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Introduction to Human Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur throughout the human lifespan, from conception to old age. Students will examine major theories and research findings in developmental psychology, gaining insight into how individuals grow and adapt at different life stages. The course covers topics such as prenatal development, childhood and adolescent growth, adulthood, aging, and the roles of family, culture, and environment in shaping human development. Through case studies and discussions, students will gain a foundational understanding of the factors that influence development and the implications for supporting healthy growth across the lifespan.
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HDEV 5th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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Q1) Strong arguments or reference to authority figures are commonly used as scientific evidence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Extinction results from repeated performance of operant behavior without reinforcement
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) During the Middle Ages, children were nurtured until they were seven years old, which was considered the "age of reason."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Independent variables are manipulated by experimenters.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) According to a survey by Adhikari and Liu in the year 2013, at birth, women have:
A) close to 100,000 ova.
B) around 300,000 to 400,000 ova.
C) around 100 to 200 ova.
D) only 500 ova.
Answer: B
Q2) Discuss the cause of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
Answer: Answers will vary. Alcohol passes through the placenta, and drinking by a pregnant woman poses risks for the embryo and fetus. Heavy drinking can be lethal and is also connected with deficiencies and deformities in growth. Some children of heavy drinkers develop fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) (Connor et al., 2006; see Figure 2.12 Figure 2.12). Babies with FAS are often smaller than normal, and so are their brains. They have distinct facial features: widely spaced eyes, an underdeveloped upper jaw, and a flattened nose. Psychological characteristics appear to reflect dysfunction of the brain.
Q3) Typical human cells contain 50 chromosomes organized into 25 pairs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Do infants' cries mean different things? Explain briefly.
Answer: Answers will vary. Infants' cries mean many things. They may signal hunger, pain, anger, and the like. The pitch of an infant's cries appears to provide information (Out et al., 2010). Adults perceive high-pitched crying to be more urgent, distressing, and sick sounding than low-pitched crying (Out et al., 2010; Zeifman, 2004). A sudden, loud, insistent cry associated with flexing and kicking of the legs may indicate colic, that is, pain resulting from gas or other sources of distress in the digestive tract. Certain high-pitched cries, when prolonged, may signify health problems. The cries of chronically distressed infants differ from those of nondistressed infants in both rhythm and pitch. Patterns of crying may be indicative of chromosomal abnormalities, infections, fetal malnutrition, and exposure to narcotics (Douglas & Hill, 2011).
Q2) With a pudendal block, anesthesia is injected into the spinal cord, temporarily numbing the entire body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Infants' brains are different from adults' brains in that infants' brains:
A) have more connections among neurons than adults' brains do.
B) comprise a significantly smaller percentage of the body size.
C) completely comprise non-myelinated neurons.
D) have around 300 billion neurons.
Q2) _________can be up to several feet in length if it is carrying messages from the toes to the spine.
A) A neurotransmitter
B) An axon
C) A dendrite
D) The amygdala
Q3) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, infants should be fed breast milk:
A) only for the first two weeks.
B) only for the first six months.
C) for at least four years.
D) for at least one year.
Q4) Briefly explain proximodistal development in infants.
Q5) Describe the benefits and problems associated with breast-feeding.
Q6) Discuss failure to thrive syndrome in infants.
Page 6
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Q1) Discuss the critical period for language acquisition in children.
Q2) Erica is a two-year-old girl. She sees an owl for the first time and asks her mother what it is, and her mother replies that "it is an owl." Now, every time Erica sees a bird she calls it an "ool." This process is called _____.
A) deferred imitation
B) overextension
C) habituation
D) canalization
Q3) Infants tend to repeat stimulating actions that first occurred by chance. In the context of Piaget's stages of development, this is an example of a _________that focuses on an infant's own body rather than on the external environment.
A) primary circular reaction
B) secondary circular reaction
C) tertiary circular reaction
D) simple reflex
Q4) Discuss the various structures of the brain that are involved in language development.
Q5) In the context of infants, briefly explain overextension.
Q6) Discuss the importance of observation and imitation in an infant's development.
Page 7
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Q1) Research indicates that children in day care:
A) are less independent, self-confident, and outgoing than children who do not attend day care.
B) show better academic performance in elementary school than children who do not attend day care.
C) are less aggressive than children who do not attend day care.
D) physically grow slower than children not placed in day care.
Q2) Abused children show a low incidence of personal and social problems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Differentiate between the behavior of infant girls and boys.
Q4) Who among the following infants is a victim of educational neglect?
A) Amin, who regularly skips school four days a week and his parents are fine with it
B) Mia, who gets bullied by her classmates every day and her teachers are fine with it
C) Wendy, who is regularly punished by her teacher
D) Kathy, who consistently scores low grades in mathematics
Q5) What are the different forms of autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)?
