Introduction to Human Development Test
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development of individuals from conception through late adulthood. The course examines key theories and research findings that shape contemporary understanding of human growth and change. Topics include prenatal development, childhood milestones, adolescence, adulthood, aging, and the influence of family, culture, and society on development. Through an interdisciplinary lens, students gain insight into how biological, psychological, and environmental factors interact to influence human behavior and lifelong development.
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HDEV 5th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of operant conditioning?
A) It occurs as a result of innate processes.
B) It occurs as a result of the effects a behavior causes.
C) It occurs because of the mental evaluation of a situation.
D) It occurs because of the pairing of two stimuli to produce a response.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is true of a control group?
A) It consists of randomly selected subjects who receive treatment in an experiment.
B) It is involved in the frequent manipulation of all conditions in an experiment.
C) It consists of those subjects who do not receive treatment in an experiment.
D) It is involved in only correlational research in an experiment.
Answer: C
Q3) During prenatal development, genes and sex hormones are responsible for the physical development of female and male sex organs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Color blindness is a sex-linked abnormality.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Describe the symptoms and conditions of a child with Down's syndrome.
Answer: Answers will vary. Down's syndrome is usually caused by an extra chromosome on the 21st pair, resulting in 47 chromosomes. The probability of having a child with Down's syndrome increases with the age of the parents. People with Down's syndrome have characteristic features that include a rounded face, a protruding tongue, a broad, flat nose, and a sloping fold of skin over the inner corners of the eyes. They show deficits in cognitive development and motor development and usually die from cardiovascular problems by middle age, although modern medicine has extended life appreciably.
Q3) Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________percent of their genes.
A) 100
B) 75
C) 50
D) 25
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the possible psychological problems that may affect a mother following delivery.
Answer: Answers will vary. About one woman in seven or eight experiences depression or anxiety post-partum. Major depression with perinatal onset (previously termed postpartum depression or PPD) is a serious mood disorder that begins about a month after delivery and may linger for weeks or months. Major depression with perinatal onset is characterized by serious sadness, feelings of hopelessness, helplessness, and worthlessness, difficulty concentrating, mood swings, and major changes in appetite (usually loss of appetite) and sleep patterns (frequently insomnia). Some women show obsessive concern with the well-being of their babies, which is also a sign of postpartum anxiety.
Q2) _____ infants in the United States die each year of sudden infant death syndrome.
A) 2-3
B) 100-2,002
C) 2,000-3,000
D) 2,00,000-3,00,000
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the development of hearing in neonates.
Q2) Maggie, an infant, is holding a toy clumsily, using only her fingers and palm. This is an example of _____.
A) a pincer grasp
B) canalization
C) an ulnar grasp
D) habituation
Q3) Define perceptual constancy. Briefly explain size constancy and shape constancy in infants.
Q4) The medulla refers to an area in the front part of the brain and is responsible for higher-level thinking and memory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The brain regulates the growth and development of the body and influences basic drives, such as hunger and thirst, through the _____.
A) Moro reflex
B) generation of amniotic fluid
C) secretion of hormones
D) Babinski reflex
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Q1) Lauren learns what a fish looks like from a book. Her mother buys her a goldfish which she keeps in a fishbowl. She then learns that fish swim in water. Lauren tries to incorporate this new event into her scheme of fish. This is an example of _____.
A) divergence
B) assimilation
C) differentiation
D) conditioning
Q2) Erica is a two-year-old girl. She sees an owl for the first time and asks her mother what it is, and her mother replies that "it is an owl." Now, every time Erica sees a bird she calls it an "ool." This process is called _____.
A) deferred imitation
B) overextension
C) habituation
D) canalization
Q3) Discuss the Bayley scales.
Q4) Discuss object permanence in neonates.
Q5) Explain the nativist view of language development.
Q6) In the context of infants, briefly explain overextension.
Q7) Why are infants tested? Name a few scales used for testing infants.
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) According to studies by Hines and Zelazo in 2013, infant girls and boys:
A) are unlikely to smile at people's faces.
B) do not show the Babinski reflex.
C) do not differ in their dependency on adults.
D) differ in their social behaviors.
Q2) The _____ phase of attachment lasts from birth to about three months.
A) insecure
B) attachment-in-the-making
C) initial-preattachment
D) clear-cut-attachment
Q3) What are the different causes of autism?
Q4) The Strange Situation method assesses:
A) how an infant responds when his or her mother leaves and when she comes back.
B) how a child recovers after being abused by an unknown adult.
C) problem-solving skills in infants.
