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Introduction to Law Enforcement Midterm Exam - 1401 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Law Enforcement Midterm

Exam

Course Introduction

Introduction to Law Enforcement explores the fundamental principles, history, and organization of policing within the criminal justice system. This course examines the roles, responsibilities, and ethical obligations of law enforcement officers, providing students with an understanding of police procedures, community relations, and legal frameworks shaping policing practices. Topics include the structure of law enforcement agencies, constitutional guidelines, crime prevention strategies, technological advancements, and contemporary challenges facing police forces. It aims to equip students with a foundational knowledge essential for further study or a career in law enforcement or related fields.

Recommended Textbook Essentials of Criminal Justice 10th Edition by

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Crime and Criminal Justice

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a probable cause hearing, the defendant and his or her attorney may appear and dispute the prosecutor's charges.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) If the prosecution can present sufficient evidence, the grand jury will issue a(n) ____, which specifies the exact charges on which the accused must stand trial.

A)true bill of indictment

B)information

C)charging bill

D)nolle prosequi

Answer: A

Q3) The goal of the ____________________ perspective is to enable the offender to appreciate the damage caused, to make amends, and to be reintegrated back into society.

Answer: restorative justice

Q4) __________ is a money bond levied to ensure the return of the defendant for the criminal trial.

Answer: Bail

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Chapter 2: The Nature of Crime and Victimization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the three significant methods used to measure the nature and extent of crime. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each method.

Answer: The UCR is the best known and most widely cited source of aggregate criminal statistics. It tallies and annually publishes a number of reported offenses by city, county, standard metropolitan statistical area, and geographical divisions of the United States. It also shows numbers and characteristics of individuals arrested for Part I and non-index Part II crimes, except traffic violations. It is not an accurate measure of crime on its own as it uses the hierarchy rule where it takes the most serious offense of every group of crime reported. The NCVS asks crime victims about their encounters with criminals. It is the most important and widely used victim survey; however, validity issues include overreporting, underreporting, inability to record personal criminal activity of those interviewed, sampling errors, and inadequate question format. Self-report surveys allow participants to reveal information about their violations and have focused mostly on juvenile delinquency and youth crime. Critics suggest that it is unreasonable to expect people to candidly admit illegal acts, that some people forget, exaggerate, or are confused about illegal acts, and that serious chronic offenders are unlikely to participate or be truthful.

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Chapter 3: Criminal Law: Substance and Procedure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which legal standard of mental illness is used by present federal law

A)"Didn't know what he was doing or didn't know it was wrong."

B)"Could not control his conduct."

C)"Lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to control it."

D)"Lacks capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct."

Answer: D

Q2) Individuals that claim insanity as a criminal defense may not have the ability to form

A)mala in se

B)mens rea

C)actus reus

D)stare decisis

Answer: B

Q3) Although most common-law crimes require intent, strict liability crimes do not have a mental requirement.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Police in Society: History and Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) The policy of self-help that prevailed in villages demanded that everyone respond if a citizen raised a ___________ to get their aid.

Q2) Federal police agencies are the only agencies that have not privatized their police services to cut expenses.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What era was deemed one of reform, where police should be evaluated on their courteousness and helpfulness, not for their crime-fighting abilities

A)1960s

B)1970s

C)1980s

D)1990s

Q4) As the eighteenth century began, rising crime rates encouraged a new form of private paid police called ____________________, who were able to profit both legally and criminally from the lack of formal police departments.

Q5) The __________________ is a public-private partnership geared primarily toward equipping the private sector with information and training to defend against terrorism.

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Chapter 5: The Police: Role and Function

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Q1) Supervisor attitudes can be one of the challenges of community-oriented policing.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Madalyn's department is trying something new to fight crime. Her orders are to maintain a presence in the community, get to know the business owners and residents and gain their trust. Why would she do this as part of her police duties

A)Aggressive policing increases crime.

B)Technology has made the police cold and impersonal.

C)Police need community cooperation to reduce fear and crime.

D)This is the main role of patrol officers.

Q3) For many years, preventive patrol has been considered one of the greatest deterrents to criminal behavior. Discuss what the research from the Kansas City study reveals about the relationship between prevention patrol and crime deterrence.

Q4) One reason for investigative ineffectiveness is that there are too many competing interests to solve a case within the police department.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Issues in Policing: Professional, Social, and Legal

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Sample Questions

Q1) Currently, there is not enough oversight or enough policies to regulate less than lethal weapons.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If an officer uses his or her position of trust/power to commit the very crimes they are entrusted with controlling, he or she is engaged in ______.

Q3) Which of the following traits is said to be found at all levels of policing

A)Anger

B)Racism

C)Dogmatism

D)Cynicism

Q4) In Graham v. Conner, the Supreme Court ruled that issues related to nondeadly force must be judged from the standpoint of a __________ officer.

Q5) Court decisions that limit police discretion are an example of a(n) __________ stressor.

A)external

B)organizational

C)duty

D)individual

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Chapter 7: Courts, Prosecution, and the Defense

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the ____________________ system of indigent defense, a block grant is given to a lawyer or law firm to handle indigent defense cases.

Q2) Which of the following reasons may cause a case to be dismissed

A)Inefficient evidence

B)Interests of justice

C)Due process problems

D)All the above

Q3) Many states have adopted some form of what is known as the ____ Plan to select judges.

