Introduction to Human Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology provides a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body, exploring key concepts in anatomy, physiology, genetics, and cellular biology. This course covers major biological systems including circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and reproductive systems with an emphasis on how they work together to maintain health. Students will develop scientific literacy in human biology, learn about homeostasis, and gain insights into current biological issues affecting human health and disease. The course is suitable for those new to the life sciences and serves as a basis for further study in biological and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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Chapter 1: Humans in the World of Biology
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Q1) A(n)________ involves drug testing on humans.
Answer: clinical trial
Q2) The smallest functional unit of life is known as a(n)________.
Answer: cell
Q3) ________ is the ability to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.
Answer: Homeostasis
Q4) A genetic trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment.
A)Adaptive trait
B)Ecosystem
C)Metabolism
D)Informed consent agreement
E)Hypothesis
F)Homeostasis
G)Theory
H)Critical thinking
I)Placebo
J)Epidemiologic studies
Answer: A
Q5) A community and its physical environment are often referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: ecosystem
3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes to Life
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Q1) A protein that speeds up chemical reactions without being consumed in the process is called a(n)________.
Answer: enzyme
Q2) The energy storing polysaccharide that can be found mainly in liver and muscle cells is called ________.
Answer: glycogen
Q3) ________ is the process of using water to break down polymers to their monomer subunits.
Answer: Hydrolysis
Q4) Based on your knowledge of the chemical composition of humans,your body would contain the largest amount of ________.
A)oxygen
B)potassium
C)sodium
D)phosphorous
Answer: A
Q5) A substance that,when disassociated in water,will give off hydrogen ions is referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: acid
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Chapter 3: The Cell
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Q1) Proteins are processed and packaged in the organelle known as the ________. Answer: Golgi complex
Q2) The organelle known as the ________ makes phospholipids.
Answer: smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) ________ is the ingestion of large molecules and foreign substances through the phospholipid membrane.
Answer: Endocytosis
Q4) You have a bacterial infection.Your immune system will be able to distinguish this foreign invader from other cells by ________.
A)recognizing cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)
B)finding glycolipids on the plasma membrane
C)identifying glycoproteins on the plasma membrane
D)determining the presence or absence of a nucleus
Answer: C
Q5) Which of the following is found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
A)ribosomes
B)endoplasmic reticulum
C)nucleus
D)mitochondria
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Body Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) A group of organs in the body that have a common function would make up a(n)________.
A)organism
B)brain
C)organ system
D)tissue
Q2) ________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes that gives skin its color.
Q3) The flattened or scale-like cells that line the blood vessels are known as ________ epithelium.
Q4) Sarah loved to run in the dry desert town of Needles,CA.However,when she moved to Mobile,AL,on the coast of the Gulf of Mexico,she was surprised that when she went out for a jog at 91 F (33 C),she developed dizziness and confusion sooner than she had in the desert at the same temperature.She is probably is suffering from ________.
A)hypothermia
B)hypothalamus
C)homeostasis
D)hyperthermia
Q5) The least common type of skin cancer mentioned in the text,but the one that must be taken most seriously,is ________.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Q1) Forensic scientists may have to identify an adult victim who was lost in the wilderness years ago from the remains found by a hiker.What type of evidence from the bones would they look for to determine the age of the person?
A)the size of the bones and the condition of the growth plate
B)the number of bones
C)They look to see if any bones were broken, because the bones of the elderly break easily.
D)Not much can be told from just the bones to determine age.
Q2) Vertebrae in the lower back region just above the sacral region.
A)Carpals
B)Osteoclasts
C)Femur
D)Lumbar
E)Sacrum
F)Humerus
G)Tarsals
H)Metatarsals
I)Osteoblasts
J)Foramen magnum
K)Temporal
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Q1) What is the result of resistance exercise?
A)Existing muscle cells increase in diameter.
B)The number of muscle cells increases.
C)More mitochondria develop.
D)New blood vessels develop.
Q2) The muscle that extends and rotates the thigh when walking is called the ________.
Q3) How do calcium ions affect muscle contractions?
Q4) The arrangement of muscles so that the action of one muscle is opposite to that of its partner is referred to as ________.
