Introduction to ICD Coding Practice Questions - 1144 Verified Questions

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Introduction to ICD Coding Practice Questions

Course Introduction

This course introduces students to the fundamentals of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) coding system, which is used globally to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures recorded in conjunction with hospital care. Students will learn the structure and organization of ICD codes, the principles of coding accuracy, and the application of coding guidelines in various healthcare settings. Emphasis will be placed on understanding the importance of precise documentation for medical billing, insurance claims, epidemiology, and health policy development. Through practical exercises and real-world scenarios, students will develop the competence necessary to begin coding confidently and ethically in the healthcare industry.

Recommended Textbook

The Complete Diagnosis Coding Solution 3rd Edition by Shelley Safian

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23 Chapters

1144 Verified Questions

1144 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2701

2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Diagnostic Coding

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/53903

Sample Questions

Q1) Asthma is an example of a(n) ____________.

A) diagnosis

B) procedure

C) indication

D) opinion

Answer: A

Q2) A ____________ is a subjective sensation as expressed by the patient.

A) symptom

B) treatment

C) diagnosis

D) condition

Answer: A

Q3) _____________ is the practice of sending a claim for the second time to the same insurance company for the same procedure to the same patient for the same service date.

A) Unbundling

B) Double billing

C) Coding

D) Recording

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Introduction to ICD-10-CM

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many volumes does the ICD-10-CM coding manual contain?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: B

Q2) An infection is an example of a(n): A) symptom.

B) eponym.

C) procedure.

D) condition.

Answer: D

Q3) A code category can begin with all of the following letters except:

A) I.

B) O.

C) U.

D) Z.

Answer: C

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Page 4

Chapter 3: General Guidelines and Notations

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following seventh characters is used to show that the injury being coded is the initial encounter?

A) A

B) D

C) S

D) X

Answer: A

Q2) Tamika is diagnosed with phobic anxiety disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder. What is/are the code(s) you will report?

A) F40.9

B) F40.9, F42.9

C) F41.9

D) F42

Answer: B

Q3) In which of the following situations would NOS be used?

A) The physician did not provide more details in his or her notes.

B) The physician only stated a sign in his or her notes.

C) The physician stated the detail, but there is not a code to match.

D) The physician stated the detail, but placeholders are needed.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Coding Infectious Diseases

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Coding for septic shock will require:

A) 1 code.

B) 2 codes.

C) 3 codes.

D) 4 codes.

Q2) An infection can spread through:

A) touching a doorknob.

B) shaking someone's hand.

C) picking up a used tissue.

D) All of these

Q3) A MRSA carrier is coded as:

A) Z22.321.

B) Z22.322.

C) A41.02.

D) J15.212.

Q4) Zena is diagnosed with acute meningococcal septicemia. Report this with code:

A) A39.2.

B) A39.3.

C) A39.4.

D) A39.5.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Coding Neoplasms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which classification of neoplasm indicates that the pathologist is not able to determine whether the tumor is benign or malignant?

A) Ca in situ

B) Uncertain

C) Unspecified

D) None of these

Q2) What is the correct code assigned for a bronchial adenoma?

A) D38.1

B) D38.3

C) D38.5

D) D38.6

Q3) What is the correct principal diagnosis for a patient admitted with a malignant neoplasm in overlapping sites of the colon?

A) C18.0

B) C18.4

C) C18.8

D) Z51.11

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Chapter 6: Coding Diseases of the Blood and Immune Mechanism

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Sample Questions

Q1) An antigen located on an RBC that produces immunogenic responses in individuals without it is known as:

A) Rh factor.

B) type O blood.

C) type AB blood.

D) agglutination.

Q2) What blood test is used to determine muscle damage, dehydration, or kidney dysfunction?

A) Creatinine

B) Glucose

C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D) Hematocrit

Q3) What is the correct code for an abnormal PTT?

A) R79.0

B) R79.1

C) R79.8

D) R79.9

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Coding Conditions of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The larger lobe in the pituitary gland is known as the:

A) adenohypophysis.

B) corticotropin.

C) neurohypophysis.

D) somatotropin.

Q2) What is the correct code assigned for a type 1 DM patient in a coma with ketoacidosis?

A) E10.10

B) E10.11

C) E10.22

D) E10.29

Q3) How many lobes are in the thymus gland?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

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Chapter 8: Coding Mental and Behavioral Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code for alcohol dependence with alcohol-induced anxiety disorder?

A) F10.280

B) F10.281

C) F10.282

D) F10.288

Q2) Nerve cells are also known as:

A) neurotransmitters.

