Introduction to Life Sciences
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Life Sciences provides a foundational understanding of the biological principles that govern living organisms, from the molecular to the ecosystem level. The course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, while introducing students to scientific inquiry and experimental methods. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory activities, students gain practical skills and a comprehensive perspective on how life processes interconnect, preparing them for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology 4th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold?
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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Q1) A personal opinion on the effectiveness of a dietary supplement in preventing colds is an example of ________ evidence.
Answer: anecdotal
Q2) A(n)________ (two words)is an explanation of a set of related observations based on well-supported hypotheses from a number of different, independent lines of research. Answer: scientific theory
Q3) The incidence of cancer in people living within 100 yards of overhead power lines is recorded. This would be best described as an example of a(n)
A) ecological study.
B) cross-sectional survey.
C) cohort study.
D) correlational experiment.
Answer: A
Q4) ________ reasoning is used to make a hypothesis based on previously established observations.
Answer: Inductive
Q5) ________ reasoning takes the form of "if/then" statements.
Answer: Deductive
3
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Q1) Which organelle is represented by a network of membranes involved in the production of proteins?
A) chloroplast
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) lysosome
D) nucleus
Answer: B
Q2) Which organelle performs photosynthesis?
A) chloroplast
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosome
D) mitochondrion
Answer: A
Q3) Proteins are composed of monomer subunits called ________ (two words). Answer: amino acids
Q4) The ________ is the fundamental structural unit of life on Earth. Answer: cell
Q5) ________ are the smallest units into which an element can be broken down. Answer: Atoms
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
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Q1) Phagocytic white blood cells digest many of the invasive bacteria that gain entry into the human body. How could a bacterial cell enter a white blood cell in order to be digested?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) active transport
C) exocytosis
D) endocytosis
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these foods is made up of many branching chains of sugar monomers?
A) honey
B) milk
C) nuts
D) beans
Answer: D
Q3) Why is fiber an important part of a healthful human diet?
A) It is easily digested into monosaccharides, which are used for energy.
B) It may decrease the risk of certain types of cancers.
C) It increases the amount of HDL and LDL cholesterol in the body.
D) It contains more energy, gram for gram, than any other nutrient.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Q1) Which of the following is generally true, regarding differences in fat deposition between healthy men and healthy women?
A) Men have more fat under their skin than women do.
B) Men have less fat stored on their thighs than women do.
C) Men have a higher body fat percentage than women do.
D) Men need more body fat than women to maintain their fertility.
Q2) How does ATP provide energy to a cell?
A) It loses a phosphate group, releasing energy in the process.
B) It releases electrons, which are a source of energy.
C) It releases protons, which are used in the mitochondrion to create energy.
D) It shuttles electrons across the mitochondrial membrane to create potential energy.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding enzymes?
A) Enzymes are not very specific.
B) Enzymes are not affected by high heat, as proteins are.
C) Enzymes can be recycled and used over and over again.
D) Enzymes are "used up" during chemical reactions.
Q4) The resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active is called ________ (three words).
Q5) The products of cellular respiration are ________ and ________.
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Global Warming
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Q1) Temperature is a measure of
A) the potential energy in a substance.
B) how fast the molecules in a substance are moving.
C) the energy lost from a substance to its surroundings.
D) how much heat is being absorbed by a substance.
Q2) What can happen to the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A) It can be released into space from the atmosphere.
B) It can be converted to glucose by plants.
C) It can be converted into carbon monoxide by the oceans.
D) It can react with nitrogen to form fossil fuels.
Q3) Cells that regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata are called ________ cells.
Q4) The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?
A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.
B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.
C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.
D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Q1) Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?
A) ACGGCTTAAG
B) AGGCCTAATG
C) CTTAAGCCGT
D) GAATTCGGCA
Q2) ________ is the cause of about one-third of all cancer deaths.
A) Smoking tobacco
B) Exposure to viruses
C) Exposure to ultraviolet light
D) Exposure to high-energy radiation
Q3) Which of the following can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body?
A) nucleotides from DNA
B) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables
C) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta
D) hormones from the ovaries and testes
Q4) A ________ is a surgical instrument used to perform biopsies.
Q5) ________ (two words)is the enzyme that assists in DNA synthesis.
Q6) The surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed to determine whether they are cancerous is called a ________.
Page 8
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Chapter
Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) Fraternal twins are also referred to as A) dizygotic.
