q2) Recently, the cable television networks have bombarded viewers with a variety of shows based around teams that come in to redecorate homes and gardens in a very short time frame. Since these teams are typically made up of men and women of different ethnic backgrounds, age, and physical capabilities, the fact they work so well with each other to accomplish the redecorating goal is an example of ____.
A) discrimination heterogeneity
B) social integration
C) organizational plurality
D) acculturation
E) an integrative locus of control
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972
Sample Questions
Q1) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:
A) Gender, personality, age, and values
B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age
C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender
D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs
E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes
Q2) Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
A) Diversity increases an organization's retained earnings.
B) Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
C) Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
D) Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
E) Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
Q3) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41971
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
A) Diversity increases an organization's retained earnings.
B) Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
C) Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
D) Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.
E) Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
Q2) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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146 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) Driving in heavy traffic makes Hal very anxious and sometimes angry. He leaves home earlier than usual one morning and doesn't run into heavy traffic. He leaves home earlier again the next morning, and again he avoids heavy traffic. His behavior of leaving home earlier is strengthened by the consequence of the avoidance of heavy traffic. What kind of reinforcement has occurred in this example?
A) negative reinforcement
B) extinction
C) punishment
D) intermittent reinforcement
E) overreward
Q2) Motivation is the set of forces that initiates, directs, and makes people persist in their efforts to accomplish a goal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Give an example of one well-known needs theory. Be sure to identify the needs described by that theory.
Q4) Differentiate between distributive and procedural justice. Briefly explain how each relates to motivating with equity theory.
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, consequences follow a behavior after different times, some shorter and some longer, that vary around a specified average time.
A) fixed interval
B) variable interval
C) fixed ratio
D) variable ratio
E) continuous ratio
Q2) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
A) Feedback should not be specific.
B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.
D) Goals can energize behavior.
E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
Q3) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, a consequence follows every instance of a behavior.
A) continuous
B) intermittent
C) variable interval
D) fixed ratio
E) variable ratio
Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership
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140 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41979
Sample Questions
Q1) The founder and CEO of a medical products distributor, establishes ambitious goals for his employees and is confident that they will be able to achieve these goals. In terms of the path-goal theory, this founder and CEO is exhibiting a(n) ____ type of leadership.
A) Participative
B) achievement-oriented
C) Delegating
D) Empowering
E) Supportive
Q2) Since there are no consistent trait differences between leaders and non-leaders, or between effective and ineffective leaders, trait theory is wrong.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define leadership and management and explain how leaders and managers approach their jobs differently.
Q4) Briefly explain the difference between transformational and transactional leadership.
Q5) Briefly describe the value of the normative decision theory to the practicing manager.
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important situational factor in Fieldler's Contingency Theory is:
A) Task structure
B) Procedural power
C) Leader relations
D) Position power
E) Leader-member relations
Q2) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.
A) directive leadership
B) supportive leadership
C) participative leadership
D) achievement-oriented leadership
E) empowerment leadership
Q3) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q2) Which of the following approaches to implementing Fiedler's contingency theory in the workplace has proven effective?
A) accurately measuring and matching leaders to situations
B) teaching managers how to change situational favorableness
C) arbitrary definition of situations
D) only hiring supervisors with appropriate leadership traits
E) creating standing plans concerning leader actions and reactions
Q3) According to the normative decision theory, using the right degree of employee participation improves the quality of decisions and the extent to which employees accept and are committed to decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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131 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly differentiate between active listening and empathetic listening.
Q2) Define constructive and destructive feedback. Briefly describe the impact when a manager uses each of these to communicate with a work group.
Q3) The three formal communication channels in organizations are categorized as ____.
A) downward, horizontal, and upward
B) hierarchical, functional, and organizational
C) horizontal, vertical, and grapevine
D) upward, dyadic, and downward
E) vertical, horizontal, and dyadic
Q4) When Robin was told that her favorite store would no longer stock her favorite brand of clip-on earrings, she assumed this meant that the company was no longer producing clip-on earrings; even though that was not the case. Robin's incorrect assumption was due to _____.
A) selective perception
B) kinesics
C) closure
D) defensive bias
E) attribution
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) In nonverbal communication, the term __________ refers to movements of the body and face.
A) kinesics
B) proxemics
C) paralanguage
D) pseudo-language
E) semiotics
Q2) __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior.
