Introduction to Human Physiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Physiology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts underlying the functioning of the human body. This course explores the structure and mechanisms of various organs and systems, including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support life processes. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical examples, students will develop a foundational knowledge of physiological principles and an appreciation for the complexity and integration of human bodily functions.
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Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by
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Page 2
Lauralee Sherwood
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the component parts of a homeostatic control system? Describe a basic function of each.
Answer: Components of a homeostatic system include the sensor, which monitors the magnitude of the variable being controlled, and the integrator or control center, which compares the sensor's input with what is considered a normal value (known as the set point) and then sends appropriate signals to the last component of the system (know as the effector). The effector in turn brings about an appropriate change to return the system back to the set point (normal).
Q2) Blood is this tissue type.
A)nervous tissue
B)epithelial tissue
C)muscle tissue
D)connective tissue
Answer: D
Q3) The ____________________ is the liquid part of the blood.
Answer: plasma
Q4) Detects skin temperature.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Cell Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contain newly-synthesized molecules
A)transport vesicles
B)coated vesicles
C)secretory vesicles
Answer: A
Q2) does not directly use inspired oxygen
A)glycolysis
B)citric-acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: A
Q3) Glycolysis generates ATP from glucose via aerobic processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Are/is present in parts of the cell subject to mechanical stress.
A)microtubules
B)microfilaments
C)intermediate filaments
D)microtrabecular lattice
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Plasma Membrane and Membrane
Potential
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Q1) If the concentration of substance X outside the cell continues to increase but the rate of substance X's transport into the cell remains constant, what characteristic is being exemplified?
A)specificity
B)saturation
C)competition
Answer: B
Q2) Tight junctions
A) prevent passage of materials between epithelial cells.
B) force materials to pass through cells.
C) are commonly found in digestive tract linings.
D) all of these answers.
E) none of these answers.
Answer: D
Q3) Active transport is a kind of ____________________ transport.
Answer: carrier-mediated
Q4) ____________ are found primarily in sheets of epithelial tissue.
Answer: Tight junctions
Q5) ____________________ is a positive ion that tends to leak into cells.
Answer: sodium
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Chapter 4: Principles of Neural and Hormonal Communication
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Q1) Neurohormones are hormones that specifically modify neural activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Duration of action is brief (milliseconds).
A)applies to the endocrine system
B)applies to the nervous system
C)applies to both the endocrine and nervous systems
Q3) Most endocrine control systems involve ____________________ and hormonal components.
Q4) Describe the electrical events that occur during the rising and falling phase of an action potential.
Q5) Lipophilic (hydrophobic) hormones circulate in the blood largely bound to plasma proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q6) large: 2 to 40 amino acids in length
A)applies to classical neurotransmitters
B)applies to neuropeptides
C)applies to both classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides
D)applies to neither classical neurotransmitters nor neuropeptides Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Central Nervous System
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Q1) The dura mater is the fragile, innermost meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The motor cortex on the frontal lobe is not the only brain region involved in motor control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Initially process somesthetic sensation and proprioception.
A)occipital lobes
B)temporal lobes
C)parietal lobes
D)frontal lobes
Q4) Contain primary motor cortex.
A)occipital lobes
B)temporal lobes
C)parietal lobes
D)frontal lobes
Q5) ____________________ are the glial cells that induce anatomical changes in blood vessels.
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Chapter 6: The Peripheral Nervous System: Afferent Division and Special Senses
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Q1) Describe the phototransduction process.
Q2) A concave lens is used to correct for a myopic eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On average we lose 10% of our cochlear hair cells by the age of 65.
A)True
B)False
Q4) iris
Q5) Which of the following statements concerning cones is incorrect?
A) cones are used for day vision.
B) cones are very sensitive to light.
C) cones exhibit high acuity.
D) cones are concentrated in the fovea.
E) cones provide color vision.
Q6) Vestibular information is important for all of the following except
A) hearing.
B) maintenance of balance and desired posture.
C) control of eye movement.
D) perception of motion and orientation.
E) none of these answers.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: The Peripheral Nervous System: Efferent Division
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Q1) An EPP is a graded potential.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________ is a modified sympathetic ganglion that does not give rise to postganglionic fibers but instead secretes hormones similar or identical to sympathetic postganglionic neurotransmitters into the blood.