D) a neonate's physical health.
Q5) What are some of the techniques used to prevent child abuse?
Q6) Why is it important for children to have a stable temperament?
Q7) Discuss the treatments for autism.
Q8) Discuss the causes of child abuse.
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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurological factors that enable _____ include the growth of new dendrites and redundancy of neural connections.
A) elasticity
B) plasticity
C) handedness
D) enuresis
Q2) _________refers to a process of quickly determining a word's meaning, which facilitates children's vocabulary development.
A) Fast mapping
B) Rehearsal
C) Pragmatics
D) Scaffolding
Q3) In the context of a theory of mind, describe appearance-reality distinction.
Q4) In right-handed individuals, the left hemisphere of the brain is relatively more involved in _____ functions.
A) problem-solving
B) visual-spatial
C) aesthetic
D) emotional
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes prosocial behavior?
A) It refers to the participation in illegal behavior by minors.
B) It is behavior that is intended to hurt or injure another person.
C) It is behavior that is intended to benefit other people without expectation of reward.
D) It is behavior that is intended to inhibit aggressive thoughts and behavior amongst other people.
Q2) A difference between preschool boys and preschool girls is that preschool boys:
A) engage in less rough-and-tumble play than girls.
B) show somewhat greater verbal ability than girls.
C) show somewhat greater visual-spatial ability than girls.
D) tend to show more empathy and to report more fears than girls.
Q3) Permissive-indulgent parents are high in their attempts to control their children and in their demands for mature behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Preoperational children tend to be able to see things from the vantage point of others.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Children in the concrete operational period of development can focus on more than one dimension of a problem at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Provide a brief account on the development of metacognition in children.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of concrete-operational children?
A) They are more egocentric than preoperational children.
B) They have the decentration capacity to allow them to seriate in two dimensions.
C) They fail to understand the principles of conservation and class inclusion.
D) They focus on intangible ideas instead of tangible objects.
Q4) A _____ is a drug that increases the activity of the nervous system.
A) stimulant
B) depressant
C) hallucinogen
D) tranquillant
Q5) The ability to focus one's attention and screen out distractions advances steadily through middle childhood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Separation anxiety disorder usually becomes a significant problem in middle childhood because that is when children are expected to adjust to school.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Andrew is a 10-year-old boy. His parents often scold and humiliate him. They also expect Andrew to obey strict rules without asking questions. In this scenario, Andrew is most likely to have _____.
A) no emotional quotient
B) confidence in his abilities
C) low self-esteem
D) positive self-concepts
Q3) Robert Selman described five stages in children's changing concepts of friendship. In the _________stage, friends are viewed as doing things for one another, but the focus remains on self-interest.
A) autonomous interdependence
B) momentary physical interaction
C) fair-weather cooperation
D) one-way assistance
Q4) How does one's self-esteem change during middle childhood?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) At puberty, the _________stimulates the testes to increase their output of testosterone, leading to further development of the male genitals.
A) pancreas
B) hypothalamus
C) mammary gland
D) pituitary gland
Q2) In the context of adolescent development, which of the following statements is true of junior high school?
A) Teachers in junior high typically allow less student input and exert more control than teachers in elementary school.
B) The transition to junior high involves a shift from a larger elementary school to a smaller, more personal setting.
C) The transition to junior high involves a new school with less students and one teacher for all subjects.
D) The transition from elementary school typically appears to be more difficult for boys than girls.
Q3) Explain the personal fable in reference to adolescent egocentrism.
Q4) Describe anorexia nervosa.
13
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) For offenses such as _____, adolescents are likely to be accused of being involved in illegal matters, while adults are unlikely to be held guilty.
A) marital rape
B) sexual promiscuity
C) robbery
D) kidnapping
Q2) In the context of the identity statuses theorized by James Marcia, the stage of identity achievement is characterized by individuals who:
A) have high self-esteem and self-acceptance.
B) have made unsuitable career commitments without exploring any alternatives.
C) have no firm commitments.
D) are rebellious.
Q3) Which of the following statuses is characteristic of younger adolescents and of older adolescents who drift through life or become alienated and rebellious?
A) Moratorium
B) Generativity
C) Identity diffusion
D) Ego integrity
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, adults 18 and older need at least 90 minutes of vigorous physical activity seven days a week.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sexual activity:
A) occurs less often in early adulthood than in late adulthood.
B) is more commonly reported by men than by women.
C) with a partner usually peaks in the 20s.
D) with a partner usually peaks in middle adulthood.
Q3) Explain Labouvie-Vief's theory of pragmatic thought.
