Introduction to Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Management provides students with a comprehensive foundation in the key concepts, principles, and functions of management within modern organizations. The course explores the roles and responsibilities of managers, the evolution of management theories, and the fundamental processes of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. Through case studies, real-world examples, and interactive discussions, students will gain insight into effective decision-making, leadership strategies, ethical considerations, and the importance of adapting within dynamic business environments. This course aims to equip students with practical skills and knowledge essential for successfully managing people and resources in a variety of organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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2
Chapter 1: Management
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Q1) While good management is basic to starting and growing a business, once some measures of success has been achieved, good management becomes less important.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Creating a competitive advantage through people relies heavily on the use of which skill to reward people for providing exceptional customer service?
A) motivation to manage
B) conceptual
C) technical
D) interpersonal
E) decisional
Answer: A
Q3) The job of team leader would NOT be considered a management position.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Q1) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly responsible for producing the company's products or services, are categorized as:
A) general managers
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) top managers
Answer: C
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Q1) A manager engaged in the management function of __________ is monitoring progress toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) motivating
Answer: D
Q2) Companies look for a total of four sets of skills in individuals to identify potential managers. These desired skills are technical skills, human skills, conceptual skills, and motivation to manage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Top managers are responsible for creating a context for change in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: History of Management
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Q1) According to Mary Parker Follett, if managers use ____ to settle or reduce conflict, each of the parties involved give up some of what they want.
A) reallocation
B) mediation
C) arbitration
D) negotiation
E) compromise
Q2) Who is responsible for the fact that most products are manufactured using standardized, interchangeable parts.
A) Henri Fayol
B) Eli Whitney
C) Chester Barnard
D) Frederick Taylor
E) Elton Mayo
Q3) The point of integrative conflict resolution is to have both parties indicate their preferences and then work together to find an alternative that meets the needs of both.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Q1) The Gantt chart:
A) was a precursor to the organizational chart
B) is a chart that shows when and where tasks need to be completed so that a job can be completed in a timely fashion
C) was an early method for breaking jobs down into their smallest common denominator
D) was a major tool of scientific managers and is not widely used today
E) is a method for continuous training of front-line employees
Q2) Today thanks to _____, Unverferth, a farm equipment manufacturer, was able to produce parts for its new 12-row subsoiler even without examining parts that were previously made.
A) Henry Ford
B) Henry Gantt
C) Gaspard Monge
D) Eli Whitney
E) Pietro Beretta
Q3) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Q1) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth are important to management because they:
A) used motion studies to eliminate unnecessary or repetitive motions from the work process
B) proved the effectiveness of nonfinancial motivators in convincing workers to strive for organizational goals
C) realized how the principles of sociology applied to worker performance
D) viewed the organization as a system that influenced its environment and that was influenced by its environment
E) identified the four functions managers perform
Q2) Frederick Taylor is famous for:
A) developing time and motion studies
B) first defining the functions of managers
C) developing the 14 principles of management
D) creating the principles of scientific management
E) doing all of these
Q3) A Gantt chart can be used to track informal communication paths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Q1) Managers often do a poor job of identifying potential competitors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term ____ refers to the events and trends inside an organization that affect management, employees, and the organizational culture.
A) managerial environment
B) internal environment
C) industry environment
D) general environment
E) organizational structure
Q3) Identify and provide examples of the two important ways in which socio-cultural changes and trends influence organizations.
Q4) A high degree of buyer or seller dependence can lead to ____ in which one party benefits at the expense of the other.
A) relationship behavior
B) transactional behavior
C) behavioral monogamy
D) relational monopoly
E) opportunistic behavior
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
Q2) Which of the following is a component of Volkswagen's specific environment and will directly influence how it does business?
A) Renault, a French car maker
B) laws concerning air bags
C) inflation
D) gasoline prices
E) the fact consumers are buying fewer SUVs
Q3) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Q1) Managers can use behavioral addition and behavioral substitution to:
A) create benchmarks
B) assess the threats and opportunities in the internal environment
C) develop new products
D) locate new markets for existing products
E) modify corporate culture
Q2) The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In terms of environmental complexity, __________ environments have few environmental factors, whereas __________ environments have many environmental factors.
