Introduction to Human Physiology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Physiology explores the fundamental mechanisms and processes that govern the functioning of the human body. This course provides a comprehensive overview of major physiological systems including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, renal, and endocrine systems emphasizing how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support life. Students will learn about cellular functions, tissue organization, organ system integration, and the regulatory mechanisms that allow humans to adapt to changing internal and external environments. The course prepares students for advanced studies in health sciences and related fields by fostering an understanding of the physiological principles underlying human health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine
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N. Marie
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Responsiveness or irritability is the ability to sense changes in the environment and then respond to them.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA)imaging is most useful in discovering obstructed blood supplies in organs and tissues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Produces antibodies that attach to foreign substances.
A)Lymphatic
B)Endocrine
C)Immune
D)Cardiovascular
Answer: C
Q4) Which body system would be most affected by a lower than normal atmospheric pressure?
Answer: respiratory system
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a DNA molecule,the phosphate serves ________.
A) as a code
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
C) as nucleotides
D) to bind the sugars to their bases
Answer: B
Q2) Salts are always ________.
A) double covalent compounds
B) single covalent compounds
C) ionic compounds
D) hydrogen bonded
Answer: C
Q3) An amino acid may act as a proton acceptor or donor.Explain.
Answer: Amino acids have two components a base group (proton acceptor)and an organic acid part (a proton donor).Some have additional base or acid groups on the ends of their R groups as well.
Q4) Omega-3 fatty acids appear to decrease the risk of heart disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable,what could happen?
A) The cells will lose water and shrink.
B) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
C) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
D) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would NOT assist in establishing a resting membrane potential?
A) Having greater concentration of glycolipids on the outside surface of the membrane.
B) Selective diffusion allowing more uncharged particles into the cell.
C) Selective diffusion allowing more positively charged ions to diffuse out of the cell.
D) Selective diffusion allowing fewer positively charged ions to diffuse into the cell.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac muscle.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Smooth muscle.
A)Virtually no functional regenerative ability
B)Moderate regenerative ability
C)Weak regenerative ability
D)Regenerates extremely well
Q3) The role of brown fat is to warm the body; whereas,the role of white fat is to store nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Without macrophages,wound healing is delayed.Why?
Q5) How is epithelial tissue the opposite of connective tissue?
Q6) Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues,and may have specific names that reflect their location or specializations.What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell remnants of the stratum corneum.
A)Keratinocytes
B)Keratin
C)Cornified keratinocytes
D)Dendritic cells
E)Merkel disc
Q2) Betty,an 83 year old woman,is bedfast due to a severely broken hip.Unfortunately,she has developed a decubitus ulcer.What is a decubitus ulcer and what may have caused it to occur?
Q3) A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot,almost to the papillary region of the dermis.Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?
A) basale
B) spinosum
C) lucidum
D) granulosum
Q4) The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone 5.
A)Irregular
B)Flat
C)Sesamoid
D)Short
E)Long
Q2) Ossification of the ends of long bones ________.
A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation
B) involves medullary cavity formation
C) takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification
D) is produced by secondary ossification centers
Q3) The structure of bone tissue suits the function.Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses?
A) spongy bone
B) irregular bone
C) trabecular bone
D) compact bone
Q4) If your doctor notices a marked decrease in calcium ion levels in your blood,what gland might he suspect is not functioning properly and why?
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Q1) What is the purpose of the vertebral curvatures?
Q2) Your "cheekbone" is mostly formed from the ________ bone.
Q3) The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system.It works closely with the pituitary gland.The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is therefore ________.
A) the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull
B) superior to the crista galli
C) inferior to the cribriform plate
D) superior to the sella turcica
Q4) Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________.
A) applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping
B) providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities
C) giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock
D) limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension
Q5) The heel bone is called the ________.
Q6) You are a school nurse in a middle school.You are responsible for screening the children for scoliosis.What is involved in this screening?
