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Introduction to Human Physiology Exam Review - 5289 Verified Questions

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Introduction to Human Physiology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Introduction to Human Physiology explores the foundational principles governing the function and regulation of the human body. This course examines the structure and interconnected systems including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, renal, and endocrine systems focusing on how these processes maintain homeostasis. Students will gain an understanding of physiological mechanisms, cellular communication, and organ system integration, preparing them to apply these concepts in health, disease, and performance contexts.

Recommended Textbook

Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 8th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood

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20 Chapters

5289 Verified Questions

5289 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology and Homeostasis

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Sample Questions

Q1) X increases the production of Y and Y decreases the production of X.

Answer: B

Q2) Calcium is stored mainly in the ____ system.

A)digestive

B)endocrine

C)integumentary

D)muscular

E)skeletal

Answer: E

Q3) Extracellular fluid

A)is the internal environment of the body

B)is outside the cells but inside the body

C)consists of the plasma and interstitial fluid

D)exhibits a dynamic steady state in regard to composition, temperature, and volume

E)is described by all of the above statements

Answer: E

Q4) Police officers

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Cell Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Oxidative phosphorylation generates more ATP per glucose molecule than does glycolysis.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Docking markers are most closely associated with A)the nucleus

B)mitochondria

C)DNA

D)Golgi complexes

E)the ETS

Answer: D

Q3) All cell organelles are renewable.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) Increase the surface area of the kidney tubules

Answer: C

Q5) Provide a pathway for axonal transport

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: The Plasma Membrane and Membrane

Potential

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Sample Questions

Q1) At equilibrium, when no net diffusion of Na or K is occurring through the membrane, Na -K pumps do not have to pump Na or K .

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) ____________________ are cell connections that utilize CAMs to hold adjacent cells together while being anchor to intermediate filaments of each cell's cytoskeleton.

Answer: Desmosomes

Q3) The SGLT carrier transports ______________ molecules against their concentration gradient while moving _____________ ions down their concentration gradient.

Answer: glucose, Na

Q4) Placing pure water around cells causes the cells to swell because the cytosol has a lower osmotic pressure than the pure water.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Principles of Neural and Hormonal Communication

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the peak of the action potential, the membrane becomes most permeable to A)sodium

B)potassium

C)calcium

D)chloride

E)protein

Q2) Local current flows locally between active and adjacent inactive areas of the cell membrane, thereby decreasing the potential in the inactive area to threshold.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which statement is incorrect?

A)Inhibitory synapses cause postsynaptic hyperpolarization.

B)An inhibitory synapse may result in postsynaptic sodium channel opening.

C)An inhibitory synapse may result in increased postsynaptic potassium efflux.

D)An excitatory synapse causes depolarization of postsynaptic membranes.

E)An excitatory synapse increases sodium permeability.

Q4) Increased PK of the subsynaptic membrane (no change in PN )

Q5) Ion movement that would cause an IPSP

Q6) Released into blood for delivery to target

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Chapter 5: The Central Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The basal nuclei are part of the cerebrum and diencephalon.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Very large storage capacity

Q3) The ____________________ lobes of the ____________________ hemisphere excel in performance of logical, analytical, sequential, and verbal tasks, whereas the same lobes of the ____________________ hemisphere excel in nonlanguage skills such as spatial perception and artistic and musical endeavors.

Q4) The withdrawal reflex for the arm requires an EPSP be generated on motor neurons that innervate the triceps muscle, and requires an IPSP be generated on neurons that innervate the biceps muscle.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Probably involves relatively permanent functional or structural changes between existing neurons

Q6) Accomplishes final sensory perception

Q7) The most widely accepted indication of brain death is a flat EEG.

A)True

B)False

7

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Chapter 6: The Peripheral Nervous System: Afferent Division

Special Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A single taste bud contains only one chemoreceptor that can respond to all primary tastes but generally responds preferentially to one of the taste modalities.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Measured in cycles per second

Q3) ____________________, a neurotransmitter unique to pain fibers, is released from afferent pain terminals.

Q4) Concerned with hearing

Q5) Corrected by convex lens

Q6) Photoreceptors are depolarized in the absence of stimulation (i.e., in the dark) and hyperpolarized when stimulated (i.e., when exposed to light).

A)True

B)False

Q7) Sour taste is caused by the hydrogen ions from acids, while bitter taste is caused by alkaloid substances such as caffeine.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

Q8) Depends on the amplitude of the sound wave

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Chapter 7: The Peripheral Nervous System: Efferent Division

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Sample Questions

Q1) Has short preganglionic fibers

Q2) An EPP is similar to an EPSP, except that the magnitude of an EPSP is much larger.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Neuron 2

A)uses adrenergic receptors to respond to stimulation by a preganglionic neuron

B)releases NE onto a very short postganglionic neuron

C)releases a chemical that binds to adrenergic receptors on a postganglionic neuron

D)does all of the above

E)does none of the above

Q4) Identify the true statement(s):

A)NE causes most blood vessels to constrict.