B) chemicals.

C) neurons.

D) synapses.

Q3) Which of the following is not a type of schizophrenia?

A) Catatonic

B) Disorganized

C) Paranoid

D) Methodical

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Coding Nervous System Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which nervous system instructs the activities of smooth muscles?

A) Autonomic nervous system

B) Central nervous system

C) Peripheral nervous system

D) None of these

Q2) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with an intractable abdominal migraine?

A) G43.A0

B) G43.A1

C) G43.D0

D) G43.D1

Q3) A patient suffering from weakness of one side of the body has which condition?

A) Hemiplegia

B) Hemiparesis

C) Monoplegia

D) Monoparesis

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Chapter 10: Coding Diseases of the Eye and Adnexa

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with adherent leukoma of the left eye?

A) H17.00

B) H17.01

C) H17.02

D) H17.03

Q2) How many stages of diabetic retinopathy development are there?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Q3) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with anterior scleritis of the right eye?

A) H15.011

B) H15.012

C) H15.001

D) H15.002

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Chapter 11: Coding Diseases of the Auditory System Ears

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a dysfunction of the labyrinth?

A) Otitis media

B) Otitis externa

C) Ménière's disease

D) Otosclerosis

Q2) What is another name for earwax?

A) Cerumen

B) Vestibule

C) Cochlea

D) Saccule

Q3) What is the correct code assigned for a patient with nonobliterative otosclerosis involving the oval window of the left ear?

A) H80.12

B) H80.21

C) H80.02

D) H80.23

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Chapter 12: Coding Circulatory Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code for a patient diagnosed with idiopathic hypertension?

A) I10

B) I11

C) R03.0

D) I10.0

Q2) Which of the following is also known as a stroke?

A) Left heart failure

B) Right heart failure

C) Cerebral infarct

D) Cerebrovascular accident

Q3) What is the correct code for a patient being treated for stuttering following nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A) I69.123

B) I69.021

C) I69.122

D) I69.023

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Chapter 13: Coding Respiratory Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code for acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A) J80

B) J80.0

C) J81

D) J81.0

Q2) What is the correct code for acute laryngopharyngitis?

A) J06.0

B) J06.10

C) J06.1

D) J06.9

Q3) What is the correct term for smoking tobacco on a regular basis?

A) Abuse

B) Dependence

C) Exposure

D) Use

Q4) Which of the following is used to remove fluid from the pleura?

A) CT

B) Thoracentesis

C) Spirometer

D) Scintiphotography

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Chapter 14: Coding Diseases of the Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the correct order of the segments of the small intestine?

A) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

B) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum

C) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum

D) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum

Q2) What is the correct code for a diaphragmatic hernia with obstruction, without gangrene?

A) K44.1

B) K44.9

C) K44.0

D) K45.0

Q3) Which of the following is triangular?

A) Common bile duct

B) Gallbladder

C) Liver

D) Pancreas

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Chapter 15: Coding Diseases of the Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a detachment of the nail from the bed of the nail?

A) Beau's lines

B) Onycholysis

C) Yellow nail syndrome

D) Trichorrhexis nodosa

Q2) Which of the following might a soft nail plate signify?

A) Abnormalities of the endocrine system

B) Arthritis

C) Malnutrition

D) All of these

Q3) Which of the following layers of skin contains blood vessels, nerves, glands, hair follicles, and lymph channels?

A) Dermis

B) Epidermis

C) Subcutaneous tissue

D) Fat

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Chapter 16: Coding Muscular Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code for a patient with a strain of the extensor muscle, fascia, and tendon of the right little finger at the forearm level, initial encounter?

A) S56.417A

B) S56.417D

C) S56.418A

D) S56.418D

Q2) Which of the following is not a shoulder muscle?

A) Deltoid

B) Trochlea

C) Infraspinatus

D) Teres major

Q3) Which of the following connects a muscle to a bone?

A) Muscle

B) Ligament

C) Tendon

D) Connective tissue

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Chapter 17: Coding Skeletal Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The center of the intervertebral discs is called the:

A) annulus fibrosus.

B) fibrocartilage.

C) spinal column.

D) nucleus pulposus.

Q2) Which of the following types of fractures happens when the bone has been placed inward?

A) Avulsion

B) Burst

C) Comminuted

D) Depressed

Q3) What is the correct code for a patient seen for a sequela for a torus fracture of the lower end of the right ulna?