Q3) Predominates in relaxed situations.
A)sympathetic nervous system
B)parasympathetic nervous system
C)both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
D)somatic system
Q4) constricts digestive sphincters
A)the parasympathetic division
B)the sympathetic division
C)both parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions
Q5) Sympathetic activity stimulates the secretion of ____________________ from the pancreas.
Q6) Parasympathetic fibers arise from cranial nerves ______, _______, _______, and _______. (give numbers of the nerves) .
Page 11
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Chapter 8: Muscle Physiology
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Q1) Single-unit smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are both self-excitable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The immediate source for supplying additional ATP at the onset of exercise is ____________________.
Q3) Joins adjacent sarcomeres together.
A)Z line
B)A band
C)I band
D)H zone
Q4) Alpha motor neuron output to regular skeletal muscle fiber
A)Step 1
B)Step 2
C)Step 3
D)Step 4
Q5) Acetylcholinesterase has ATPase activity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If a muscle cell is excited ____________________ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Page 12
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Physiology
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Q1) The cardiac output is equal to
A) the difference between the end-diastolic volume (EDV) and the end-systolic volume (ESV) x HR.
B) the product of heart rate and EDV.
C) the difference between the stroke. volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise.
D) the stroke volume less the end-systolic volume.
E) the product of heart rate and blood pressure.
Q2) Associated with AV valves
A)gap junction
B)funny channels
C)functional syncytium
D)EDV
E)papillary muscles
F)second heart sound
Q3) Arteries carry blood away from the ventricles whereas veins carry blood toward the atria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) right ventricle
Page 13
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Chapter 10: The Blood Vessels and Blood Pressure
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Q1) As the total cross-sectional area of the vascular tree ____, the velocity of blood flow
A) increases, decreases
B) increases, increases
C) decreases, decreases
D) increases, remains constant
E) decreases, remains constant
Q2) decreased O<sub>2</sub> in skeletal muscle
A)would produce arteriolar vasoconstriction
B)would produce arteriolar vasodilation
C)would not cause any change in arteriolar caliber
Q3) What is the pulse pressure?
A)118 mm Hg
B)42 mm Hg
C)97 mm Hg
D)76 mm Hg
E)90 mm Hg
Q4) The process of ____________________ is responsible for determining the distribution of the extracellular fluid volume between the plasma and interstitial fluid.
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Chapter 11: The Blood and Body Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following is not accomplished by a chemical released from activated phagocytes?
A) decreasing plasma iron so that it is unavailable for bacterial multiplication.
B) stimulating histamine release from mast cells.
C) stimulating the synthesis of viral-blocking enzymes.
D) inducing the development of fever.
E) stimulating granulopoiesis.
Q2) Are the most numerous of the T cells.
A)applies to cytotoxic T cells
B)applies to helper T cells
C)applies to regulatory T cells
D)applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells
E)applies to all three types of T cells
Q3) Secrete macrophage-migration inhibition factor.
A)applies to cytotoxic T cells
B)applies to helper T cells
C)applies to regulatory T cells
D)applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells
E)applies to all three types of T cells
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Chapter 12: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning pulmonary surfactant is incorrect?
A) pulmonary surfactant is secreted by Type II alveolar cells.
B) pulmonary surfactant is deficient in newborn respiratory distress syndrome.
C) pulmonary surfactant promotes elastic recoil of the lungs.
D) the cohesive force between a water molecule and an adjacent pulmonary surfactant molecule is much lower than the cohesive force between two adjacent water molecules.
E) pulmonary surfactant reduces surface tension.
Q2) The partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary veins
A) is about 100 mmHg.
B) equivalent to alveolar partial pressure.
C) is dramatically different than pulmonary arteries' partial pressure
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) At the end of inspiration and at the end of expiration, intrapleural pressure is always equal to atmospheric pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In addition to providing for gas exchange what are the other functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 13: The Urinary System
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Q1) glomerular filtration
A)Collecting tubules empty into this structure.
B)Stores the urine.