B)ACh causes the pancreas to release glucagon

C)Binding of a neurotransmitter to a beta-1 receptor on the heart would result in a faster heart rate.

D)Both a and b are true

E)Both a and c are true

Q5) Carry information from the central nervous system

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Chapter 8: Muscle Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Skeletal muscles are capable of limited repair after injury.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Central fatigue of a muscle directly results from the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A special sensory receptor called a __________ lies within a muscle's tendon and respond to a change in muscle tension.

Q4) Has numerous mitochondria

Q5) Has myosin ATPase activity

Q6) Cross bridges

A)bind to actin during muscle contraction

B)are globular heads made of myosin

C)do not bend during muscle contraction

D)have characteristics a and b

E)have characteristics b and c

Q7) The ability of stretched smooth muscle to rearrange its cross bridge attachments so that muscle tension decreases is called the __________ response (a two-word answer)

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Chapter 9: Cardiac Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation slows the rate of depolarization of the SA node and thus decreases the heart rate.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What component of the cardiac conduction system distributes electrical signals directly through the papillary muscles?

A)AV nodes

B)AV bundle

C)bundle of His

D)Purkinje fibers

E)SA node

Q3) Decreasing preload ____________________ contractility, which then ____________________ stroke volume.

Q4) Vitamins ____________________ and ____________________ have been shown to slow plaque deposition in coronary arteries.

Q5) The only point of electrical contact between the atria and the ventricles is the AV valve.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: The Blood Vessels and Blood Pressure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given the following forces acting at a given point across the capillary wall, _______ will occur with a net ______ pressure of ____ mm Hg.

- capillary blood pressure = 32 mm Hg

- blood osmotic pressure = 23 mm Hg

- interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = 1 mm Hg

- interstitial fluid osmotic pressure = 0 mm Hg

A)Ultrafiltration, outward, 8

B)Ultrafiltration, outward, 10

C)Ultrafiltration, outward, 56

D)Reabsorption, inward, 24

E)Reabsorption, inward, 10

Q2) Increased skeletal muscle activity ____ venous return.

Q3) Increase in blood flow to a tissue that occurs after removal of an occlusion of its blood supply

Q4) Vasoconstriction refers to a decrease in the radius of a vessel.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Resistance to blood flow increases as the viscosity of the blood increases.

A)True B)False

Page 12

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Chapter 11: The Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Antibodies are

A)a type of globin protein

B)classified as alpha globulins

C)produced by B lymphocytes

D)all of the above

E)both b and c

Q2) The first indication of a high degree of erythropoiesis is when reticulocytes make up more than ____ percent of the circulating red blood cells.

A)0.3

B)0.5

C)1.0

D)1.5

E)1.9

Q3) Which two numbers identify the body's most highly phagocytic cells?

Q4) In the last step of blood coagulation,

A)fibrin is converted to fibrinogen

B)fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

C)platelet factor enters numerous reactions

D)prothrombin is converted to thrombin

E)thrombin is converted to prothrombin

13

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Chapter 12: Body Defenses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of leukocytes squeezing through the capillary pores to exit the vasculature is known as ____________________.

Q2) The ________ pathway for complement activation involves binding with immunoglobulins, while the ________ pathway involves binding to carbohydrate chains on a microbial surface.

Q3) The complement system

A)consists of plasma proteins produced by the liver that circulate in the blood in inactive form

B)is the primary mechanism activated by antibodies to kill foreign cells

C)can be activated by antibodies and/or antigens

D)is considered a nonspecific defense

E)has all of the above characteristics

Q4) Which of the following is not secreted by helper T cells?

A)B-cell growth factor

B)T-cell growth factor

C)interleukin 1

D)interleukin 2

E)macrophage migration inhibition factor

Q5) Release perforin

Q6) Secrete interleukin 2

Page 14

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Chapter 13: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most important factor controlling respiration is the \(\mathrm { P } _ { \mathrm { O } _ { 2 } }\) of arterial blood.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in all the following ways except

A)bicarbonate ion

B)carbonic acid

C)directly dissolved

D)bound to heme

E)bound to globin

Q3) The percent of hemoglobin saturation decreases as

A) \(\mathrm { P } _ { \mathrm { O } _ { 2 } }\) increases

B) \(\mathrm { P } _ { \mathrm { CO } _ { 2 } }\) increases

C)H+ decreases

D)body temperature decreases

E)blood pH decreases

Q4) The respiratory quotient is the ratio of ____________________ to

Q5) Respiratory rate x (tidal volume - dead space volume)

Q6) ____________________ is the transient cessation of breathing.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys?