A) S52.621A

B) S52.621D

C) S52.621G

D) S52.621S

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Chapter 18: Coding Diseases of the Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code for acute renal failure with medullary necrosis?

A) N17.0

B) N17.1

C) N17.2

D) N17.9

Q2) Another name for urinary incontinence is:

A) urethritis.

B) emission.

C) enuresis.

D) micturition.

Q3) Which of the following is a normal glomerular filtration rate range?

A) 15-29 mL/min

B) 30-59 mL/min

C) 60-89 mL/min

D) 90-120 mL/min

Q4) What is the correct code for a urethral caruncle?

A) N36.0

B) N36.1

C) N36.2

D) N36.4

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Chapter 19: Coding for Obstetrics and Gynecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is considered a pregnancy complication?

A) If it threatens the pregnant state

B) If it threatens the health of the woman

C) If it influences the manner in which the woman is treated

D) All of these

Q2) What is the correct code for a patient with primary genital syphilis?

A) A51.0

B) A51.1

C) A51.2

D) A51.31

Q3) When a sperm fertilizes an egg, a(n) _________ is created.

A) gamete

B) zygote

C) oocyte

D) fetus

Q4) What is the correct code for 40 weeks gestation of pregnancy?

A) Z3A.36

B) Z3A.38

C) Z3A.40

D) Z3A.42

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Chapter 20: Coding Congenital and Pediatric Conditions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Marissa Mallor was delivered vaginally today at 32 weeks. Marissa is suffering from prematurity at 32 weeks and transient tachypnea of the newborn. What code(s) are assigned?

A) Z38.00, P22.0, P07.34

B) Z38.00, P22.1, P07.35

C) Z38.01, P22.0, P07.34

D) Z38.01, P22.1, P07.35

Q2) Jamison Jerm is a seven-day-old infant seen today for complex syndactyly of the right hand. What code is assigned?

A) Q70.00

B) Q70.01

C) Q70.02

D) Q70.03

Q3) What does the abbreviation PROM stand for?

A) Premature rupture of membranes

B) Premature rupture of mother

C) Progressive rupture of membranes

D) Progressive rupture of mother PROM is the abbreviation for premature rupture of membranes.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Coding Injuries, Poisonings, and Certain Other

Consequences of External Causes

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Sample Questions

Q1) A condition produced by a substance that is harmful or causes death is known as (a[n]):

A) caustic.

B) poisoning.

C) adverse effect.

D) toxic effect.

Q2) Preston Pitte was seen today for a snake bite on his right middle finger. Preston was playing outside at the beach when he picked up a water snake. The snake bit him, and his parents want to make sure that he is okay. The examination reveals a puncture wound to his right middle finger consistent with a snake bite. What are the correct codes assigned?

A) S61.252A, W59.11XA, Y92.832

B) S61.252A, W59.12XA, Y92.832

C) S61.352A, W59.11XA, Y92.832

D) S61.352A, W59.12XA, Y92.832

Q3) What acronym do coders need to remember when coding burns?

A) S/S.E

B) S/S.E.E.

C) S.E.E.

D) S.E.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Factors Influencing Health Status and Contact

With Health Services

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the correct code for an office visit for counseling and instruction in natural family planning to avoid pregnancy?

A) Z30.02

B) Z30.018

C) Z30.019

D) Z30.09

Q2) Which of the following Z codes can only be used for a principal diagnosis?

A) Z00.00

B) Z18.01

C) Z13.820

D) Z16.342

Q3) Jasmine Jewel delivered a healthy baby at home today in attendance of her midwife. Soon after delivery, Jasmine was brought to the hospital for examination because the midwife was concerned about her color. Upon examination, no abnormalities were noted. What is the correct code assignment?

A) Z39.0

B) Z39.1

C) Z39.2

D) O80

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Chapter 23: Hospital Inpatient Diagnosis Coding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following documents does the patient receive a copy of?

A) Discharge summary

B) Hospital course

C) Discharge instructions

D) Discharge disposition

Q2) Which of the following is HAC data used for?

A) Evaluating patient safety directives

B) Limiting payment to a facility for errors

C) Both evaluating patient safety directives and limiting payment to a facility for errors

D) Neither evaluating patient safety directives nor limiting payment to a facility for errors

Q3) Trudy Turnipson is seen today for pneumonia resistant to amoxicillin. What are the correct codes and POA assignments?

A) J18.9-Y, Z16.11-Y

B) J18.9-Y, Z16.21-Y

C) J18.9-Y, Z16.20-Y

D) J18.9-Y, Z16.35-Y

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