Q6) Discuss some of the adverse effects of child abuse.
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Q1) Sleep terrors differ from nightmares in that:
A) nightmares are more frightening.
B) sleep terrors occur during rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep.
C) nightmares are usually outgrown.
D) sleep terrors occur during a deeper sleep stage.
Q2) A parent who demonstrates to a child how to tie his or her shoes and then gradually turns over the responsibility of the task to the child is exhibiting _________.
A) cognitive scaffolding
B) cognitive centration
C) cognitive attachment
D) cognitive conservation
Q3) Which of the following is true of sleep terrors?
A) They are outgrown by early adolescence.
B) They wane as children develop.
C) They occur during lighter rapid-eye-movement sleep.
D) They are less severe than nightmares.
Q4) Provide a brief account of enuresis.
Q5) Explain the concept of conservation and centration in the context of cognitive development of a preoperational child.
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Q1) Firstborn children:
A) are more highly motivated to achieve than later-born children.
B) show lesser anxiety levels than later-born children.
C) act more aggressively compared to younger siblings.
D) tend to be somewhat more rebellious and liberal than later-born children.
Q2) Discuss the influence of siblings in early childhood.
Q3) Robin, an infant, is given a rattle. He shakes his rattle and giggles. He repeats this action a couple of times. It is evident that Robin is engaged in _____.
A) functional play
B) symbolic play
C) constructive play
D) formal play
Q4) Warm parents:
A) are likely to impose unreasonable rules and to watch their children closely.
B) are more likely than cold parents to complain about their children's behavior.
C) tend to hug and kiss their children and smile at them frequently.
D) enjoy being with their children but do not communicate their feelings to them.
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Q1) Which of the following is a factor hypothesized to be present in intelligence tests that provides an advantage for test takers from certain cultural backgrounds?
A) Cultural bias
B) Cultural heritability
C) Cultural hypocrisy
D) Cultural transitivity
Q2) Bilingual children have less cognitive flexibility than monolingual children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the phonetic method of teaching.
Q4) Dyslexia is a reading disorder characterized by letter reversals, mirror reading, slow reading, and reduced comprehension.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Write a brief note about creativity.
Q6) Provide a brief account on the development of metacognition in children.
Q7) Decentration refers to the principle that if A > B and B > C, then A > C.
A)True
B)False
11
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Q1) According to social cognitive theory, in middle childhood, children: A) concentrate on external traits and not on abstract internal traits.
B) are exposed to an increasing variety of models.
C) fail to regulate their own behavior.
D) depend more on external rewards and punishments.
Q2) In the context of middle childhood, discuss the advantages and disadvantages of maternal employment.
Q3) Roger was born a boy, but he feels trapped in the male body and longs to be a girl. He likes and engages in feminine activities like dressing up and applying makeup. He is considering undergoing sex reassignment surgery and plastic surgery to become a girl. Roger belongs to the category of _____.
A) homosexual people
B) transgendered people
C) heterosexual people
D) bisexual people
Q4) Describe the influences of schools on child development in middle childhood.
Q5) Most children live with their mothers after a divorce.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss sexism is schools.

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Q1) _________include alcohol, narcotics derived from the opium poppy (such as heroin, morphine, and codeine), and sedatives (such as barbiturates and methaqualone).
A) Stimulants
B) Depressants
C) Hallucinogenics
D) Amphetamines
Q2) According to a study by Vroman in 2010, unlike early-maturing boys, late-maturing boys are:
A) less likely to get involved in substance abuse than early-maturing boys.
B) more dependent and insecure than early-maturing boys.
C) more aggressive and delinquent than early-maturing boys.
D) more poised, relaxed, and good-natured than early-maturing boys.
Q3) Substance abuse is the leading cause of death in the United States for adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the concepts of asynchronous growth and the secular trend.
Q5) Discuss the use of stimulant drugs among adolescents.
Q6) Discuss the use of symbols among adolescents.
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Q1) Who among the following is most likely a bisexual?
A) Matt, a man who is not sexually aroused by women but fantasizes about being sexually intimate with his male colleague, John
B) Dave, a commitment-phobic young man who has been sexually intimate with several women in his life
C) Jacob, a man who is confused about his sexual identity and feels that he might be a woman trapped in a man's body
D) James, a young man who is sexually intimate with his girlfriend Elaine as well as with his neighbor Mark, an older male
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of adolescents?
A) During adolescence, parents are viewed as providing more support than same-gender friends.
B) Most adolescents feel that they are close to and get along with their parents.
C) Adolescents respond best to the authoritarian style of parenting.
D) Adolescents tend to develop an idealized view of their parents.
Q3) Describe Erik Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development.
Q4) Discuss the risk factors in suicide among adolescents.
Q5) Discuss the consequences of sexting.