A)Excreting metabolic wastes

B)Maintaining proper plasma volume

C)Secreting aldosterone to regulate sodium

D)Maintaining proper osmolarity of body fluids

E)Assisting in maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the body

Q2) The Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure opposes filtration.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The distal and collecting tubules in the absence of vasopressin are ______ to H O.

Q4) If a substance has a plasma concentration of 150 mg/ml and a urine concentration of 1.7 mg/ml, and the urine flow rate is 1.3 ml/min, what is the clearance of this substance?

A)15 ml/min

B)196 ml/min

C)0.4 ml/min

D)Cannot be determined with these data

E)None of the above

Q5) Its secretion is directly stimulated by angiotensin II

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Chapter 15: Fluid and Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) An increased secretion of H ions in the kidney has the greatest direct effect on the tubular secretion of ____ ions.

A)calcium

B)chloride

C)phosphate

D)potassium

E)sodium

Q2) Ingesting more salt would

A)increase the plasma's osmolarity

B)make the plasma hypotonic to blood cells

C)cause a decrease in vasopressin secretion

D)cause a and b

E)cause b and c

Q3) The ECF around a human cell that is shrinking due to a loss of water is

A)hypotonic

B)hypertonic

C)more dilute than the cytoplasm

D)both a and c

E)likely losing free water

Q4) This occurs as a consequence of diabetes insipidus.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) It takes about _______ for an epithelial cell to migrate from the base of the villi to the tip.

A)three hours

B)three days

C)one day

D)three months

E)several weeks

Q2) Over nine liters of fluid are absorbed from the digestive tract daily.The ultimate source of most of this fluid is

A)food and fluid ingested during meals

B)salivary glands

C)blood plasma

D)the pancreas

E)metabolic water

Q3) Receptive relaxation refers to the voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter when the individual is receptive to the defecation reflex.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Gastrin

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Chapter 17: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) All forms of biological energy expenditure that do not accomplish work outside the body

Q2) Radiation and conduction are two types of heat exchange between the body and environment.The magnitude of heat loss via these two processes is determined by the A)amount of sweating

B)temperature difference between body surface and its surroundings

C)absolute core temperature

D)extent of evaporation from the body surface

E)distance between the two objects that are exchanging heat

Q3) An elevated body temperature is always indicative of an infection.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Heat loss from the body by evaporation occurs even in very cold weather.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The ____________________ is the energy expenditure (i.e., rate of heat production) per unit of time.

Q6) Regulation of ____________________ is the most important factor in the long-term maintenance of energy balance and body weight.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Principles of Endocrinology: the Central

Endocrine Glands

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true about hormones?

A)They are released from exocrine glands.

B)They interact with receptors at target-cell sites.

C)They are synthesized in the lymph nodes.

D)They interact with receptors in the blood.

E)They are all similar chemically.

Q2) Only hormones that are not bound to plasma proteins are biologically active.

A)True

B)False

Q3) __________ is not secreted from an organ located in the abdominal cavity.

A)Ghrelin

B)Thrombopoietin

C)Gastrin

D)Insulin-like growth factor

E)Calcitonin

Q4) Describe how the hypothalamus and pituitary gland function in the negative feedback control of cortisol secretion when a person is under stress.Mention all relevant hormones involved in the process.

Page 20

Q5) All of the blood supply to the anterior pituitary gland must first pass through the ____________________ of the brain.

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Chapter 19: The Peripheral Endocrine Glands

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Sample Questions

Q1) Exerts a glucose-sparing effect by inhibiting glucose uptake by many tissues but not the brain

Q2) _________ is not associated with hyperthyroidism.

A)Elevated basal metabolic rate

B)Myxedema

C)Weakness

D)Excessive perspiration

E)Palpitations

Q3) Glucagon

A)is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans

B)is secreted in response to a fall in blood glucose

C)is, in general, antagonistic to all other hormones in terms of metabolic effects

D)increases fat stores by inhibiting the enzyme that catalyzes triglyceride breakdown

E)has none of the above characteristics

Q4) _________ is the hormone that interferes with almost every aspect of inflammation.

Q5) Produces a hormone that induces transporter recruitment

Q6) Increases blood fatty acid levels

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Chapter 20: The Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fills with glycogen and becomes richly vascularized under the influence of progesterone

Q2) The process of oogenesis (from undifferentiated germ cell to released ovum) takes anywhere from 11 to 50 years to complete.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Male reproductive tract

Q4) The placenta secretes hCG, which causes the ovaries to maintain cyclic follicular development (ovulations) during pregnancy.

A)True

B)False

Q5) LH is responsible for

A)reinitiating meiosis in the oocytes of developing follicles

B)halting estrogen synthesis by the follicular cells

C)triggering ovulation

D)formation of the corpus luteum

E)all of the above

Q6) The ____________________ (labeled # ____) helps maintain optimum temperature for sperm production

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