B) identical.
C) monozygotic.
D) heterozygous.
Q2) Combined, your parents could have produced as many as ________ different types of children, genetically speaking.
A) 46
B) 285
C) 8 million
D) 64 trillion
Q3) A mutation in a gene
A) might have no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.
B) must result in the creation of a nonfunctional protein.
C) cannot result in a protein with a new function.
D) invariably results in a change in the phenotype of an organism.
Q4) A ________ trait has an "off-or-on" character, where individuals have either one phenotype or another (for example, purple vs. white flowers).
Q5) The ________ of an organism refers to its physical traits.
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
and DNA Fingerprinting
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Q1) A human sperm cell receives autosomes and A) an X chromosome always.
B) either an X or a Y chromosome.
C) a Y chromosome always.
D) both an X and a Y chromosome.
Q2) Human bone size and structure are a result of the environment and A) polygenic inheritance.
B) codominance.
C) simple dominance.
D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.
Q3) Which of the following is used to produce genetic fingerprints of people?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Punnett squares
C) pedigree analysis
D) VNTRs
Q4) Type AB blood is a result of A) polygenic inheritance.
B) simple dominance.
C) codominance.
D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation, and Cloning
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Q1) Ribosomes are made of subunits that are composed of
A) mRNA and DNA.
B) tRNA and mRNA.
C) rRNA and proteins.
D) DNA and proteins.
Q2) Plant galls are
A) tumors caused by Ti plasmids in nature.
B) the result of neutral mutations.
C) pellets of foreign DNA inserted into the plants with a gene gun.
D) transgenic organisms containing foreign DNA of plant origin.
Q3) Which of the following would allow gene expression to proceed?
A) X-chromosome inactivation
B) an increase in proteases
C) an increase in repressor proteins
D) a reduction in nucleases
Q4) What signal when present at the ribosome causes protein synthesis to end?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) a stop codon
D) RNA polymerase
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From? The Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The term that describes distribution patterns of living things around the world is
Q2) What was Lamarck's idea about how organisms changed?
A) He proposed that body parts increased or decreased as a result of extra use or disuse.
B) He proposed that variations in populations were selected by the environment.
C) He proposed that all organisms were unchanging over time.
D) He proposed that humans evolved from fish.
Q3) When comparing different families of animals, you would expect gene-coding for proteins that perform basic cell functions to show much higher homology than gene-coding for proteins involved in coordinating organ systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Humans and apes show such a strong degree of similarity that they are placed in the same
A) species.
B) genus.
C) subfamily.
D) subspecies.
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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Q1) Once an adaptation appears, it remains in all the descendants unless the species becomes extinct.
A)True B)False
Q2) The evolution of a long neck in giraffes is an example of A) stabilizing selection.
B) directional selection.
C) diversifying selection.
D) disruptive selection
Q3) After a rapid change in climate, one population of bird quickly adapts to the change, but others in the area do not. What could you conclude about the quickly adapting population?
A) They had a greater need to evolve than the other population.
B) They already had some alleles in their genome that were adaptive in the new environment.
C) They reproduced more slowly than the non-adapting population.
D) They had a higher rate of mutation than the other population.
Q4) Natural selection is only one of several possible causes of evolution. A)True B)False
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Chapter 12: Who Am I? Species and Races
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Q1) Two populations that have adapted to similar environmental conditions sometimes have a similar appearance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why would a scientist use DNA fingerprinting to answer a question about human migration?
A) to determine what race a person belongs to
B) to determine the paternity of an individual
C) to determine the frequency of a particular allele in different populations
D) to determine whether a recessive allele gave an advantage in a particular environment
Q3) One species of plant produces flowers when nights are 10 hours long. A related species comes into flower when nights are 9 hours long. This is an example of A) gamete incompatibility.
B) temporal isolation.
C) mechanical isolation.
D) behavioral isolation.
Q4) Genealogical species are groups that have diverged from a common ancestor but aren't yet reproductively ________.
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Chapter 13: Prospecting for Biological Gold: Biodiversity and Classification
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Q1) The most important role of bacteria in the environment is
A) as disease-causing agents.
B) as fungal control.
C) as decomposers.
D) as a source of restriction enzymes.
Q2) Bioprospectors who search for clues in the habitat for whether an organism will be useful are taking advantage of an organism's ________.
