Introduction to Human Resource Management
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Resource Management provides students with a comprehensive overview of key concepts, practices, and functions within the field of human resource management (HRM). The course explores topics such as recruitment and selection, training and development, performance management, compensation and benefits, employee relations, and compliance with labor laws. Through case studies, real-world examples, and discussions, students will develop an understanding of how effective HRM contributes to organizational success by attracting, developing, and retaining talent, ensuring fair treatment of employees, and aligning workforce strategies with business goals.
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Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 3rd Edition by Gary Dessler
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Chapter 1: Managing Human Resources Today
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Q1) The basic functions of management include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) staffing
B) planning
C) organizing
D) outsourcing
Answer: D
Q2) Jennifer was recently certified as a professional human resource manager. Which organization most likely provided this certification to Jennifer?
A) Human Resource Certification Institute
B) Academy of Human Resource Executives
C) Society of Business Administration
D) Association of Certified HR Managers
Answer: A
Q3) Most modern employers expect HR managers to do all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) create high-performance work systems
B) participate in strategic planning activities
C) take an integrated talent management approach
D) utilize transactional relations to ensure corporate success
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Managing Equal Opportunity and Diversity
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Q1) The application requirements for Western Airlines pilot positions require candidates to have logged at least 200 hours piloting an aircraft within the previous 36 months. In addition, applicants must have 2,500 hours of experience in the air with at least 1,000 hours as the commanding pilot of a commercial airplane. A four-year college degree is also required. Jeff Sanchez, who is Hispanic, applied for a position as a pilot and was rejected because he has a degree from a two-year college and only 2,000 hours of flight experience. Jeff is suing Western Airlines for discriminatory hiring practices. Which of the following, if true, best supports Western Airlines' defense?
A) The total number of hours spent flying a commercial airline is a valid predictor of performance for most Western Airlines pilots.
B) Recent experiences with college recruiting have led Western Airlines to increase the percentage of its minority pilots.
C) Job capability as a Western Airlines pilot depends most heavily on age, gender, and previous job experiences.
D) Western Airlines bases its selection tests and hiring practices on industry guidelines for commercial pilots.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Human Resource Strategy and Analysis
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Q1) As an HR manager, you would most likely use a strategy map to ________.
A) outline a presentation for top executives
B) quantify the financial and nonfinancial goals of a firm
C) understand the chain of activities that contributes to a firm's success
D) assess the effects of employee training programs on retention rates
Answer: C
Q2) The specific human resource policies and practices used to support a firm's strategic goals are known as human resource strategies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Reese Enterprises seeks to fill upper-level positions internally whenever possible and uses validated selection tests when considering external hires. This most likely suggests the company is developing a ________.
A) scorecard management system
B) high-performance work system
C) selection metric
D) benchmark
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Talent Management
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Q1) According to experts, the job summary section of a job description should NOT include a statement about ________.
A) performing other duties, as assigned
B) working with efficiency
C) being conscientious
D) showing attentiveness
Q2) Which of the following involves assigning workers additional same-level activities?
A) job rotation
B) job enlargement
C) job analysis
D) job enrichment
Q3) Which term refers to a written statement that describes the activities, responsibilities, and working conditions of a job?
A) job specification
B) job evaluation
C) job description
D) job context
Q4) What is a task statement? Why are task statements becoming increasingly popular?
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Chapter 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting
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Q1) Which of the following generates the highest quality of job applicants for most firms?
A) employee referrals
B) internal job postings
C) regional career fairs
D) national online job boards
Q2) Applicant tracking systems are software systems that assist managers with writing job descriptions and collecting application information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the advantages and disadvantages of filling open positions with inside candidates?
Q4) Local newspapers are typically a good source of blue-collar help and clerical employees, but they are not useful for finding any type of administrative workers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a brief essay, discuss how EEO laws affect both recruitment and the information requested on job application forms.
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Chapter 6: Selecting Employees
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Q1) While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?
A) openness to experience
B) conscientiousness
C) agreeableness
D) extroversion
Q2) Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A) work samples
B) projective tests
C) achievement tests
D) interest inventories
Q3) Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________.
A) improper screening
B) negligent hiring
C) unreliable testing
D) improper hiring
Q4) How do nonverbal behaviors affect interviewer ratings of candidates?
Q5) Explain the five steps in the validation process.
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Chapter 7: Training and Developing Employees
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Q1) In a brief essay, discuss how firms utilize advancements in technology to train their employees and to develop their managers.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of employee orientation?
A) The employee should become skilled with the firm's software.
B) The employee should understand the organization in a broad sense.
C) The employee should have a clear understanding of what is expected.
D) The employee should begin the process of learning the firm's preferences.
Q3) Strategic training needs analysis is most closely linked to ________.
A) organizational culture
B) employee orientation
C) succession planning
D) employee compensation
Q4) Management development is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is management development? What is organizational development? What methods are used for each?
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Chapter 8: Performance and Talent Management
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Q1) A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________.
A) stereotyping
B) central tendency
C) halo effect
D) leniency
Q2) Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals?