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Farhad begins typing his term paper on his new computer early one morning.After 8 hours of typing,he notices that his wrists are stiff and very sore.The next morning,Farhad begins to finish his paper,but soon finds his wrists hurt worse than last night.What is wrong?
Q2) Bones united by fibrocartilage.
A)Syndesmosis
B)Gomphosis
C)Symphysis
D)Suture
Q3) Bones are connected exclusively by ligaments.
A)Syndesmosis
B)Gomphosis
C)Symphysis
D)Suture
Q4) Presence of a synovial cavity,articular cartilage,synovial membrane,and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint?
A) hinge joint
B) symphysis
C) suture
D) synchondrosis
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 100 meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed.On completion of the dash the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running.Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so?
A) Since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners' bodies have not yet realized the run is over.
B) The runners' fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen it only begins aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished.
C) The runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake.
D) Slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run.
Q2) Depends on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms.
A)Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers
B)Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
C)fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers
Q3) A smooth,sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________.
Q4) Only ________ muscle cells are multinucleated.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Q1) A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A woman mentions to her friend that another person on the beach has "great abs." What is she talking about?
Q3) The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs?
A) lateral rotators
B) quadriceps
C) hamstrings
D) thigh adductors
Q5) Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.
A)True
B)False
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Q7) How does an antagonist differ from a prime mover (agonist)? How is it the same?
Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between a direct acting neurotransmitter and an indirect acting neurotransmitter?
Q2) Synaptic vesicles.
A)C
B)E
C)B
D)D
E)A
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?
A) it has a depolarization, repolarization and hyperpolarization phase
B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes
C) it is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane
D) it travels long distances
Q4) Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) astrocytes
B) microglia
C) ependymal cells
D) oligodendrocytes
Page 13
Q5) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier?
Q6) What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ includes the thalamus,hypothalamus,and epithalamus.
A) diencephalon
B) basal nuclei
C) midbrain
D) brain stem
Q3) The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) alcohol
B) anesthetics
C) nutrients such as glucose
D) metabolic waste such as urea
Q4) What is the importance of the fact that the outer portion of the cerebral hemispheres is convoluted?
Q5) Death from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis usually results from respiratory infection secondary to compromised respiratory function.Explain why.
Q6) Differentiate clearly between short-term and long-term memory.
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Q1) Ralph sustained a leg injury in a bowling accident and had to use crutches.Unfortunately,he never took the time to learn how to use them properly.After two weeks of use,he noticed his fingers were becoming numb.Then he noticed his arms were getting weaker and tingling.What could be his problem?
Q2) Reciprocal inhibition means that while one sensory nerve is stimulated,another sensory neuron for synergistic muscles in the same area is inhibited and cannot respond.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) trigeminal
B) vestibulocochlear
C) abducens
D) accessory
Q4) One of the adaptive advantages of human body hair is believed to be its ability to help us detect potentially harmful insects crawling or landing on our skin.Which receptor type is most associated with this type of perception?
Q5) A nurse is asked about the cause of the excruciating pain of tic douloureux.How should s/he answer?
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell body of an ANS postganglionic neuron.
A)C
B)A
C)E
D)D
Q2) Secreted by most postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
A)Norepinephrine (NE)
B)Acetylcholine (ACh)
Q3) Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
A)Norepinephrine (NE)
B)Acetylcholine (ACh)
Q5) Erection (vasodilation)of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
B) is primarily under sympathetic control
C) is primarily under parasympathetic control
D) depends very little on autonomic activation
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Odorants must be volatile to be smelled.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four)wavelengths of light.What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors?
A) Color perception is achieved by activation of various combinations between the three cone types.
B) Color perception is dependent on the millions of rods as well as cone photoreceptors.
C) Shades of color are purely psychological and learned by association with age, infants only seeing in black and white.
D) Colors are added and enhanced in the primary visual cortex of the brain.
