Introduction to Lifespan Development Test
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Lifespan Development provides an overview of the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur throughout the human lifespan, from conception to late adulthood. The course explores major theories and research findings in developmental psychology, emphasizing the influences of biological, environmental, and cultural factors on growth and development. Students will examine key milestones and transitions across various life stages, including infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging, to gain a deeper understanding of the complexities and diversity of human development.
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Lifespan Development 6th Edition by Denise Boyd
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Concepts and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sets of statements that propose general principles to explain development are known as
A) cross-sectional designs.
B) hypotheses.
C) theories.
D) constructs.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about research ethics?
A) Research ethics apply to human research but not animal research.
B) Research ethics apply to animal research but not human research.
C) Research ethics apply to both human and animal research.
D) Research ethics are another word for laws.
Answer: C
Q3) As we age the transition between stages of development becomes more ________ in terms of defining milestones.
Answer: arbitrary
Q4) Normative ________ changes are universal, in that they apply to everyone at the same period of maturation.
Answer: age-graded
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Chapter 2: Theories of Development
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Q1) Which of the following is considered to be the major weakness of psychoanalytic theories?
A) They contribute more to our understanding of how learning occurs than to our knowledge of human development.
B) Such theories do not explain social, emotional, or personality development.
C) Few scientists have accepted or acknowledged their key principles.
D) It has been very difficult to test their key concepts.
Answer: D
Q2) Two-year-old Sven can use crayons and paper to draw pictures. According to Piaget, why is Sven drawing pictures?
A) He is presenting an outward representation of his internal thoughts.
B) At this age the drawings mean nothing, Sven is simply improving his motor skills.
C) Sven is in the early stages of learning to write.
D) He is presenting an outward manifestation of others' thoughts.
Answer: A
Q3) ________ coined the term operant conditioning.
Answer: B. F. Skinner
Q4) In classical conditioning terms, a reflex is made up of what two components?
Answer: an unconditioned stimulus causing an unconditioned response
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is typical for individuals who have sex chromosome anomalies?
A) Problems controlling their weight
B) Facial anomalies or deformities
C) Learning difficulties
D) Puberty that occurs either very early or very late
Answer: C
Q2) After watching the video clip on drug-free deliveries, explain the process of hypnobirthing. Using critical thinking, give an educated, informed opinion of this process.
Answer: Key concepts:
- no scientific data to back it up or discredit it
- there is anecdotal evidence based on the premise that the woman's body knows how to deliver the child and the less outside interference the better, including drugs - process involves visualization, relaxation, relaxed breathing and gentle stroking of the back and hips
Q3) All neonates below ________ are classified as having low birth weights.
Answer: 5.5 pounds
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Chapter 4: Physical, Sensory, and Perceptual Development in Infancy
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Q1) An infant's sleep/wake cycle lasts approximately how long?
A) 30 to 45 minutes
B) 4 - 6 hours
C) 2 hours
D) 8 hours
Q2) If two-month-old Andrew has colic, which of the following characteristics will be most noticeable to his parents?
A) His diarrhea and vomiting
B) His intense crying
C) His lack of appetite
D) His high fever and listlessness
Q3) Explain why the ability to perceive depth is more than a matter of visual acuity. List three factors that contribute to the development of depth perception.
Q4) What type of malnutrition is most likely to be seen in industrialized nations?
Q5) _________ of neurons and glial cells are present at birth.
A) Hundreds
B) Thousands
C) Millions
D) Billions
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) A child's understanding of language is known by which of the following?
A) Language expression
B) Language reception
C) Language bias
D) Language production
Q2) According to Piaget, _____________________ describe repetitive actions oriented around external objects.
A) primary circular reactions
B) secondary circular reactions
C) tertiary circular reactions
D) principle circular reactions
Q3) Around what age do we typically see the emergence of holophrases?
A) Two years
B) 12 -18 months
C) 6 months
D) 18 - 20 months
Q4) Beginning in the ________ substage of Piaget's cognitive development, babies will look for partially hidden objects.
Q5) According to B.F. Skinner, how does babbling develop into language?
Q6) What are the characteristics of first sentences?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Social and Personality Development in Infancy
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Q1) According to the trait perspective of temperament, which of the following refers to an infant's relative tendency to move often and vigorously or remain passive?
A) Hyperactivity
B) Activity level
C) Effortful control
D) Motor sociability
Q2) Approach/positive emotionality is one aspect of which perspective of temperament?
A) Classic
B) Trait
C) Categorical
D) Response
Q3) Which of the following are described in terms of activity level, distractibility, and persistence?
A) Types of infant personalities
B) Personality dimensions
C) Dimensions of temperament
D) Characteristics of self-concept
Q4) Another name for the objective self is ________.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give five examples of gross motor skills which should be developed by the age of five years.
Q2) Darius holds his hairbrush to his mouth and sings as if the hairbrush is a microphone. This is an example of what type of play?
A) Associative
B) First pretend
C) Substitute pretend
D) Abstract
Q3) What is the major cause of death of preschool and school-age children in the United States?