Q4) Patricia is the HR manager at a software firm. She is good at her work and is appreciated by her employers. This recognition and respect for her work that she receives inspires her to perform better. Which of the following is the primary intrinsic motive that inspires Patricia to perform better at work?
A) Socialization
B) Public roles
C) The work-ethic
D) Self-worth
Q5) Describe substance use and abuse in early adulthood.
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loneliness decreases from childhood to adolescence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Evan is an attractive, young man who has chosen to remain single. He is afraid of dating and relationships as he believes having sex would lead to sexually transmitted infections. Evan is practicing _____.
A) celibacy
B) polyandry
C) monogamy
D) homogamy
Q3) George and Lucy are married, and they are committed to each other. Their marriage best illustrates _____.
A) polyandry
B) monogamy
C) polygyny
D) bigamy
Q4) Briefly describe Sternberg's triangular theory of love.
Q5) Lonely people tend to disclose personal information to potential friends. A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a measure of the health of the heart?
A) A baseline electrocardiogram
B) A digital rectal exam
C) A mammogram
D) A baseline electroencephalogram
Q2) The body responds to the presence of antigens by:
A) producing more insulin through the pancreas.
B) burning fewer calories than usual.
C) coordinating appropriate muscular responses.
D) generating specialized proteins, or antibodies.
Q3) Who among the following middle-aged individuals is most likely suffering from atherosclerosis?
A) Rebecca, who experiences night sweats and hot flushes.
B) Jane, whose doctor tells her that there is a buildup of plaque in the lining of her arteries.
C) Judy, whose doctor tells her that she is vulnerable to fractures because of her declining bone density.
D) Lisa, who feels feverish after she accidentally cuts her finger with a knife.
Q4) Does stress influence immunity levels in human beings?
Q5) Describe learning among people of middle adult age.
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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, which of the following is true of stagnation in middle adulthood?
A) At this stage, adults reject their natural drive to bear children.
B) At this stage, adults lose the drive to work.
C) At this stage, adults experience a sudden shift in personality.
D) At this stage, adults lose the drive to live.
Q2) In the context of scales used to assess development of personality in women from young adulthood through late adulthood, which of the following themes assesses preoccupation with death?
A) Identity certainty
B) Confident power
C) Generativity
D) Concern with aging
Q3) Women are more likely than men not to have friends or other close social relationships during midlife.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the life-events approach to middle age.
Page 18
Q5) Briefly describe Daniel Levinson's seasons.
Q6) Discuss job satisfaction among middle-aged adults.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Presbycusis is caused by:
A) auditory nerve damage.
B) age-related degenerative changes in the ear.
C) syphilis.
D) excessive intake of medication containing aminoglycosides.
Q2) The three major causes of death of Americans age 65 and older are polio, arthritis, and diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Autobiographical memory is a type of:
A) explicit memory.
B) implicit memory.
C) prospective memory.
D) procedural memory.
Q4) Rampant diseases such as German measles, smallpox, polio, and diphtheria contribute to low life-expectancy rates today.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
Q5) In the context of late adulthood, discuss gender differences in life expectancy.
Q6) In the context of late adulthood, discuss life expectancy in the United States.
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Men who are widowed are more likely than women to form new relationships with people of the other gender because:
A) women, more so than men, make use of the web of kinship relations.
B) men usually tend to outlive women.
C) men may be more adept than women at various aspects of self-care.
D) women tend to become less social than men as they age.
Q2) Religion involves beliefs and practices centered on claims about the nature of reality and _________.
A) moral behavior
B) materialism
C) social dominance
D) egotism
Q3) What is selective optimization with compensation?
Q4) Data from Dutch and American retirees found that _________tends to impede adjustment to retirement.
A) social interaction
B) a lengthy attachment to work
C) extensive retirement planning
D) high self-esteem
Page 22
Q5) In the context of late adulthood, discuss the validity of disengagement theory.
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Q1) According to theorists of social and emotional development in late adulthood, _________is likely to help some older adults face the reality of their impending death.
A) ego preoccupation
B) ego transcendence
C) body preoccupation
D) role diffusion
Q2) In the study conducted by Paul Maciejewski and his colleagues to test Jacobs' stage theory, which of the following stages of grief was nonexistent at the outset?
A) Acceptance
B) Disbelief
C) Sorrow
D) Shocked numbness
Q3) To support people who are dying, it is a good practice to minimize the dying person's emotional pain by changing the subject.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the first steps to be taken after a person's death.
Q5) Discuss the emotional state of grief.
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