A)synergistic
B)antagonistic
C)dual
D)insertion
Q5) During muscle contraction the heads of myosin filaments pull actin filaments toward the center of a ________.
Q6) Turkey is often served at Thanksgiving meals in which family members vie for portions of white or dark meat.Why is the breast meat of a turkey considered white meat,while the darker meat is found in the leg muscles?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Neurons: the Matter of the Mind
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Q1) What is the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
Q2) Ahmad might have been accidentally exposed to an insecticide while he worked in a citrus grove.What symptoms of poisoning would you watch for?
A)depression
B)Alzheimer's disease
C)muscle tremors
D)excessive urination
Q3) The ________ can be defined as the specific value a membrane depolarization reaches to begin an action potential.
Q4) Sodium and potassium ions cross the neuron's membrane to cause which of the following physiological processes?
A)action potential
B)passive transport
C)refractory period
D)transmission
Q5) ________ involves an insufficient amount of several neurotransmitters,such as serotonin,dopamine,and norepinephrine,for extended periods of time.
Q6) During an action potential,the ________ ions rush into the axon.
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Q1) Charles is comatose.What part of his brain is not working properly?
A)limbic system
B)reticular activating system
C)corpus callosum
D)amygdala
Q2) The ________ of the cerebral cortex sends messages to the skeletal muscles in order to control voluntary movement.
Q3) Shawfiq must have a benign tumor removed from his brain.The surgeon tells him that only local anesthesia will be administered as she cuts through Shawfiq's scalp,and that he will remain conscious the whole time.Shawfiq is really nervous about this because the brain seems to be a very sensitive area to have surgery on,particularly while he is wide awake.Explain to him why he shouldn't be so nervous.
Q4) Which of these structures is located under the cerebral hemispheres and is important in sensory experience,motor activity,stimulation of the cerebral cortex,and memory?
A)hypothalamus
B)thalamus
C)pons
D)cerebellum
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Chapter 9: Sensory Systems
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Q1) You spot your friend Enrique and yell to get his attention but he can't hear you.As you get closer to him,you clearly hear loud music coming from his headphones.What should you warn him about?
Q2) The shape of the lens of the eye can be changed to allow focusing on certain objects at different distances from the head.The structure that produces this shape change is the ________.
A)eyelid muscle
B)ciliary body
C)extrinsic muscle
D)papillary muscle
Q3) Which of these structures forms the channel that sound travels through to reach the eardrum?
A)auditory tube
B)external auditory canal
C)malleus
D)incus
Q4) If light strikes a photopigment,the photoreceptor cell will decrease the amount of ________ it is releasing.
Q5) Sensory receptors respond to changes in the environment called ________.
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Q1) An autoimmune disorder caused by the overproduction of thyroid hormone; it is characterized by increased metabolic rate and heart rate.
A)Myxedema
B)Addison's disease
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Adrenal medulla
E)Grave's disease
F)Cushing's syndrome
G)Cretinism
H)Diabetes mellitus
I)Acromegaly
Q2) In males,the primary source of estrogens is the ________.
A)hypothalamus
B)heart
C)adrenal cortex
D)ovaries
Q3) An injection of the pancreatic hormone ________ would cause blood glucose levels to fall.
Q4) Prostaglandins may act as local signaling molecules in the uterus,causing
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Chapter 11: Blood
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Q1) Neonatal jaundice is caused when a baby is born and the liver is not working fully to remove a particular waste product.Treatment involves placing the infant under a blue light,which reacts with the waste product and converts it to a form that the kidney can excrete.What is this waste product called?
A)hemoglobin
B)erythropoietin
C)oxyhemoglobin
D)bilirubin
Q2) Which of the following is a genetic disorder in which a person bleeds excessively because they have a faulty gene for a clotting factor?
A)cri-du-chat
B)Down syndrome
C)hemophilia
D)color blindness
Q3) ________ is the group of white blood cells that lacks visible granules in the cytoplasm.Included in this group are monocytes and lymphocytes.
Q4) The ________,or thrombocytes,play a vital role in clotting.
Q5) Explain the steps involved in the clotting process.
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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following characterizes blood flow through capillaries?
A)Enormous total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing slowly.