A) non-competitive; competitive
B) simple; complex
C) stable; dynamic
D) scarce; abundant
E) market-oriented; product-oriented
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a stakeholder group that an organization must satisfy to assure long-term survival?
A) investors
B) customers
C) the media
D) employees
E) governments
Q2) Identify and briefly describe Kohlberg's three phases of moral development.
Q3) Define stakeholders. What are the two types of stakeholder groups? Give one example of each.
Q4) The media would be an example of a secondary stakeholder group for an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All four areas of social responsibility for companies (economic, legal, ethical, and discretionary) are equally important to a company's overall level of social responsibility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Q1) The categories of social responsibility for a company are economic, legal, ethical, and discretionary
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the term used to describe the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue?
A) Ethical intensity
B) Social consensus
C) Temporal immediacy
D) Magnitude of consequences
E) Ethical valence
Q3) Under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines, companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Q1) According to Milton Friedman, which of the following is a position opposing the stakeholder model of corporate social responsibility?
A) Organizations can act effectively as moral agents for all company shareholders.
B) The time, money, and attention diverted to social causes undermine market efficiency.
C) It is socially responsible for companies to divert their efforts to social causes.
D) The marketplace will ultimately determine the importance of social causes.
E) All of these positions are in accordance with the beliefs of Milton Friedman.
Q2) Kohlberg's three phases of moral development in order are law and order, instrumental exchange, and universal principle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Q1) Describe a planning effort that you are acquainted with (either through reading or personal experience), and explain how both the benefits and pitfalls of planning described in the chapter were manifest in your case. Comment on the extent to which your case seems to substantiate or refute the claims made in the text for the benefits and pitfalls of planning.
Q2) Which of the following is a commonly used method for increasing goal commitment?
A) encouraging worker participation in goal setting
B) keeping goals private
C) setting ethical goals
D) using ombudsman to set goals
E) all of these
Q3) Refer to Krispy Kreme. How does Krispy Kreme benefit from planning?
A) Planning makes persistence unnecessary.
B) Planning allows managers to direct their employees to "do their best."
C) Planning gives direction to managers and employees.
D) Planning eliminates the need for task strategies.
E) Planning would provide all of these benefits to Krispy Kreme.
Q4) Briefly explain what decision criteria are. Identify two approaches that may be used to weight these criteria.
Q5) What is planning and what are its benefits?
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) In the Dephi technique, the members of a panel of experts respond to questions and to each other until reaching agreement on an issue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Top management is responsible for developing long-term:
A) standing plans
B) tactical plans
C) operational plans
D) strategic plans
E) mission statements
Q3) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the most specific type of standing plan?
A) policies
B) procedures
C) rules and regulations
D) forecasts
E) MBO plans
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Q1) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q2) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Top management is responsible for developing long-term __________ that make clear how the company will serve customers and position itself against competitors in the next two to five years.
A) standing plans
B) tactical plans
C) operational plans
D) strategic plans
E) mission statements
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17
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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Questions
Q1) When Clorox Corporation, the manufacturer of bleach and bleach-based cleaning products, acquired Kingsford Charcoal and Prime Choice brand steak sauce; it was an example of ____.
A) internal growth
B) a stability strategy
C) a pioneering strategy
D) external growth
E) a repositioning strategy
Q2) According to the text, valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable resources can produce sustainable competitive advantage only if they are ____ resources.
A) nonsubstitutable
B) substitutable
C) reliable
D) expensive
E) imitable
Q3) List the five industry forces that determine overall levels of competition in an industry. Identify what happens to competition as these forces increase in strength.
Q4) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.
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Page 18
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
Q2) The first step in the strategy-making process is to:
A) assess the need for strategic change
B) conduct a situation analysis
C) choose strategic alternatives
D) evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment
E) create a strategic budget
Q3) Companies often choose a stability strategy when their external environment doesn't change much, or after they have struggled with periods of explosive growth.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) Resource similarity and __________ are factors that determine the extent to which firms will be in direct competition with each other.