A) Downward guidance
B) Coaching
C) Counseling
D) Leading
E) Supportive supervision
Q3) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:
A) company hotlines
B) surprise visits
C) survey feedback
D) frequent informal meetings
E) participative management
Q2) In the model of the communication process, __________ makes senders aware of possible miscommunications and enables them to continue communicating until the receiver understands the intended message.
A) encoding
B) noise
C) transmission
D) Feedback to sender
E) the communication medium
Q3) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985
Sample Questions
Q1) Budgets are used to project costs and revenues, to prioritize and control spending, and to ensure that expenses don't exceed available funds and revenues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to C&K Brewing. To maintain the reputations of the brewery and the brewmaster, the company typically destroys about 8 percent of its production because the beer is not of a high enough quality. This would be an example of ____ control.
A) objective
B) concertive
C) bureaucratic
D) sacrificing
E) administrative
Q3) Compare and contrast the nature and operational basis of the five methods of control available to managers and organizations. Comment on whether it matters that a manager selects one method of control over another in a given set of circumstances.
Q4) How does financial control in the Balanced Scorecard approach differ from its use in the traditional approach to control?
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.
A) Optimization
B) Customer churn
C) Balanced scorecard
D) Customer defection
E) Financial ratio analysis
Q2) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q3) The only dimension needed to measure quality is its conformance to expectations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41983
Sample Questions
Q1) Control is a(n) __________ process.
A) standardized, periodic, and cybernetic
B) flexible, intermittent, and automated
C) standardized, periodic, and robotic
D) continuous, flexible, and automated
E) continuous, dynamic, and cybernetic
Q2) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
Q3) Normative controls should be used when:
A) cause-and-effect relationships are clear
B) workers have been taught self-control skills
C) responsibility for task accomplishment is given to autonomous work groups
D) it is necessary to standardize all operations
E) organizational culture, values, and beliefs are strong
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the resource-based view of information technology, sustainable competitive advantage ____.
A) is difficult to create or acquire
B) can be created by using information technology to continuously improve and support the core functions of a business
C) differs across firms
D) occurs when information technology adds value
E) is accurately described by all of these
Q2) Data clusters ____.
A) result from the use of internal data mining
B) are a statistical technique used for trend analysis
C) are used to create samples for statistical analyses
D) occur when three or more database elements occur together in a significant way E) are accurately described by all of these
Q3) It is important to understand that DSS programs should not replace managerial decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a first-mover advantage?
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) DSS programs can replace managerial decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
A) Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
B) For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
C) Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing, storage, retrieval, and communication.
D) Useful information does not come cheaply.
E) All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
Q3) Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
A) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
B) Knowledge resides in information.
C) Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
D) Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
E) All of these statements about knowledge are true.
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41986
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?
A) Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.
B) For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.
C) Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing, storage, retrieval, and communication.
D) Useful information does not come cheaply.
E) All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.
Q2) Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one else. They are:
A) authentication and authorization
B) authorization and empowerment
C) delegation and empowerment
D) encryption and empowerment
E) authentication and encryption
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a kind of cost associated with maintaining an inventory?
A) ordering
B) stockout
C) holding
D) amortization
E) setup
Q2) Many organizations rely on teaming as a key to their productivity and credit their use of teams with performance improvements in such areas as efficiency and quality. This statement is another way to illustrate ____.
A) the importance of benchmarking
B) the prevalence of ISO certification
C) how restructuring leads to stakeholder satisfaction
D) the importance of morale in the creation of a positive bureaucracy
E) how teamwork can result in total quality management
Q3) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
A)True
B)False
Page 54
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.
A)True B)False
Q2) Which of the following types of operations are most dependent on the accuracy of sales forecasts?
A) project manufacturing
B) assemble-to-order operations
C) make-to-order operations
D) buy-to-sell operations
E) make-to-stock operations
Q3) It costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:
A) inventory depreciation
B) inventory amortization
C) weeks of supply
D) multifactor inventory
E) speed of obsolescence
Q2) Two common measures of productivity are extrinsic productivity and intrinsic productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a criterion on which companies are judged when applying for the Baldrige National Quality Award?
A) leadership
B) business results
C) customer and market focus
D) competitive advantage
E) process management
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