B)Enormous total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing rapidly.
C)Small total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing slowly.
D)Small total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing rapidly.
Q2) What function do the veins have and how do these vessels compare with the arteries?
Q3) A (an)________ is a recording of the electrical activities of the heart.
Q4) The bulk of the heart which consists of cardiac muscle tissue is called the ________.
A)pericardium
B)myocardium
C)endocardium
D)coronary chamber
Q5) An infection of the thin layer of tissue around the inner cavities of the heart itself would affect the ________.
A)pericardium
B)endocardium
C)myocardium
D)sinoatrial node
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Body Defense Mechanisms
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Q1) Juana is exhibiting redness,swelling,and elevated temperature in one area of her arm.She has a condition known as ________.
A)complement cascade.
B)inflammation
C)asthma
D)passive immunity
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are useful in treating cancer when radioactive materials or tumor-killing drugs are attached to them.How is it that these cancer-killing methods are delivered only to the tumor and not to other healthy cells?
A)Antibodies will specifically bind to the antigen target for which they are designed, here a cancer cell.
B)Antibodies will attach to any cancer cell found, even if there are several different types present.
C)Antibodies will stimulate the actions of T helper cells to fight the cancer.
D)Antibodies will stimulate the actions of cytotoxic T cells to fight the cancer.
Q3) What are the three strategies for defending against foreign organisms,cells,or molecules?
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Chapter 14: The Respiratory System
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Q1) The narrow passageways that conduct air from bronchi to alveoli.
A)Intercostal muscles
B)Cartilage rings
C)Diaphragm
D)Alveoli
E)Expiratory reserve
F)Trachea
G)Inspiratory reserve
H)Pharynx
I)Sinuses
J)Bronchioles
Q2) Phospholipid molecules that prevent the alveoli from collapsing are known as ________.
A)laryngitis
B)surfactant
C)mucous
D)plasma
Q3) The ________ are muscles of the rib cage that help to increase the size of the thoracic cavity during inhalation.
Q4) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as ________.
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Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Q1) Infection with Helicobacter pylori can cause ________.
A)gallstones
B)constipation
C)tooth decay
D)peptic ulcers
Q2) Most nutrient absorption occurs in the ________,a major organ of the digestive system.
Q3) A 60-year-old having frequent constipation runs a greater risk of this condition.
A)diverticulosis
B)peptic ulcer
C)diarrhea
D)appendicitis
Q4) This digestive organ absorbs water from indigestible food residue,stores feces,and eliminates feces from the body.
A)small intestine
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)large intestine
Q5) Food is sent along the GI tract by means of a wave-like process called ________.
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Chapter 16: The Urinary System
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Q1) Which is a hormone that reduces blood volume and pressure and increases urine volume?
A)erythropoietin
B)atrial natriuretic peptide
C)aldosterone
D)renin
Q2) What are some of the problems associated with kidney transplants and what are some ways the issues can be resolved?
Q3) Relaxation of the ________ releases urine from the body.
Q4) ________ are the functional units of the kidneys and are responsible for the formation of urine.
Q5) Which of the following does not normally move to any great extent from the blood into the filtrate at the renal corpuscle?
A)plasma proteins
B)water
C)hydrogen ions
D)urea
Q6) Filtrate moves from the space within the glomerular capsule to ________,the portion of the renal tubule with microvilli.
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Chapter 17: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Speculate as to why the success rate of treatment is much higher for cancers such as testicular and prostate compared with ovarian cancer.
Q2) Which one of the following occurs toward the end of spermatogenesis?
A)fertilization
B)mitosis
C)meiosis and structural changes
D)ovulation
Q3) The zygote typically begins its development into an embryo here.
A)Prostate gland
B)Oviduct
C)Penis
D)Glans penis
E)Ovaries
F)Endometrium
G)Vas deferens
H)Cervix
I)Uterus
J)Seminal vesicle
K)Vagina
L)Testis
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Chapter 18: Development Throughout Life
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Q1) A significant percentage of pre-embryos fail to continue their development or to implant in the uterus.Explain what may happen to prevent development from continuing.
Q2) Heart cells in the embryo will be derived from which germ layer?