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Q1) Jessica's manager Kevin behaves in an inappropriate manner. He often cracks unwelcome adult jokes. Kevin also leers at Jessica's body and passes suggestive comments. Jessica is experiencing _____ at her workplace.
A) racial discrimination
B) red-tapeism
C) sexual harassment
D) the glass ceiling effect
Q2) The transmission of _____ can occur by touching an infectious chancre.
A) chlamydia
B) syphilis
C) genital herpes
D) gonorrhea
Q3) According to Donald Super, during the second or _________, from about 11 through high school, children base their choices on their interests, abilities, and limitations, as well as glamour.
A) fantasy stage
B) realistic choice stage
C) tentative choice stage
D) maintenance stage

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Q1) Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.
Q2) Discuss the cost of divorce.
Q3) Which of the following is a difference between romantic love and consummate love?
A) Romantic love is usually based on shared interests, liking, and respect, whereas consummate love refers to a state of passion or infatuation.
B) Romantic love typifies long-term relationships, whereas consummate love typifies short-term relationships.
C) Romantic love has both passion and intimacy but lacks commitment, whereas consummate love is a more complete form of love in which all three components flower.
D) Romantic love always burns brightly, whereas consummate love may burn brightly and then flicker out.
Q4) Cohabitors tend to be more traditional and more religious than noncohabitors.
A)True B)False
Q5) Loneliness decreases from childhood to adolescence.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The climacteric refers to the gradual decline in the reproductive capacity of the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _________refers to the research finding that IQ scores increased some 18 points in the United States between the years of 1947 and 2002.
A) Matthew effect
B) Flynn effect
C) Cohort effect
D) Streisand effect
Q3) Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis or hardening of the arteries, which impairs circulation and increases the risk of _____.
A) malignant tumors
B) benign tumors
C) an ulcer
D) a thrombus
Q4) Homicide and suicide are the leading causes of death in middle adulthood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss friendships during middle adulthood.
Q2) In terms of friends, which of the following is true of research carried out by Toni Antonucci and Kira Burditt in 2004?
A) Women without close social ties are significantly more depressed than men.
B) For women, social isolation is connected with mortality.
C) Women are more likely than men not to have friends.
D) For men, social isolation is connected with poorer physical and psychological health.
Q3) Most career changes in midlife involve shifts into related fields.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Conscientiousness increases dramatically from early adulthood and peaks during middle adulthood, followed by a decline during late adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Daniel Levinson and his colleagues, the years from 40 to 45 comprise a midlife transition.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Identify a correct statement about glaucoma.
A) Glaucoma shortens one's stature by inches.
B) Glaucoma rarely occurs before age 40.
C) Glaucoma cannot be treated either by surgery or medication.
D) Glaucoma causes curvature of the spine.
Q2) Samuel, a 75-year-old man, repeatedly wakes up during the night gasping for breath. This happens because he stops breathing while he's asleep. Samuel is most likely suffering from:
A) sleep apnea.
B) astigmatism.
C) sleepwalking.
D) lung collapse.
Q3) Which of the following is true of free radicals?
A) They are produced during metabolism by oxidation.
B) They elongate telomeres.
C) They loosen body proteins and tissues.
D) They accelerate the secretion of enzymes by the endocrine system.
Q4) Immunological theory is a cellular damage theory of aging.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _____ is the fear of open, crowded places.
A) Acarophobia
B) Acerophobia
C) Agoraphobia
D) Agraphobia
Q2) Among Robert Peck's three developmental tasks, _________means preparing in some way to go beyond the physical limitations of one's own life span.
A) ego disengagement
B) ego preoccupation
C) ego differentiation
D) ego transcendence
Q3) Active religious involvement in late adulthood:
A) reduces opportunities for social interactions.
B) ensures longevity.
C) is linked to life satisfaction.
D) is unlikely to help achieve ego integrity.
Q4) Discuss the incidence and causes of depression among people in the late adulthood stage of life.
Q5) In the context of late adulthood, discuss the validity of disengagement theory.
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Q1) In the case of older, retired adults, continuing with physical, leisure, and informal social activities are all associated with:
A) greater life satisfaction.
B) lower ego differentiation.
C) an acceleration in the effects of aging.
D) a low self-esteem.
Q2) In the context of a person's death, an autopsy may be performed:
A) if the death resulted from a genetic disorder.
B) in case the person died of a chronic disease.
C) if foul play is involved or suspected.
D) for the issue of the death certificate.
Q3) According to the stages of dying as hypothesized by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, which of the following stages is characterized by a person negotiating with God to postpone death?
A) Anger
B) Bargaining
C) Denial
D) Final acceptance
Q4) Discuss the boundaries between life and death.
Q5) Discuss the prevalence and benefits of hospice care in the United States.
Page 22
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