C)Passage of substances from the peritubular into the tubular lumen.
D)When dilated leads to an increase in GFR.
E)Tuft of capillaries found in close approximation to the Bowman's capsule.
F)Function of the glomerulus.
G)Urine is forced through this structure by peristalsis.
H)Collects the glomerular filtrate.
I)Passage of substances from the tubular lumen into the peritubular capillaries.
J)Functional unit of the kidney.
K)Supplies the renal tissue with O<sub>2</sub> and nutrients.
L)Carries blood from glomerulus into peritubular capillaries.
M)Tube through which urine leaves the body.
N)Variable water and sodium reabsorption occur here under hormonal control.
O)Responsible for the vertical osmotic gradient in the medulla of the kidney.
P)Glucose and amino acid reabsorption occur here.
Q2) angiotensin II
Q3) ____________________ renal failure has a rapid onset but may be reversible; ____________________ renal failure is slow, progressive, and irreversible.
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Chapter 14: Fluid and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) pneumonia
A)respiratory acidosis
B)respiratory alkalosis
C)metabolic acidosis
D)metabolic alkalosis
Q2) During respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis
A) breathing becomes shallower.
B) breathing becomes slower.
C) CO<sub>2</sub> levels in the body decrease.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (b) and (c) above.
Q3) The only cause of hypotonicity is drinking excess fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which factor is controlled by vasopressin?
A) ECF volume
B) ECF osmolarity
C) maintenance of free water balance
D) both (a) and (b)
E) both (b) and (c)
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Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Q1) In general, the parasympathetic nervous system is ____________________ to the digestive tract, whereas the sympathetic nervous system is
Q2) Which statement regarding control of digestive processes is incorrect?
A) short reflexes influence motility and secretion in localized areas.
B) all elements of the short reflexes are contained within the digestive organ's wall.
C) hormones play a role.
D) osmoreceptors monitor the acidity of the luminal contents.
E) there are stretch receptors in the walls of digestive organs.
Q3) Bilirubin does not play a role in digestion but is a waste products excreted in the bile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) responsible for establishing the rate of rhythmic contractility
A)autonomous smooth muscle function
B)extrinsic (autonomic) nerves
C)hormones
D)intrinsic nerve plexuses
Q5) Describe the defecation reflex.
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Chapter 16: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) An elevation in body temperature due to reasons other than an infection is known as ____________________.
Q2) The appetite centers stimulate feeding behavior, whereas the satiety centers inhibit feeding behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There is an obligatory increase in metabolic rate resulting from food intake.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The major means of decreasing heat loss in response to a cold environmental temperature is
A) skin vasoconstriction.
B) skin vasodilation.
C) increasing the temperature gradient between the skin and environment.
D) formation of "goose bumps."
E) shivering.
Q5) Compare and contrasts the various means by which the body loses and gains heat to/from the environment.
Q6) The unit of heat energy used in energy balance is the ____________________.
Page 20
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) In response to stress, the hypothalamus secretes ____________________ which ultimately results in cortisol secretion.
Q2) Which cells produce growth hormone?
A) somatotropes
B) thryrotropes
C) corticotropes
D) gonadotropes
E) lactotropes
Q3) Aldosterone and cortisol are both considered to be essential for life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One I attached to tyrosine yields ____________________ whereas the addition of two I atoms to tyrosine forms ____________________.
Q5) LH stimulates the
A) cells that destroy the cells of Leydig.
B) enlargement of the follicles.
C) development of the hypothalamus.
D) formation of the corpus luteum.
E) water balance in the kidney.
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Chapter 18: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The externally visible portions of the reproductive system are referred to as ____________________.
Q2) If errors in sexual differentiation occurs, a genetic female can take on male anatomical structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The second meiotic division occurs within the ovary before ovulation takes place.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sperm cells are stored for maturation in the A) anterior pituitary.
B) ductus deferens.
C) epididymis.
D) Leydig cells.
E) urethra.
Q5) Describe the events associated with fertilization and early development.
Q6) The ____________________ cells, or cells of Leydig, produce testosterone.
Q7) _________ the milk produced for the first five days postpartum
Q8) Discuss the hormonal control of milk production and ejection.
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