Q3) When we move from darkness to bright light,retinal sensitivity is lost,but visual acuity is gained.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The synapse of the olfactory nerves with the mitral cells is called a ________.
Q5) The middle ossicle in the ear is the ________.
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following can act on receptors inside the target cell that directly activate specific genes?
A) growth hormone
B) melatonin
C) testosterone
D) calcitonin
Q3) Addison's disease is usually due to an insufficient output of glucocorticoids only.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Epinephrine production.
A)Neural stimulus
B)Hormonal stimulus
C)Humoral stimulus
Q5) Glucagon and insulin both target the cells of the liver and are both made in the pancreas,yet they have very different effects on the cells they target.What accounts for this fact?
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Q1) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules.
A)Basophil
B)Eosinophil
C)Neutrophil
D)Monocyte
E)Erythrocyte
Q3) When activated becomes a macrophage that fights infection.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q4) Antibodies released by plasma cells during immune response.
A)Alpha and beta globulins
B)Albumin
C)Gamma globulins
D)Fibrinogen
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply,damage would primarily result from ________.
A) decreased delivery of oxygen
B) an inadequate supply of lactic acid
C) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
D) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
Q2) Mitral (bicuspid)valve.
A)A
B)C
C)D D)B
E)E
Q3) Right atrium. A)A B)C C)D D)B E)E
Q4) What two important functions does the intrinsic cardiac conduction system perform?
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Capillary found in endocrine organs that allows hormones to gain rapid entry into the blood.
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q2) If a person were to have substantial blood loss you would expect to see all of the following physiological events to except one.Select the least likely response to substantial blood loss.
A) increasing vasomotor tone
B) decreased heart rate
C) increases peripheral resistance
D) a weak, thread pulse
Q3) Common site to take the pulse.
A)External iliac artery
B)Internal carotid artery
C)Brachiocephalic trunk
D)Celiac trunk
E)Radial artery
Q4) Define vasoconstriction and vasodilation.What is the mechanism of regulation?
Q5) Which type of blood vessels contain valves and what is their function?
22
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Efferent vessels.
A)D
B)C
C)E
D)A
Q2) Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.
A) large intestine
B) stomach
C) small intestine
D) esophagus
Q3) Where are the lymph node aggregations most dense?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes?
A) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system
B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs
C) serve as antigen surveillance areas
D) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid
Q5) What is the consequence of obstruction of the lymphatics?
Q6) Characterize lymph transport in terms of rate,volume,and ability to change.
Q7) Lymphedema may occur as a complication after a radical mastectomy,in which lymph nodes have been removed.Explain why it might occur. Page 23
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following does not describe actions of interferon (IFN)?
A) IFN binds to normal, uninfected cells stimulating the activation of genes that produce anti-viral proteins.
B) IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus.
C) Virally infected cells can release interferon which attracts NK cells to attack and kill the IFN secreting cell.
D) IFN will attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed by phagocytosis.
Q2) What are monoclonal antibodies? How are they produced,and what are some of their clinical uses?
Q3) Viral infection will provoke cell mediated immunity but will not activate a humoral response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A woman comes into the hospital emergency room complaining that she is having problems swallowing and her neck is swelling.She has a history of radiation treatment to her neck as a child for acne.What could be the problem?
Q5) Name four autoimmune diseases.
Q6) Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms are called ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration,for example blowing up a balloon?
A) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
C) diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax
D) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
Q2) Carina of trachea.
A)E
B)A
C)C
D)B
E)D
Q3) Which of the following counteracts the movement of bicarbonate ions from the RBC?
A) the Bohr effect
B) the Haldane effect
C) release of hydrogen ion
D) chloride shifting
Q4) What is the chloride shift and why does it occur?
Q5) Distinguish among anemic,ischemic (stagnant),histotoxic,and hypoxemic hypoxia.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds?
A) palatine and circumvallate
B) fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform
C) circumvallate and filiform
D) fungiform and circumvallate
Q2) Select the one response below that would not result from a drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach.