A) Child abuse
B) Congenital diseases
C) Macronutrient malnutrition
D) Accidents
Q4) As children's motor skills develop and change, their gross motor skills show signs of ___________________, allowing them to perform behaviors without having to think about them.
Q5) Identify and describe Vygotsky's stages of cognitive development from birth to age 7.
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Chapter 8: Social and Personality Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Which of the following best defines the term parenting styles?
A) The strategies that parents employ to reward their children
B) The characteristic strategies that parents use to manage children's behaviors
C) The temperamental tendencies that children show toward their children
D) The behavior that parents demonstrate when their children misbehave
Q2) Describe empathy and its development in children.
Q3) Which of the following best summarizes young children's understanding of intentions?
A) Young children understand that a person who does something intentionally wrong should be punished more severely than someone who caused harm by accident.
B) Piaget was correct in his theory that young children are not capable of understanding intention.
C) Young children are more able to understand intentions than Piaget thought, but they are limited in their ability to base judgment on intentions.
D) Young children can accurately decide how a wrong-doer should be punished but they have no understanding of intentionality.
Q4) Quantify the nature of stable playmate relationships between 3 and 4 years of age.
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the information processing strategies described in your text?
A) Harmonics
B) Meta-processing
C) Retrieval activation
D) Systematic searching
Q2) ________ refers to problems reading or a complete inability to read.
Q3) Phoebe came to the United States from Puerto Rico. She speaks very little English but is in a special class that teaches her in both English and Spanish. Phoebe is in what type of program?
A) Bilingual education
B) Multi-lingual education
C) LED
D) ESL
Q4) On which of the following does a child's capacity for creativity depend?
A) The amount of knowledge they have about a topic
B) Their metacognitive skills
C) Their executive processing strategies
D) Their short-term memory abilities
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Q5) Concrete operations permit children to understand relations among ________.
Chapter 10: Social and Personality Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) Assume that you are the parent of a middle-aged child. Based on the reading and research presented in the text, what kinds of rules, if any, would you set around TV watching and internet usage for your child?
Q2) Which of the following best defines self-efficacy?
A) The belief in one's influence over events which have nothing to do with them.
B) The belief that one is responsible for their own internal behaviors.
C) The belief that the environment influences one's internal thoughts.
D) The belief in one's ability to cause an intended event to happen.
Q3) According to Erikson, how does a child achieve a sense of industry?
Q4) If you ask a preschooler how people make friends, what are they likely to say? What will a ten-year-old say?
Q5) According to researchers, aggressive and withdrawn are two types of ________ children.
Q6) Which of the following groups is LEAST likely to have internet access?
A) White children
B) Hispanic American children
C) Asian American children
D) ESL children
12
Q7) A ________ is a stable pattern of responding to situations.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Approximately ______% of African American girls and ________% of white girls start to show signs of pubertal development by the age of 8 or 9 years.
Q2) Which of the following may create a developmental pathway for adolescent depression?
A) Growing up with a depressed parent
B) Growing up in a religion that emphasizes traditional gender roles
C) Growing up in a low socioeconomic status family
D) Having many siblings
Q3) Based on your own experience, how is virginity viewed among adolescents now?
Q4) What is the concordance rate of homosexuality in fraternal twins?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Q5) Why does your text say that risky behaviors are more common in adolescence than other developmental periods?
Q6) Describe the diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa.
Q7) List three factors that contribute to completed suicide.
Q8) List and summarize the characteristics of the three phases of pregnancy crisis. Page 13
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Chapter 12: Social and Personality Development in Adolescence
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Q1) At the preconventional stage of Kohlberg's levels of moral development, a child's moral reasoning is based on which of the following?
A) Internal expectations of what is considered fair
B) The expectations of others regarding the child's behavior
C) The outcome or consequences of an action
D) Internalized values and principles
Q2) Which theorist saw the issues of identity and role confusion as critical to adolescent development?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Albert Bandura
D) Jean Piaget
Q3) Marcia's theory of adolescent identity achievement suggests that adolescent identity formation has two key parts. What are they?
A) Confusion and resolution
B) Extrusion and inclusion
C) Crisis and commitment
D) A physical transformation; a psychosocial transition
Q4) Approximately ________% of friendships formed by tenth-graders are long-lasting.
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Larry thinks he is the center of the universe. He hates waiting in lines, insisting that his time is way too important for such trivial matters. While he easily exploits other people for his own personal gain, he also wants everyone to think he is as great as HE thinks he is. Recently, when his wife's aged mother died, he was secretly a little annoyed at the timing, as it interfered with his vacation. Which of the personality disorders mentioned in your text does Larry BEST fit?
A) Narcissistic
B) Histrionic
C) Antisocial
D) Paranoid
Q2) Which of the following is associated with binge drinking?
A) Fewer negative interactions with police
B) More frequent protected sex
C) Driving while intoxicated
D) Mental illness
Q3) Surveys of smokers show that ________% of them want to quit.
Q4) People with an ________ locus of control tend to be healthier than those with an ________ locus of control.
