Introduction to Infectious Diseases Exam
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Infectious Diseases explores the fundamental concepts of infectious agents, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, and examines their impact on human health. The course covers mechanisms of disease transmission, pathogenesis, host immune responses, and the principles of prevention, control, and treatment. Through case studies and real-world examples, students gain an understanding of epidemiology, outbreak investigation, vaccination strategies, and the challenges posed by emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases in a global context.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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21 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functions,essential for life on earth,is performed by bacteria?
A)The direct provision of food for yeasts.
B)The control of insect plagues.
C)The decomposition of organic material to recycle nutrients.
D)The production of hormones and growth factors.
E)All of the above.
Answer: C
Q2) The infectious agent responsible for mad cow disease is a A)virus.
B)prion.
C)bacterium.
D)fungus.
E)protozoan.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is produced by the electron transport chain?
A)Alcohol.
B)Lactic acid.
C)Pyruvic acid.
D)Water.
E)Acetyl CoA.
Answer: D
Q2) The shape of a biological molecule is determined by the bond properties of which element?
A)Oxygen.
B)Nitrogen.
C)Sulfur.
D)Hydrogen.
E)Carbon.
Answer: E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial cell membranes consist of
A)a single layer of phospholipids.
B)protein molecules embedded in a phospholipid bilayer.
C)glycoprotein,phospholipid and sterols.
D)lipopolysaccharide embedded in a phospholipid bilayer.
E)proteins,peptidoglycan and sterols.
Answer: B
Q2) The Gram-negative bacillus that is a normal inhabitant of the human intestine is A)Clostridium difficile.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Campylobacter jejuni.
D)Vibrio cholerae.
E)Escherichia coli.
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation in bacteria
A)occurs at the rate of about once in every 109 cell divisions.
B)may occur as a result of exposure to radiation.
C)may result in the organism acquiring better characteristics.
D)may result the organism becoming resistant to antibiotics.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following methods is used to distinguish between different strains of a bacterium?
A)Specialised transduction.
B)Growth characteristics.
C)Pulse field gel electrophoresis.
D)Colony morphology.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Genetic engineering involves
A)the manipulation of microbial cells to produce specialised end products.
B)the use of plasmids to introduce new characteristics into a bacterial cell.
C)infection of bacteria by phage carrying specialised genes.
D)the use of restriction enzymes to isolate specific gene sequences.
E)all of the above.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B virus can cause a carrier state in a person,which means that
A)there is a continuous,low level of virus replication.
B)the person is infected but doesn't transmit the virus.
C)the infection will only ever be mild.
D)the person's immune system is permanently damaged.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following viruses is commonly transmitted by the faecal-oral route?
A)Norovirus.
B)Hepatitis A virus.
C)Polio virus.
D)Rotavirus.
E)All of the above.
Q3) The ability of a virus to infect an organism is determined by the A)host species.
B)type of cell.
C)availability of an attachment site.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Q1) Flukes
A)have a relatively simple life cycle.
B)are flat worms that attach to the large intestine.
C)are worms with a free-living infective stage found in water.
D)are commonly acquired while swimming in Australian rivers.
E)infect humans following ingestion of contaminated water.
Q2) A parasitic infection is one that
A)is caused by an organism that derives oxygen from its host.
B)always results in the death of the host.
C)does not harm the host in any way.
D)is diagnosed by a characteristic skin rash.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following protozoa causes malaria?
A)Plasmodium.
B)Cryptosporidium.
C)Trichomonas.
D)Toxoplasma.
E)Microsporidium.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is usually an endogenous infection?
A)Urinary tract infection.
B)Tetanus.
C)Rabies.
D)Sexually transmitted infection.
E)Influenza.
Q2) An infection that occurs when the body's defences are weakened is called
A)contagious.
B)selective.
C)opportunistic.
D)symbiotic.
E)chronic.
Q3) During the prodromal phase of a disease
A)the pathogen is present but there are no symptoms.
B)the patient is recovering from the disease.
C)the patient reports non-specific symptoms.
D)the signs and symptoms enable a definite diagnosis.
E)the patient is not infectious.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Endogenous infections are caused by organisms already present on the body.