A) market commonality
B) resource similarity
C) related diversification
D) product differentiation
E) customer autonomy
Q2) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry-specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Refer to Levi Strauss. Which of the specific techniques for dealing with resistance to change did Morgan use to convince the Asian suppliers that it was in their best interest to adopt the Develop Sources process?
A) coercion
B) top management support
C) education and communication
D) direction
E) tactical manipulation
Q2) Dominant designs emerge because they solve a practical problem, are a result of the negotiations of independent standards bodies, or because of critical mass.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Technological discontinuities are followed by discontinuous change characterized by technological substitution and design competition.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Provide one example of a common error made by managers when they lead change at each of the three steps of the change process.
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21
Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q3) Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
A) unfreezing
B) organizational dialogue
C) change definition
D) incremental change
E) change mentoring
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) The General Electric workout is a special kind of:
A) activity-oriented change
B) results-driven change
C) generational change
D) vision-driven change
E) resources-driven change
Q2) Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
A) innovation maps
B) organization development
C) results-driven change
D) innovation streams
E) cyclical inventions
Q3) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
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Chapter 8: Global Management
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Q1) A European car manufacturer signing a contract to manufacture cars in a Chinese factory is an example of direct foreign investment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cosmetics company that is considering entering the South American market would be especially interested in the discretionary income within that region. In other words, which of the following would be a determining factor in its global strategy?
A) purchasing power
B) political uncertainty
C) expropriation potential
D) infrastructure
E) sociocultural trends
Q3) Compare and contrast the concepts of global consistency and local adaptation as policies for entering foreign markets.
Q4) A joint venture is an example of a strategic alliance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe a regional trade agreement and a worldwide trade agreement.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
A) communications and transportation systems
B) purchasing power
C) political stability
D) creative differences
E) product diffusion rate
Q2) The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global trade during the 1990s was the:
A) Maastricht Treaty of Europe
B) North American Free Trade Agreement
C) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
D) Mercosur
E) Asian Free Trade Arrangement
Q3) Export restraints, government subsidies, and quotas are all examples of nontariff trade barriers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 25
Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) Global business:
A) is the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries
B) includes any sale of goods and services
C) only involves companies with more than 50 employees
D) refers to sales made to people from different cultures, different regions, and different nations
E) is unregulated
Q2) The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
A) government import standards and industry import standards
B) qualitative and quantitative barriers
C) voluntary and involuntary barriers
D) nationalistic and geocentric barriers
E) tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
Q3) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT):
A) replaced the United Nations court system
B) eliminated government subsidies
C) eliminated tariffs in ten specific industries
D) operated in a fashion similar to the Chamber of Commerce
E) did all of these
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Page 26
Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Q1) According to an Indian Cardinal by the name of Varkey Vithayathil, the greatest weakness of the Catholic Church is the way papal authority is exercised without the participation of those concerned. His eminence Cardinal Vithayathil is criticizing the fact that the Catholic Church relies on ____.
A) centralization of authority
B) standardization
C) top management reciprocity
D) job specialization
E) decentralization
Q2) ____ is a feeling of intrinsic motivation, in which workers perceive their work to have meaning and perceive themselves to be competent, having an impact, and capable of self-determination.
A) Reciprocity
B) Motivational assertion
C) Eutonomy
D) Empowerment
E) Autonomy
Q3) Identify the five traditional approaches to organizational structure. Which one is best for a company to use? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The core philosophy upon which the job characteristic model is based is:
A) reciprocity
B) empathy
C) autonomy
D) internal motivation
E) motivational valences
Q3) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
Q4) Job enlargement and job enrichment mean essentially the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
A) staff
B) line
C) mechanistic
D) organic
E) charted
Q2) The central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is:
A) internal motivation
B) synergy
C) task identification
D) time-motion studies
E) a value-added measure
Q3) Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:
A) chain of command
B) empowerment
C) behavioral informality
D) reengineering
E) all of these
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Page 29
Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) E-Lab (the "E" stands for experience) has project teams perform field research for its clients. These project teams are composed of students of theology, actors, and musicians as well as the more traditional marketing experts and statisticians. E-Lab teams benefit from ____.