Q5) An inevitable consequence of aging is changes in ________ appearance.
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Chapter 14: Social and Personality Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) How do gay couples differ from heterosexual couples in terms of monogamy?
Q2) Which parts of the brain finish maturing during emerging adulthood?
Q3) How does marital satisfaction in childless couples compare with that in couples with children?
Q4) Which personality type tends to be extroverted, people-oriented, and sociable?
A) Social
B) Enterprising
C) Conventional
D) Realistic
Q5) Which of the following is an innovation of the quality of work life movement?
A) Ride sharing
B) Vacation time
C) Flextime
D) Cellphones
Q6) Summarize the attitudes and perspective of young women on their future lives as mothers and workers.
Q7) List and explain the phases of Levinson's life structures theory.
Page 17
Q8) If we maximize our strengths in our careers, then this maximizes the ________ of our work.
Q9) What are the characteristics of Holland's realistic personality type?
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) A researcher who is testing the cognitive functioning of middle-aged adults would find which of the following to be true of her subjects regarding well-rehearsed, familiar tasks?
A) They would have difficulty performing them
B) They will show gradual decrements
C) They perceive impaired performance
D) They maintain or gain in skill
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a result of the reduced estrogen levels associated with menopause?
A) Hot flashes
B) Mood swings
C) Breast tenderness
D) Insomnia
Q3) According to the most current research, which of the following is a benefit of hormone replacement therapy?
A) Fewer hot flashes
B) Reduced sex drive
C) Reduced bone loss from osteoporosis
D) Reduced risk of coronary heart disease
Q4) In what type of tasks do middle-aged adults outperform younger adults?
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Chapter 16: Social and Personality Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) How do Baby Boomers differ from their parents in terms of retirement age and planning?
Q2) Which of the following is the best predictor of burnout in the work place?
A) Working lots of overtime
B) Feeling as if one's work is not appreciated
C) Having a poor relationship with one's boss
D) Poor familial support
Q3) Summarize Vaillant's revisions and contributions to Erikson's theory. Give examples of his two additional stages.
Q4) According to Erikson, which of the following would cause a person to experience a mid-life crisis?
A) A sense of generativity
B) An external locus of control
C) A loss of self-efficacy
D) A sense of stagnation
Q5) What does Erikson suggest is required for the expression of generativity?
A) Caring for others
B) Communicating effectively
C) Obeying the law
D) Optimum use of one's intelligence
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Chapter 17: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) Identify four factors that contribute to depression in old age. Identify which of these is the strongest predictor of depression.
Q2) Briefly explain the concept of synaptic plasticity.
Q3) The genetically programmed time limit for cell replication to which each species is theoretically bound is called
A) life expectancy.
B) maximum reproductive capacity.
C) the Hayflick limit.
D) the telomere.
Q4) Alzheimer's disease affects as many as ________ adults.
Q5) Which of the following is likely to affect sexual activity in older age?
A) Medications
B) Increasing testosterone levels
C) Cultural taboos
D) Lack of interest
Q6) ________ restriction is one of the most beneficial contributors to healthy eating habits.
Q7) A persistent ringing in the ears is called ________.
Q8) Foods high in vitamins ________, ________, and ________ are good antioxidants. Page 21
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Chapter 18: Social and Personality Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) Volunteerism is defined as performance of unpaid work for ________ motives.
Q2) According to research in the United States and Japan, which factor might help individuals to recover from a health crisis such as a stroke or a fracture?
A) A combative, argumentative spirit
B) Viewing health care professionals as adversaries to be beaten
C) Adopting recovery goals proposed by rehabilitation specialists
D) Steadfast optimism and a positive attitude
Q3) Which of the following is for elderly adults who need more assistance than is available at an independent living community, but are not in need of constant supervision?
A) Nursing home care
B) Assisted living
C) Nursing center care
D) Outpatient care
Q4) Family relationships tend to become more ________ as adults get older.
Q5) How does attendance at religious services correlate with health? Explain the possible reasons for this correlation.
Page 23
Q6) How important are relationships with adult children to older adults?
Q7) What effects have Western ideas had on filial piety in some large Asian cities?
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Chapter 19: Death Dying and Bereavement
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Q1) What is the difference between clinical death and brain death?
Q2) Which of the following does research suggest is the most difficult death to recover from?
A) The death of a child
B) The death of a parent
C) The death of a sibling
D) The death of a spouse
Q3) Identify physical, practical, and emotional preparations that people make in preparing for death. What does the research say about unconscious preparation for death?
Q4) How does thinking about time change in middle adulthood?
A) Time seems to move faster than it did in young adulthood
B) Time seems to move slower than it did in young adulthood
C) Thinking in terms of years rather than decades
D) Thinking in terms of time until death rather than time since birth
Q5) Explain each of Corr's tasks for the dying person.
Q6) Why is it difficult for people in Western cultures to say goodbye to loved ones as they approach death?
Q7) When vital signs are absent but resuscitation is still possible it is called ________.
Page 24
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