A)mesoderm
B)endoderm
C)ectoderm
D)none of the above
Q3) Carla is taking a home pregnancy test to find out if she is pregnant.If this test comes back positive,which hormone has it detected in Carla's urine?
A)estrogen
B)relaxin
C)progesterone
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Q4) The period that begins at week 9 of development is the ________.
Q5) The ________ is the organ that delivers oxygen and nutrients and removes carbon dioxide and wastes for the embryo and later fetus.
Q6) Compare and contrast breast-feeding with bottle-feeding infants.
Q7) The ________ is a group of cells that will develop into the chorion.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Chromosomes and Cell Division
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Q1) The ________ cells are those body cells of humans that contain 23 chromosomes.
Q2) A cell with a diploid number of 24 fails to undergo cytokinesis while performing mitosis so that the daughter cells do not form.How many chromosomes will be in the resulting cell?
A)96
B)48
C)24
D)12
Q3) Each cell contains two chromosomes with genes for the same traits; these chromosomes are called ________.
Q4) What is decreased during the process of meiosis?
A)the size of chromosomes
B)the number of cells
C)the number of chromosomes
D)All of the above are true.
Q5) An entire cell cycle can be completed in about ________.
A)1-2 hours
B)24 hours
C)48 hours
D)1 week
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Chapter 20: Genetics and Human Inheritance
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Q1) Henry has the sickle cell trait.Why might it be a bad idea for him to go on that hiking vacation that is being planned for the high Andes?
Q2) A genetic cross between two individuals who are heterozygous for two traits of interest is called a ________.
Q3) If the two parents each are heterozygous for widow's peak and having freckles,what is the chance that any of their children will have the same phenotype?
A)9/16
B)3/16
C)1/2
D)1/16
Q4) In this heredity pattern,both alleles appear in the phenotype of the heterozygote.
A)codominance
B)complete dominance
C)pleiotropy
D)multiple alleles
Q5) PKU is a hereditary condition only seen if a person has two copies of the gene.Therefore,it is said to be ________.
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Chapter 21: Dna and Biotechnology
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Q1) The p53 gene is a tumor-suppressing gene that prevents damaged cells from undergoing cell division.If this gene ceases to function due to a mutation what will happen to the cell?
A)Tumors will be suppressed.
B)The cell will die.
C)Uncontrolled cell division will occur.
D)The cell will be prevented from undergoing division.
Q2) The science of making a living cell perform a task considered useful by humans in a controlled way.
A)Genome
B)DNA polymerases
C)Gene therapy
D)Guanine
E)Thymine
F)RNA polymerase
G)Codons
H)Biotechnology
I)Epigenetics
Q3) A (n)________ is composed of one sugar (deoxyribose or ribose),one phosphate,and one nitrogenous base.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and Our Heritage
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Q1) Changes that occur at the genetic level in populations are classified as ________.
A)chemical evolution
B)microevolution
C)gradualism
D)macroevolution
Q2) Which can drive microevolution and occurs when individuals move in and out of populations?
A)speciation
B)gene flow
C)founder effect
D)adaptation
Q3) Almost all cacti are native to the Americas,but there is a small,relatively uncommon group of plants closely related to cacti native to tropical western Africa.How can we explain this given the information in this chapter?
A)The plants might have floated across the Atlantic.
B)This might have been caused by divergent evolution.
C)The continents were once connected.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Discuss the major trends in hominin evolution.
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Chapter 23: Ecology, the Environment, and Us
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Q1) The sequence of changes in the species that make up a community is called
A)ecological succession
B)pioneer progression
C)climax community
D)progressive adaptation
Q2) The recent increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide has produced ________,according to the textbook and most scientists.
Q3) An area had no previous community and had no existing soil at first,but then living things started occupying the area.This situation would be called ________.
A)biological magnification
B)primary succession
C)climax community
D)secondary replacement
Q4) The biosphere consists of many ________,each consisting of the organisms in a specific geographic area and their physical environment.
Q5) Two human activities,burning fossil fuels and ________,are important causes of the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.
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Chapter
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Q1) This method of generating energy has in the past resulted in accidents that in turn cause cancer.