Q3) Fossils of ancient organisms are found in deep layers of rock, while the fossils of more recent organisms are found in shallower layers. Which two groups' common ancestor would be found in relatively shallow fossils?
A) Protista and Bacteria
B) Fungi and Archaea
C) Animals and Plants
D) Plants and Protists
Q4) In what way are fungi similar to animals?
A) Both take in food from the outside.
B) Both produce hair-like hyphae.
C) Both form embryos when they reproduce.
D) Both produce antibiotics.
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large? Population Ecology
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Q1) The steep and sudden decline in a population size as birth rates plummet and death rates soar is called
A) carrying capacity.
B) a "boom and bust" cycle.
C) demographic momentum.
D) a population crash.
Q2) Walking along a mile-long path in the woods, you notice a stand of your favorite wildflower, the cardinal flower, three different times. You find each stand of cardinal flower, including many flowers in each stand, on a stream bank. This is an example of a ________ distribution.
A) clumped
B) uniform
C) random
D) normal
Q3) Which of the following is directly involved in calculating net primary productivity?
A) the change in growth of the human population
B) the amount of solar energy converted to chemical energy by plants
C) the amount of chemical energy required by plants to support themselves
D) the number of births and deaths in a population over one year
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) In the heart of Costa Rica there's a private reserve called Rara Avis. Here, one can hike high into the mountains of a tropical cloud forest to take guided nature hikes and learn about this unique ecosystem. This is an example of how habitats can be preserved through A) critical habitat designation. B) ecotourism.
C) regulations.
D) exploitation.
Q2) Cattle egrets hitch a ride on domestic cows and eat insects that are stirred up by their activity. This is an example of A) commensalism. B) competition. C) predation. D) parasitism.
Q3) All individuals of all species living within an area of interest represent a(n) A) ecosystem. B) community. C) population.
D) trophic level.
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live? Climate and Biomes
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Q1) In summer, why is the air around a large body of water cooler than nearby inland areas?
A) Water temperature changes slowly in response to solar irradiation when compared to the rate of temperature change of land surfaces.
B) Water temperature isn't affected by solar irradiation, whereas the temperature of land surfaces is affected.
C) It's not actually cooler; the breezes associated with the water only make it seem cooler.
D) Air molecules are farther away from each other over water, so they do not generate as much heat.
Q2) Hot-air balloons are able to fly for the same reason that A) precipitation falls on the leeward side of a mountain.
B) water droplets can freeze inside clouds.
C) very little rain falls at 30° north and south of the equator.
D) the tops of hills are warmer than the valleys below.
Q3) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues Organs and Organ Systems
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Q1) In which connective tissue type are the collagen fibers arranged parallel with one another in a very organized, layered fashion?
A) bone
B) blood
C) adipose tissue
D) fibrous connective tissue
Q2) The contraction of smooth muscles that moves a bolus of food down the esophagus is called
A) emulsification.
B) elimination.
C) peristalsis.
D) detoxification.
Q3) Which of the following diseases affects the liver and could be transferred by an organ transplant?
A) hepatitis C
B) diabetes
C) gonorrhea
D) tuberculosis
Q4) The enzyme in saliva that breaks down sugars is called ________ (two words).
Q5) The tissue type that protects the body from water loss is ________.
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Chapter 18: Clearing the Air: Respiratory Cardiovascular and Excretory Systems
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Q1) Why is the countercurrent gas exchange that occurs in fish an effective system for extracting oxygen from water?
A) Because water flows in one direction and blood in the opposite direction, oxygen can be removed from the gills efficiently.
B) Oxygen is able to diffuse out of water over the entire surface of the gills, because the blood always contains a lower concentration of oxygen than the water.
C) The hemolymph in this system delivers oxygen to the body efficiently after it enters the gills.
D) Countercurrent exchange is an active process, so it is able to move more oxygen into the blood than can simple diffusion.
Q2) As you're sitting in your chair reading this test question, the process of breathing out (termed exhalation)is an active process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many of the components of tobacco smoke are ________, meaning these chemicals are known to cause cancer.
Q4) The functional units of the kidneys are called ________.
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Chapter 19: Vaccinations: Protection and Prevention or Peril?
Immune System
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Q1) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which of the following steps in replication is the virus dependent upon the use of its own reverse transcriptase?
A) Step 1
B) Step 2
C) Step 3
D) Step 4
Q2) Which immune system protects the body from its own cancerous cells?