A)Illinois

B)Missouri

C)New York

D)Ohio

Q4) In the federal system, prosecutors are appointed by:

A)Congress.

B)the Senate.

C)the president.

D)the US Supreme Court.

Q5) Through the use of examples, discuss the major tasks of a prosecutor.

Q6) Judges closely monitor offenders in _______ courts.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Pretrial and Trial Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) Summarize the trial process.

Q2) Sara's college was paid for by loans and scholarships. She doesn't have any money for bail; the money she used to buy the cocaine was what was left in her checking account. She doesn't talk to her parents too often, and she wouldn't ask them for money anyway. What is the likely outcome of Sara's case at this point

A)Police/pretrial jail citation release

B)Pretrial detention

C)Appeal to the Manhattan Bail Project

D)File in favor of bail reform

Q3) Which is a common reason for a defendant to waive the preliminary hearing

A)Defendant has already decided to plead guilty.

B)Defendant wants to speed up the criminal justice process.

C)Defendant hopes to avoid the negative publicity that might result from the hearing.

D)All of these are common reasons to waive the preliminary hearing.

Q4) To avoid stigma and labeling, ___________________ programs suspend criminal proceedings so that the accused can participate in treatment under court supervision.

Q5) Explain three legal issues in plea bargaining.

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Chapter 9: Punishment and Sentencing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The death penalty is used in all states and by the federal government.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Compare and contrast the sentencing models of indeterminate and determinate.

Q3) Who determines the actual length of incarceration in an indeterminate sentence

A)Judge

B)Prosecutor and the defense attorney

C)State legislature

D)Correctional agency and the judge

Q4) The use of ____________________ factors such as offender age is a direct violation of the constitution.

Q5) Approximately _____ of the states have three-strikes laws but nearly ____ of them require the third felony be a serious one.

A)one-fourth; half

B)half; all

C)three-fourth; none

D)90 percent; all

Q6) A sentence of 3-20 years for the crime of burglary is an example of a(n) ____________________ sentence.

11

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Chapter 10: Community Sentences: Probation, Intermediate

Sanctions, and Restorative Justice

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Sample Questions

Q1) The judge decides that Greg has used up all of his chances and decides to sentence him to a more serious punishment but one that he can revisit at a later date. What is the judge likely to choose

A)Jail

B)Split sentence

C)Prison

D)Decarceration

Q2) What entity initially sets down the conditions or rules of behavior that must be followed by the probationer

A)The court

B)The correctional authority

C)The victim's assistance office

D)A private, third-party contractor

Q3) A recognizance was a historic practice that enabled convicted offenders to go unpunished if they agreed to refrain from further criminal behavior; sometimes a surety was required.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the several ways in which IPS is used and its effectiveness.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Corrections: History, Institutions, and Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Intensive physical conditioning and discipline occurs at a ______, popular in the 1980s and 1990s.

Q2) The ___________ is a correctional philosophy suggesting that inmates need treatment rather than punishment to aid in their reform.

Q3) Boot camps are a form of shock incarceration.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When did the concept of incarcerating convicted offenders as a form of punishment become the norm for corrections

A)During biblical times

B)Fourteenth century

C)Seventeenth century

D)Nineteenth century

Q5) Shock incarceration occurs in prison farms.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The Auburn system was also referred to as the ____________________ system since most prisoners ate and worked in groups.

Q7) A halfway house is an example of a(n) ____________________.

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Chapter 12: Prison Life: Living in and Leaving Prison

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first treatment programs in prison were ____________________.

Q2) One form of adaption to a female prison is the creation of the make-believe family.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The first prison treatment programs were drug treatment programs.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the best estimate of the rate of HIV infection among state and federal prison inmates

A)2 percent

B)5 percent

C)10 percent

D)25 percent

Q5) In the most significant legal case concerning medical rights, the entire Alabama prison system's medical facilities were declared inadequate.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Discuss how and why there are differences between female and male inmate cultures

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Juvenile Justice in the Twenty First Century

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under the _________ waiver system, the prosecutor has the discretion of filing charges for certain legislatively designated offenses in either juvenile or criminal court.

A)direct file

B)excluded offense

C)judicial

D)reverse

Q2) What impact did the Supreme Court have on the juvenile justice system in the 1960s and 1970s

A)It adopted a hands-off approach on most legal issues.

B)It adopted a conservative ideology that stressed victims' rights and punishment.

C)It adopted a liberal ideology that stressed a need for growth in program scope.

D)It radically altered the juvenile justice system through ruling that established due process rights for juveniles that rivaled those in the adult court system.

Q3) US juvenile courts process approximately 1.6 million delinquency cases annually.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Criminal Justice in the New Millennium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Examples of ______ include illegal dumping, polluting, illegal fishing, and illegal logging.

Q2) The United States Criminal Code provides penalties for a first-time illegal copyright offender of ____ years incarceration and a fine of $250,000.

A)3

B)5

C)7

D)10

Q3) Which of the following is not a type of Internet securities fraud

A) Identity theft

B) Market manipulation

C) Fraudulent offerings of securities

D) Illegal touting

Q4) ____________________ is cyber crime with malicious intent, by the desire for revenge, and to inflict wanton destruction.

Q5) _______ is the process of creating a global economy through transnational markets and political and legal systems.

Q6) Yakuza is a well-known _____ gang.

Q7) Globalization took off with the fall of the _______.

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