A)biofuels
B)nuclear energy
C)hydroelectric
D)geothermal
Q2) Which is the number of years it will take for a population to double at a particular rate of growth?
A)birth rate
B)doubling time
C)death rate
D)age structure
Q3) Which of the following activities is likely to deplete an aquifer fastest?
A)massive xerophytic tree planting
B)deep-well drilling for farms
C)using chlorofluorocarbons
D)employing molybdenum-based fertilizers
Q4) What are the issues around the use of biofuels as an alternative to fossil fuels?
Q5) Ozone in the atmosphere shields us from ________.
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Chapter 25: Food Safety and Defense
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Q1) The most appropriate way to kill bacteria on food is to ________.
A)refrigerate the food
B)freeze the food
C)cook the food
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) John had a cookout last week.He served chicken that he had grilled outdoors and that was fully cooked.However,some of his guests developed a Salmonella infection.Even though the chicken was completely cooked,what might John have done that could have potentially allowed for his guests to develop a Salmonella infection?
Q3) Why is the process of irrigation with run-off water a bad practice? What measures should you take to protect yourself from acquiring a foodborne illness from crops?
Q4) In reviewing the list of food storage guidelines,certain meats expire more quickly than others.In comparing chicken,seafood,and bacon,the bacon has the longest shelf life of the three.Speculate on why this is so.
Q5) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.
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Chapter 26: Drugs and the Mind
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Q1) Mattie thinks she should use nicotine patches because they are safe.How can you convince her otherwise given the information in this chapter?
Q2) Marina has owned a bar for many years and extols the health benefits of alcohol.Which of these claims is correct?
A)Four to five drinks per day improve the liver.
B)Heavy drinking prevents cancer.
C)Alcohol increases the uptake of vitamins and minerals.
D)Moderate consumption raises the "good" cholesterol levels.
Q3) Which are synthetically produced stimulants that resemble the brain's natural neurotransmitters?
A)caffeine
B)amphetamines
C)marijuana
D)opium
Q4) Angie wants to go with her boyfriend to a bar and consume some alcohol but she does not want to become intoxicated because she needs to drive them both home after 2 hours.She weighs 120 pounds.What advice can you give her based on the information in the textbook?
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Chapter 27: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Which of the following is recommended for diabetes mellitus patients?
A)smoking
B)binge drinking
C)inactivity
D)controlling stress
Q2) Which of the following is a normal blood glucose reading?
A)400 mg/dl
B)90 mg/dl
C)30 mg/dl
D)4% Hb A1c
Q3) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
Q4) Which of the following is true of diabetes mellitus type 1?
A)Patients always require insulin.
B)Cells become resistant to insulin.
C)Most people with diabetes mellitus have this form.
D)It can be delayed or prevented.
Q5) Marsha says she sometimes has ketoacidosis.What kind of diabetes is she more likely to have and how did she develop ketoacidosis? Why is ketoacidosis dangerous and how can she detect it in time?
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Chapter 28: a Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) In which of these patients might Dr.Singh most appropriately prescribe a diuretic? The numbers represent their blood pressures.
A)6/66
B)20/80
C)25/75
D)60/90
Q2) During the summer of 2010,there were very large forest fires in Western Russia.The cloud spread at some point over 1,000 miles (approximately 1600 km),enveloping a number of cities.The smoke was thicker than any you would see in a tobacco store!
Based on the information in this chapter alone,why do you think the daily death rate due to heart disease in Moscow doubled during that time?
Q3) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
Q4) Which of the following might be an indicator of atherosclerosis?
A)inflammatory chemicals in the blood
B)high HDL levels in the blood stream
C)quiet lifestyle
D)low blood pressure
Q5) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?
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Chapter 29: a Special Topic: Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.
Q2) A (n)________ is a global outbreak of disease.
Q3) ________ are made by certain pathogens like Staphylococcus,Salmonella,Escherichia coli,and Clostridium botulinum.These substances often travel in the bloodstream and cause disease symptoms.
Q4) What is the most effective way of killing Staphylococcus in the food you are preparing?
A)Nothing, this organism never is spread in food.
B)Mix antibiotics in with the food.
C)Cook the food thoroughly.
D)Use a good antiseptic on the food itself before preparing it.