A) cell-mediated immune system
B) antibody-mediated immune system
C) enzyme immune system
D) inflammatory immune system
Q3) Some RNA viruses, such as HIV, require the enzyme ________ (two words)to convert the viral RNA genome into a DNA version.
Q4) Cells that directly terminate antigens are called
A) suppressor T cells.
B) helper T cells.
C) cytotoxic T cells.
D) cytotoxic B cells.
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Chapter 20: Sex Differences and Athleticism: Endocrine
Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The endocrine glands involved in calcium homeostasis are
A) thyroid and parathyroid.
B) hypothalamus and pituitary.
C) thyroid and pancreas.
D) hypothalamus and adrenal gland.
Q2) Unlike most steroid-based hormones, protein hormones will typically
A) bind to receptors on the surface of target cells.
B) bind to receptors inside the target cells.
C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of target cells.
D) cause target cells to turn specific genes on and off.
Q3) Consider the figure illustrating the two major classes of hormones and their actions. Which class of hormones would you expect to be ideally suited for long-term processes such as growth and development?
A) Protein hormones, because they can relay messages.
B) Steroid hormones, because they can turn specific genes on or off.
C) Protein hormones, because they cannot cross cell membranes.
D) Steroid hormones, because they can diffuse across cell membranes.
Q4) The ________ produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system.
Q5) A human's soft internal organs are protected by the ________ skeleton.
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Chapter 21: Is There Something in the Water? Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Q1) What is the function of the midpiece on a sperm cell?
A) to contain the haploid nucleus
B) to propel the sperm forward
C) to aid the sperm's penetration of the egg
D) to provide energy for movement
Q2) The tissue in the gastrula that gives rise to muscle is the
A) ectoderm.
B) mesoderm.
C) gaendoderm.
D) gastrula.
Q3) The hormones that function in both the male and female reproductive systems are
A) estrogen and progesterone.
B) gonadotropin-releasing hormones and progesterone.
C) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone.
D) luteinizing hormone and progesterone.
Q4) The hormone that is detected in a pregnancy test is
A) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone made by the early embryo.
B) progesterone made by the corpus luteum.
C) luteinizing hormone made by the pituitary.
D) estrogen made by the ovary.
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Chapter 22: Attention Deficit Disorder: Brain Structure and Function
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Q1) A nerve poison that blocked neurotransmitter receptors on the dendrites would
A) cause continued stimulation of the membrane of the receiving neuron.
B) prevent transmission across the synaptic cleft.
C) inhibit the regeneration of neurotransmitter for use by the synaptic knobs.
D) inactivate the enzyme that degrades the neurotransmitter.
Q2) Where are the sensory receptors for equilibrium located?
A) on the surface of the skin
B) in the inner ear
C) in the joints
D) in the retina of the eye
Q3) What substances in the body are most closely associated with a drug's influence on the nervous system?
A) endorphins
B) sodium and potassium ions
C) neurotransmitters
D) proteins
Q4) Electrical signals travel faster down unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The spinal cord and brain compose the ________.
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Chapter 23: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Q1) The human race relied upon hunting and gathering, with no agriculture, for its first A) 1,500,000 years.
B) 1,000,000 years.
C) 500,000 years.
D) 250,000 years.
Q2) As shown here, a bean/bean pod is actually a(n)
A) stem.
B) fruit.
C) axillary bud.
D) petiole.
Q3) A waste product of photosynthesis, of no value to the plant, is A) carbon dioxide.
B) light.
C) carbohydrates (sugars).
D) oxygen.
Q4) When farmers plant a single crop over a large area of land, it's called ________.
Q5) The emergence of a plant embryo from a seed is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Q1) The roots emerging from germinating seeds exhibit
A) positive gravitropism.
B) negative gravitropism.
C) positive phototropism.
D) negative phototropism.
Q2) What effect does pruning flowers have on a plant?
A) The plant will make more flowers than normal.
B) The new flowers that grow will be larger.
C) The plant will produce more leaves.
D) The plant will produce fruits instead of flowers.
Q3) Which of the following plants store CO<sub>2</sub> in the form of malic acid and close their stomata during the day?
A) C<sub>3</sub> plants
B) C<sub>4</sub> plants.
C) CAM plants.
D) hornworts and liverworts
Q4) The tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds is called ________ (two words).
Q5) The response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day is called
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