A) group norms
B) team diversity
C) aggregated creativity
D) collectivism
E) structural accommodation
Q2) One way that teams can be broadly classified as either ____.
A) functional or departmental
B) local or national
C) line or staff
D) centralized or decentralized
E) functional or cross-functional
Q3) Norms are informally agreed-upon standards that regulate team behavior. They are valuable because they let team members know what is expected of them.
A)True
B)False
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Page 30
Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:
A) localized synergy
B) bureaucratic immunity
C) strategic diversity
D) organizational accommodation
E) limited cohesiveness
Q2) Since teams should be an end in themselves, it is appropriate to use them in most situations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Team rewards that depend on __________ are the key to rewarding team behaviors and efforts.
A) team performance rather than individual performance
B) individual efforts rather than team performance
C) someone taking the role of group leader
D) the elimination of social loafing
E) the use of groupthink
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) What can management do to promote group cohesiveness?
A) Have the group members engage in nonwork activities together.
B) Create a special jargon for the group members to use.
C) Instruct the group members to work in each others' offices
D) Limit task interdependence.
E) Do all of these.
Q2) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Work teams enhance speed and efficiency when designing and manufacturing new products because they:
A) allow departments to work independently of one another
B) make possible overlapping development phases
C) fit well with traditional sequential development phases
D) avoid problems associated with synergy
E) do all of these
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) Sharron Grant-Burton was a marketing director for Covenant Care, owner of skilled-nursing and assisted-living facilities. During a discussion of the fairness of the company's bonus structure with other marketing directors, Grant-Burton said she did not receive a bonus because her executive director "did not believe in them." Several days later, Grant-Burton was fired and told she had been terminated for a number of unspecified reasons, including her comments about bonuses. This is an example of a
A) de-employment
B) wrongful discharge
C) reactive termination
D) regressive turnover
E) proactive termination
Q2) Employee turnover is always bad for an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how a human resources department defines selection. List the four common categories of selection procedures used by companies. Specify which of these four generally does the best job of predicting applicants' future job performance.
Q4) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41969
Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) scripted
E) canned
Q2) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which training method is NOT used to practice, learn, or change job behaviors?
A) On-the-job training
B) Role-playing
C) Simulations and games
D) Lectures
E) Vestibule training
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Page 34
Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41968
Sample Questions
Q1) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) customer complaints
Q3) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
Sample Questions
Q1) In order to ensure that women have the same opportunities for development and advancement as men, companies should ____.
A) promote Machiavellianism
B) use passive change agents
C) change the organization's mission statement
D) develop mentoring programs
E) do all of these
Q2) Surface-level diversity refers to differences such as age, gender, race/ethnicity, and physical disabilities that are observable, typically unchangeable, and easy to measure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each other to accomplish a common objective.
A) Social integration
B) Norm cohesiveness
C) Social cohesiveness
D) Integrative focus
E) Social attraction
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force:
Part A
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972
Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:
A) Gender, personality, age, and values
B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age
C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender
D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs
E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes
Q3) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41971
Sample Questions
Q1) Organizational plurality is consistent with:
A) the paradigm of commonality
B) the determination and fairness paradigm
C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm
D) the access and legitimacy paradigm
E) none of these
Q2) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
A) emotional stability
B) extraversion
C) conscientiousness
D) empathy
E) agreeableness
Q4) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Page 38
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41976
Sample Questions
Q1) Give an example of one well-known needs theory. Be sure to identify the needs described by that theory.
Q2) The ____ states that people will be motivated to the extent to which they believe that their efforts will lead to good performance, that good performance will be rewarded, and that they are offered attractive rewards.
A) reinforcement theory
B) equity theory
C) expectancy theory
D) goal-setting theory
E) theory of motivational instrumentality
Q3) Describe goal-setting theory. Briefly identify the theory's basic components.
Q4) For punishment to work (i.e., to weaken the frequency of undesirable behaviors without creating a backlash), the punishment must be strong enough to stop the undesired behavior and must be administered ____.