Q5) In some cultures parts of the central nervous system (e.g.,brains)of cattle are popular foods.Predict the issues that might arise from this practice.
Q6) Tetracycline antibiotics are frequently included in commercial poultry feed.Why is the practice unwise for human health in the long run?
Q7) Infectious proteins that are heat-resistant and that cannot be destroyed by ultraviolet light or most chemicals are known as ________.
Q8) A(n)________ is an animal that carries a disease from one host to another.
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Chapter 30: a Nutrition and Weight Control
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Q1) Which of the following substances has the lowest glycemic index?
A)fiber
B)glucose
C)white bread
D)white rice
Q2) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height.How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia?
A)There would be evidence of water retention.
B)The teeth and gums would be damaged.
C)Extensive weight gain would be observed.
D)High blood sugar levels would be present.
Q3) If a certain brand of daily vitamin were to contain 600% of the minimum daily requirement of riboflavin,what risks would there be to those who take that brand?
A)liver damage
B)none known
C)scurvy
D)rickets
Q4) What are some specific health benefits of indigestible carbohydrates and where can a person find them?
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Chapter 31: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world?
Q2) The term sexually transmitted infection is used to refer to infections ________.
A)caused by bacteria
B)caused by viruses
C)that cannot be treated
D)that have no symptoms
Q3) Select two classes of HIV drugs and fully explain how they work.Can they cure HIV?
Q4) The STD that will always produce symptoms is ________.
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)syphilis
D)HPV infection
Q5) Which statement is false concerning STDs?
A)Bacterial STDs can be treated with antibiotics.
B)Permanent infertility can be the result of an untreated STD.
C)STDs are routinely tested for during all physical examinations.
D)Most viral STDs can never be eliminated from the body.
Q6) Why is it not possible for HIV medications to eliminate HIV in a confirmed HIV+ patient?
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Chapter 32: Autism Spectrum Disorders
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Q1) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
Q2) Autism is characterized by ________.
A)impaired communication skills
B)unusual patterns of behavior
C)poor social skills
D)all the above
Q3) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs.
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic criteria for ASDs?
A)impairments in social behavior
B)impairments in communication
C)aggressive behaviors
D)repetitive behaviors
Q5) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.
Q6) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs?
Q7) A large percentage of the public believes that vaccines have a role in the development of autism.What information would you use to explain to a friend that there is no scientific evidence to suggest that vaccines cause autism?
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Chapter 33: Stem Cells a Repair Kit for the Body
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Q1) Describe several potential applications for embryonic stem cell research.
Q2) Which statement best describes the difference between therapeutic and reproductive cloning?
A)Therapeutic cloning involves producing medications, while reproductive cloning is used for in vitro fertilization procedures.
B)Therapeutic cloning produces cells that are not genetically identical to their source, while reproductive cloning produces cells that are genetically identical to their source.
C)Therapeutic cloning is used to produce stem cells that can be coerced into differentiating into a specific cell type, while reproductive cloning is used to produce organisms identical to what they were cloned from.
D)There really aren't any differences between therapeutic and reproductive cloning.
Q3) Explain how a stem cell line would be developed.
Q4) How is a stem cell different from a "normal" cell? (Use a liver cell as an example.)
Q5) Most people assume that cloning refers only to whole organism or reproductive cloning.Explain how therapeutic cloning is different from reproductive cloning.
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Chapter 34: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is an abnormal mass of tissue that is surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue and that usually remains at the site where it forms.
Q2) An allele known as BRCA1 is often found in women with breast and ovarian cancer.However,some women develop these cancers and do not have the BRCA1 allele.In addition,some women who have BRCA1 never develop breast or ovarian cancer.How can this be explained?
A)This must be an example of pleiotropy.
B)These types of cancers are in no way associated with specific alleles.
C)Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops.
D)The BRCA1 allele must be dominant.
Q3) Which of the following is a typical means of halting normal cell division?
A)the shortening of telomeres
B)increasing the activity of p53
C)activating oncogenes
D)triggering apoptosis
Q4) Certain new cancer therapies deal with the inhibition of angiogenesis (formation of blood vessels).How would inhibition of blood vessel formation be beneficial in terms of treating cancer?
Q5) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
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