B)Infections caused by a person's own microbiota are regarded as exogenous.
C)Endogenous infections have to penetrate the skin to cause disease.
D)Thrush is usually an exogenous infection.
E)Endogenous infections are usually caused by viruses.
Q2) Faecal-oral transmission refers to the transmission of
A)microorganisms which only affect the gastrointestinal system.
B)pathogens which are ingested and then excreted in faeces.
C)toxins produced in food before it is ingested.
D)microorganisms carried on a person's hands.
E)infections acquired by consumption of faeces.
Q3) If a person acquires an infection by handling a contaminated telephone it is termed
A)an accidental transmission.
B)a common vehicle transmission.
C)an indirect contact transmission.
D)a mechanical transmission.
E)a superficial transmission.
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Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific antibodies are highly protective molecules because
A)of their ability to bind to specific antigens.
B)of their ability to enter all cells in the body.
C)one antibody molecule has more than 20 binding sites.
D)one antibody molecule can bind to many different antigens.
E)one antibody molecule is able to kill many bacterial cells.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an immunodeficiency condition?
A)Suppression of the bone marrow.
B)Complement deficiency.
C)Improper development of the thymus gland.
D)Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
E)Infection with HIV.
Q3) The substance that changes the body temperature set-point to cause fever is A)gammaglobulin.
B)anaphylatoxin.
C)endogenous pyrogen.
D)leukotriene.
E)interferon.
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Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes can be used to distinguish between different species of staphylococci?
A)Hyaluronidase.
B)Fibrinolysin.
C)Streptokinase.
D)Coagulase.
E)Haemolysin.
Q2) The ability of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)to kill lymphocytes is an example of
A)antigenic shift.
B)antigenic drift.
C)concealment.
D)immunosuppression.
E)cellular transformation.
Q3) Certain bacteria are able to protect themselves from phagocytosis by A)exiting the phagosome.
B)inhibiting fusion of lysosomes with the phagosome.
C)secreting leukocidins.
D)having an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)any of the above.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accepted method of sterilisation?
A)Gamma radiation.
B)Microwave radiation.
C)Steam at 121 C.
D)Ethylene oxide gas.
E)Dry heat at 170 C.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Any solution that is administered parenterally must be sterile.
B)Any equipment that penetrates the skin must be sterile before use.
C)Bedpans do not need to be sterile before use.
D)Dressings and swabs applied to damaged skin must be sterile.
E)All of the above.
Q3) In terms of processing requirements,a urinary catheter would be classified as A)critical.
B)semi-critical.
C)non-critical.
D)low risk.
E)moderate risk.
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13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal infections are difficult to treat because
A)all fungal infections are opportunistic.
B)many of the antifungal drugs are toxic to humans.
C)fungal infections only occur in immunocompromised patients.
D)fungal spores are everywhere in the environment.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A)Using two antimicrobial drugs at the same time always gives a better result.
B)Sometimes the action of one drug is enhanced in the presence of another one.
C)Antibiotics should not be administered until the results of the sensitivity tests are known.
D)Bacteriostatic drugs are preferable to use in immunocompromised patients.
E)Using two drugs at the same time increases the risk of development of resistance.
Q3) Beta-lactamases are
A)human cell proteins that break down antibiotics.
B)substances that inhibit the action of aminoglycosides.
C)drugs that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria.
D)bacterial enzymes that inactivate some penicillins.
E)human enzymes that inactivate lactam antibiotics.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transmission-based Precautions should be used for patients who
A)have hepatitis C.
B)are suffering from malaria.
C)have HIV.
D)are suspected of having TB.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following are the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections?
A)Blood-borne viruses.
B)Bacteria.
C)Fungi.
D)Gastrointestinal viruses.
E)Candida.
Q3) In which of the following areas of a hospital are patients at a high risk of infection?
A)The burns unit.
B)An intensive care unit.
C)A transplant unit.
D)An oncology ward.
E)All of the above.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scabies is a disease that A)is caused by fleas.
B)only occurs in tropical climates.
C)may predispose a person to streptococcal infections.