A) subjectively
B) physiologically
C) consistently, contingently, and quickly
D) through need deprivation
E) at variable intervals
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41975
Sample Questions
Q1) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On the basis of research evidence, the two basic needs categories are:
A) tangible and intangible needs
B) physiological and psychological needs
C) higher-order and lower-order needs
D) extrinsic and intrinsic needs
E) realized and unrealized needs
Q3) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
A) Feedback should not be specific.
B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.
D) Goals can energize behavior.
E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41974
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?
A) Feedback should not be specific.
B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.
C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.
D) Goals can energize behavior.
E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.
Q2) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
Q3) The primary ways for creating reinforcement contingencies in organizations are:
A) extrinsic rewards and the schedules of reinforcement
B) extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
C) perceptions of equity and reward desirability
D) situational motivators
E) higher-order needs and organizational structure
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Page 41
Chapter 14: Leadership
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140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41979
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is another term for considerate leadership behavior?
A) initiating structure behavior
B) participative management
C) job-centered leadership
D) concern for production
E) employee-centered leadership
Q2) As CEO of UPS, Michael Eskew transformed the company from a package delivery service to a logistics expert so it could serve as a traffic manager for corporate America. As a transformational manager, Eskew ____.
A) insisted his employees do the right thing
B) created opportunities for rewards
C) used intellectual stimulation to encourage his employees to take innovative approaches to problem solving
D) encouraged his employees to depend on information technology as the basis for decision-making
E) created heuristics to guide the transformation procedure
Q3) What is the difference between a leader and a manager? What is the relative importance of leaders and managers to the success of organizations today?
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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10 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) While transformational leaders use visionary and inspirational appeals to influence followers, transactional leadership is based on an exchange process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?
A) team management
B) middle of the road management
C) authority-compliance
D) country club management
E) none of these
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
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Page 43
Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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10 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41977
Sample Questions
Q1) Relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior, form the basis for the __________ of leadership.
A) situational theory
B) behavioral theory
C) trait theory
D) expectancy theory
E) path-goal theory
Q2) The Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model is another name for the:
A) normative decision theory
B) contingency theory of leadership
C) path-goal theory of leadership
D) situational theory of leadership
E) trait theory of leadership
Q3) According to the normative decision theory, using the right degree of employee participation improves the quality of decisions and the extent to which employees accept and are committed to decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41982
Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Urban Legends. When an employee at Coca-Cola received an e-mail that contended half a rat's body had been found in a bottle of one of its competitor's products, the employee forwarded the e-mail to everyone who worked in the Atlanta office. What kind of a grapevine communications network did this Coke employee use?
A) cluster chain
B) stratified chain
C) information overload
D) source diffusion
E) gossip chain
Q2) A casual jogger noticed that the San Diego Zoo was prohibiting people in motorized wheelchairs from viewing the zoo's baby panda and saw nothing wrong with this policy. Another zoo patron, who uses a wheelchair, saw the notice and felt he was being discriminated against because he could not access the panda site. This is an example of ____.
A) selective perception
B) kinesics
C) faulty closure
D) selective retention
E) defensive biases
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45
Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
Q3) The self-serving bias is the tendency to overestimate our value by attributing successes to ourselves (internal causes) and attributing failures to others or the environment (external causes).
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41980
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:
A) company hotlines
B) surprise visits
C) survey feedback
D) frequent informal meetings
E) participative management
Q2) The steps in the basic perception process include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) attention
B) organization
C) analysis
D) interpretation
E) retention
Q3) __________ is a kind of one-on-one communication used by managers to improve an employee's on-the-job performance or behavior.
A) Downward guidance
B) Coaching
C) Counseling
D) Leading
E) Supportive supervision
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Page 47
Chapter 16: Control
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985
Sample Questions
Q1) Concertive control produces less stress for workers than bureaucratic control.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Walgreens. When Walgreens' managers changed how much inventory the company holds at a time, they were affecting the ____ perspective of the balance scorecard.