A) harm to employee morale
B) high cost of administration
C) standardization of group sizes
D) time consuming to administer
Q3) In order to ensure that performance goals are challenging and relevant, Matthew, a marketing manager, should independently set goals for his subordinates because participatively set goals usually produce lower job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the six basic elements of a performance management program?
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Chapter 9: Managing Employee Retention, Engagement, and Careers
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an intangible cost of turnover?
A) interviewing costs
B) recruiting costs
C) coaching costs
D) testing costs
Q2) A talent management approach to employee retention focuses primarily on ________,
A) retaining key employees
B) reducing turnover costs
C) minimizing coaching needs
D) retaining executive managers
Q3) Ray, an IT specialist, often daydreams at work, fails to focus on tasks, and arrives late. Ray's actions are most likely an example of ________.
A) voluntary turnover
B) disengagement
C) withdrawal
D) retention
Q4) Discuss the ways an employer can effectively manage dismissals.
Page 11
Q5) Discuss how and why careers today are different from those in the past.
Q6) How can organizations facilitate the career development needs of employees?
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Chapter 10: Developing Compensation Plans
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Q1) External equity refers to ________.
A) how a job's pay rate in one company compares to the job's pay rate in other companies
B) how fair the job's pay rate is, when compared to other jobs within the same company
C) the fairness of an individual's pay as compared to what his or her co-workers are earning for the same or very similar jobs within the company, based on each individual's performance
D) the perceived fairness of the processes and procedures used to make decisions regarding the allocation of pay
Q2) Which of the following most likely indicates than an employee is a professional under the law?
A) holds a college degree
B) works overtime hours
C) manages other workers
D) earns at least $245 per week
Q3) What are the similarities and differences between developing compensation plans for professionals and lower-level employees? What role does job evaluation play in each?
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Chapter 11: Pay for Performance and Employee Benefits
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Q1) Eric has worked full-time for a large manufacturing company for over 3 years. Eric and his wife have recently adopted a baby, and Eric wants to take time off from work to care for the child. Which of the following laws most likely applies to Eric's situation?
A) Pregnancy Discrimination Act
B) Family and Medical Leave Act
C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
D) Newborn Mother's Protection Act
Q2) Most gainsharing plans include all of the following features EXCEPT ________.
A) a philosophy of cooperation
B) a focus on individual achievement
C) sharing of benefits formula
D) an involvement system
Q3) Which of the following is considered a hybrid of defined benefit and defined contribution plans?
A) ESOP
B) 401(k) plan
C) flexible savings
D) cash balance plan
Q4) What are the advantages of employee stock ownership plans?
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Chapter 12: Ethics, Employee Relations, and Fair Treatment at Work
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Q1) According to experts, ethical behavior in the workplace begins with ________. A) fraudulent deeds
B) organizational fit
C) moral awareness
D) reward systems
Q2) R&R has a nonpunitive discipline policy. Employees at R&R Carpet and Tile are allowed to take one-hour lunch breaks. Todd's assistant, Suzanne, took a two-hour lunch break today without prior approval. Suzanne was given a verbal warning five weeks ago for a similar infraction. Which of the following will most likely be Todd's response to Suzanne's actions today?
A) give Suzanne a one-day, paid leave to consider whether she can abide by the firm's rules
B) give Suzanne a formal written reminder that will be included in her personnel file
C) require Suzanne to participate in arbitration with an ombudsman
D) discuss the incident with Suzanne privately
Q3) What is organizational culture? How can managers influence the ethical nature of a firm's culture?
Q4) What can managers do to ensure that discipline is fair and effective?
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Q5) Explain the meaning of the Evil Woman Thesis and its implications for managers.
Chapter 13: Working with Unions and Resolving Disputes
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Q1) Grievances should be settled based on what is considered fair even if the solution differs from the labor agreement.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the five labor practices used by employers that the Wagner Act deemed unfair and considered "statutory wrongs."
Q3) The Employee Free Choice Act would make it more difficult for employers to prevent the formation of unions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Landrum-Griffin Act encouraged union activity by guaranteeing each employee the right to bargain collectively without interference, restraint, or coercion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does the typical union authorization card do? How would the passage of the Employee Free Choice Act change authorization cards?
Q6) List and describe the five steps involved in planning a union drive and election.
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Chapter 14: Improving Occupational Safety, Health, and Risk Management
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Q1) How can accidents in the workplace be prevented? List and describe five ways.
Q2) Gwen works as a stockbroker, and she is experiencing the symptoms of job stress. All of the following would most likely help Gwen reduce her stress levels EXCEPT ________.
A) making a list of problems and possible solutions
B) putting off dealing with distasteful problems
C) requesting realistic project deadlines
D) limiting interruptions
Q3) All of the following are major sources of occupational respiratory disease EXCEPT
A) carbon dioxide
B) asbestos
C) silica
D) mold
Q4) Co-workers are primarily the perpetrators of workplace violence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is an unsafe act? What actions can supervisors take to reduce the number of unsafe acts by subordinates?
Q6) How can screening reduce unsafe acts in the workplace?
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