A) It would reduce the symptoms of heartburn.
B) It would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin.
C) It would lower the activity of parietal cells.
D) It would raise the pH of the stomach.
Q3) Gastric accommodation is an example of smooth muscle plasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some of the microbes that often invade other organs of the body are rarely found in the stomach.The reason for this is the presence of HCl.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Several hours after your last meal,declining blood glucose levels stimulate release of the hormone ________,which stimulates glycogenolysis,lipolysis and fat mobilization,and gluconeogenesis.
A) glucagon
B) thyroxine
C) cortisol
D) insulin
Q2) What are four possible complications of obesity from a medical standpoint?
Q3) Which term describes the action of an endurance runner the night before the race as she "carbo-loads" when eating a large pasta dinner?
A) glycogenesis
B) glycogenolysis
C) glycolysis
D) gluconeogenesis
Q4) Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are anabolic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the significance of the fact that monosaccharides are phosphorylated immediately upon entry into cells?
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) Sodium-linked water flow across a membrane not under hormonal control is called ________ water reabsorption.
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding tubular reabsorption?
A) It involves hormonal signals in the collecting ducts.
B) It is a purely passive transport process.
C) It is a reclamation process.
D) It occurs via transcellular or paracellular routes.
Q3) Cells that are the most active in reabsorbing the filtrate.
A)E
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)A
Q4) The presence of pus in the urine is a condition called ________.
Q5) Proximal convoluted tubule.
A)Blood supply that directly receives substances from the tubular cells.
B)Site of filtrate formation.
C)Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
D)Site at which most of the tubular reabsorption occurs
Q6) Explain the role of aldosterone in sodium and water balance.
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The two hormones responsible for the regulation of calcium are pituitary hormone and calcitonin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids?
A) little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids
B) Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids
C) equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids
D) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids
Q3) Hypercalcemia causes muscle tetany.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the most powerful and plentiful sources of buffers is the protein buffer system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
Q6) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis?
Q7) List and describe three stimuli that activate the hypothalamic thirst center.
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Select the correct statement about testosterone control.
A) Inhibin and testosterone exert positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.
B) FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone.
C) The pineal gland is believed to be the gland that exerts the most influence in testosterone control.
D) GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
Q2) Treponema pallidum causes the sexually transmitted disease called ________.
Q3) The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Area of compacted DNA.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
Q5) What are some risk factors for developing breast cancer?
Q6) Surgical cutting of the ductus deferens as a form of birth control is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Q1) Define Braxton Hicks contractions.
Q2) Liver.
A)A
B)B
C)D
D)E
E)C
Q3) Select the correct statement about fertilization.
A) If estrogen is present, the pathway through the cervical opening is blocked from sperm entry.
B) Both spermatozoa and the ovulated secondary oocyte remain viable for about 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.
C) Once inside the uterus, most sperm cells are protected and remain viable.
D) Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina's acidic environment.
Q4) The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is ________.
A) blastocyst, morula, zygote
B) zygote, blastocyst, morula
C) zygote, morula, blastocyst
D) morula, zygote, blastocyst
Q5) How are the metabolic needs of the implanted embryo provided for?
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Chapter 29: Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) Are there any afflicted females?
Q2) The same allele can have a different effect depending on which parent it comes from.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Albinism is a good example of a(n)________ trait.
Q4) The folk singer,Woody Guthrie,died of Huntington's chorea.One of his parents also died of this disease affecting the nervous system.The disease usually affects carriers between 25 and 45 years of age and is inherited as a Mendelian autosomal dominant trait.Using Punnett squares,determine the probability that any of the three Guthrie offspring will have this devastating disease.
Q5) A disorder of brain lipid metabolism.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Achondroplasia
C)Albinism
D)Tay-Sachs disease
E)Huntington's disease
Q6) Hereditary characteristics are transmitted to offspring by genes.
A)True
B)False
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