A) customer
B) innovation and learning
C) internal
D) feedback
E) external relations
Q3) Feedback control is a mechanism for gathering information about performance deficiencies before they occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Concurrent control seeks to prevent or minimize performance deficiencies before they occur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define benchmarking and list the three steps in this process.
Page 48
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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10 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41984
Sample Questions
Q1) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q3) __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.
A) Optimization
B) Customer churn
C) Balanced scorecard
D) Customer defection
E) Financial ratio analysis
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41983
Sample Questions
Q1) Economic value added (EVA) is so important to workers and managers because it:
A) eliminates the need for quantitative motivation
B) encourages the use of participative management techniques
C) specifies what should be done to improve EVA performance
D) creates strategic windows
E) shows whether a business or subset of a business is really making a profit
Q2) The two types of objective controls managers use are:
A) output and input
B) administrative and participative
C) self-control and organizational control
D) autonomous and individualized
E) behavior and output
Q3) __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.
A) Optimization
B) Customer churn
C) Balanced scorecard
D) Customer defection
E) Financial ratio analysis
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Page 50
Chapter 17: Managing Information
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988
Sample Questions
Q1) A master brewer knows the exact ingredients to add to make a dark beer, a lager, or an ale. He understands the nuances of the fermentation process and when a batch reaches perfection. How can technology capture this specialized knowledge?
Q2) Protecting information is the process of ensuring that data are reliably and consistently retrievable in a usable format for authorized users but no one else.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A manufacturer of pharmaceuticals can access information about its sales and share new product information with drug store chains through the use of ____.
A) electronic data interchange (EDI)
B) bar scanners
C) SSL interchanges
D) intranets
E) Internet portals
Q4) According to the resource-based view of information technology, what are the three critical issues that companies need to address in order to sustain a competitive advantage through information technology?
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41987
Sample Questions
Q1) DSS programs can replace managerial decision making.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
Q3) Unsupervised data mining is particularly good at identifying:
A) association or affinity patterns
B) sequence patterns
C) predictive patterns
D) data clusters
E) all of these
Q4) Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to the person for which the data were gathered.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41986
Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of capturing information, ASCII text is generated by:
A) bar codes
B) electronic scanners
C) optical character recognition software
D) e-tools
E) data mining
Q2) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
Q3) Data mining is the:
A) automated, electronic capture of data
B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases
C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data
D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data
E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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125 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41989
Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ of a maker of cloth dolls would include over 200 yards of fabric, 100 yards of ribbon, a box of 500 wiggle eyes, stuffing, 20 dolls in various stages of completion, and 15 completed dolls.
A) raw materials
B) component materials
C) finished products
D) inventory
E) SKUs
Q2) Refer to RIP. What kind of inventory are Americans who manufacture NEC, Fujitsu, and Sony products maintaining?
A) finished goods inventory
B) component parts inventory
C) raw materials inventory
D) work-in-process inventory
E) all of these
Q3) The easier it is to maintain a working product or fix a broken product, the more reliable that product is.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41991
Sample Questions
Q1) The two types of productivity are:
A) partial productivity and complete productivity
B) multifactor productivity and partial productivity
C) individual productivity and departmental productivity
D) departmental productivity and organizational productivity
E) organizational productivity and industry productivity
Q2) A product's quality is determined by its:
A) reliability, homogeneity, and durability
B) reliability, validity, and effectiveness
C) serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
D) durability, reliability, and serviceability
E) consistency, tangibility, and durability
Q3) It costs ten times as much to find a new customer as it does to keep an existing customer.
A)True
B)False
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55
Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41990
Sample Questions
Q1) _______ refers to a manufacturing operation that divides manufacturing processes into separate parts or modules that are combined to create semi-customized products.
A) Assemble-to-stock
B) Assemble-to-order
C) Make-to-order
D) Make-to-stock
E) Batch processing
Q2) Downtime and lost efficiency are both examples of:
A) ordering costs
B) setup costs
C) holding costs
D) stockout costs
E) depreciation costs
Q3) The first step in the service-profit chain is external service quality or the quality of treatment that employees receive from a company's internal service providers.
A)True
B)False
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