D)is not easily transmitted.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Women are advised to have regular Pap smear tests.This is to A)screen for the presence of abnormal cervical cells.
B)test for sexually transmitted infections.
C)assess the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
D)screen for the presence of group B streptococci.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Antenatal screening for which of the following diseases is routinely carried out to minimise the risk of congenital defects?
A)Rubella.
B)Hepatitis C.
C)Hepatitis B.
D)HIV.
E)Group B streptococcal infection.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the approximate length of time it takes to grow colonies of most bacteria on an agar plate?
A)30 minutes.
B)4 hours.
C)18 hours.
D)5 days.
E)7 days.
Q2) Which specimen is most commonly collected for the laboratory diagnosis of septicaemia?
A)Blood.
B)CSF.
C)Sputum.
D)Throat swab.
E)MSU.
Q3) A transport medium for microbiological specimens is designed to
A)keep the causative organism growing and multiplying.
B)prevent the specimen from drying out.
C)inhibit any normal microbiota organisms in the specimen.
D)enable the specimen to be frozen if necessary.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pediculosis
A)is a worm infestation.
B)is always transmitted during sexual contact.
C)always involves the pubic area.
D)is treated with insecticidal shampoos.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a dermatophyte?
A)Aspergillus.
B)Trichophyton.
C)Microsporum.
D)Epidermophyton.
E)All of the above are dermatophytes.
Q3) Impetigo
A)occurs primarily in adults.
B)can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)is usually caused by fungi.
D)is not easily spread from person to person.
E)all of the above.
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18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The innate defence mechanism that prevents particles from entering the lungs is/are the
A)mucociliary escalator.
B)alveolar macrophages.
C)tonsillar lymphocytes.
D)IgA in mucus.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following organisms cause hospital-acquired pneumonia?
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
E)All of the above.
Q3) The virus that is typically transmitted to humans in the respiratory secretions of an infected horse is the
A)Hendra virus.
B)human metapneumovirus.
C)respiratory syncytial virus.
D)human bocavirus.
E)Q virus.
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Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bacteria cause gastrointestinal symptoms that are due to an exotoxin?
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Vibrio cholerae.
D)E.coli.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Infection with the pinworm Enterobius vermicularis
A)is rare in Australia.
B)is characterised by anal itching.
C)is acquired by penetration of the skin by larvae.
D)can lead to lung disease.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Hepatitis B can be transmitted by
A)male homosexual contact.
B)exposure to infected patient blood.
C)at birth,from infected mother to baby.
D)intravenous drug use.
E)all of the above.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Haemorrhagic fever viruses
A)infect monocytes and macrophages.
B)cause host cells to release large amounts of cytokines.
C)can cause bleeding from the eyes and ears.
D)can cause infections with a high fatality rate.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Brucellosis in Australia is mainly acquired from A)cows.
B)sheep.
C)wild pigs.
D)infected humans.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following would be the most likely cause of a disseminated fungal infection in a neutropenic patient?
A)Aspergillus.
B)Penicillium.
C)Streptomyces.
D)Microsporum.
E)Trichophyton.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
A)is exemplified by kuru.
B)only affects humans.
C)is caused by an infectious nucleic acid.
D)is rarely fatal.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The Sabin vaccine for polio
A)contains the poliovirus toxin.
B)is administered by intramuscular injection.
C)can cause autism on rare occasions.
D)is not currently used in Australia.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Meningococcal septicaemia is
A)resistant to most antibiotics.
B)characterised by a haemorrhagic skin rash.
C)not as serious as meningococcal meningitis.
D)due to the actions of a potent exotoxin.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genital herpes is
A)caused by herpes simplex type 1 and 2 viruses.
B)not preventable by vaccination.
C)transmitted whether or not lesions exist.
D)not always symptomatic.
E)all of the above.
Q2) What is the term for the presence of large number of leukocytes in urine?
A)Dysuria.
B)Pyuria.
C)Haematuria.
D)Leukopoiesis.
E)Leukopenia.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT increase the risk of urinary tract infection?
A)Urinary catheterisation.
B)Pregnancy.
C)Hypertrophy of the prostate gland.
D)Menstruation.
E)Renal calculi.
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