Introduction to Human Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology provides a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. The course explores key biological principles including cell structure, genetics, anatomy, physiology, and the organization of bodily systems such as the nervous, cardiovascular, and digestive systems. Students will examine how these systems work individually and together to maintain health and homeostasis. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications, such as disease prevention and wellness, to help students develop scientific literacy relevant to everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 12th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Q1) The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called A) evolution.
B) homeostasis.
C) levels of organization.
D) biological classification.
E) molecular diversification.
Answer: A
Q2) An important part of scientific research is repeatability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky.This is an example of A) metabolism.
B) homeostasis.
C) response to stimuli.
D) development.
E) reproduction.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) The sides of the DNA ladder (backbone)are
A) alternating carbons and nitrogens.
B) the R groups.
C) the nitrogenous bases.
D) alternating nitrogens and phosphates.
E) sugars and phosphates.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) maltose
Answer: D
Q3) Radiation can produce both positive and negative effects for humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?
A) endosymbiont model
B) fluid-mosaic model
C) plasmagel-plasmasol model
D) lock and key model
E) induced-fit model
Answer: B
Q2) A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called
A) a protomembrane.
B) a protosugar.
C) a glycocalyx.
D) a glycolipid.
E) a glycoprotein.
Answer: E
Q3) Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--animals and plants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Q1) The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function?
A) absorption
B) secretion
C) excretion
D) removing debris
Q2) Which type of gland can become blocked and form a "blackhead?"
A) sudoriferous
B) sweat
C) endocrine
D) sebaceous
E) compound
Q3) There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane?
A) the lungs
B) the heart
C) the cavities of freely movable joints
D) tubes of the digestive system
E) the abdominal cavity
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Q1) A hospital laboratory technician injects a dye into a vein in your right arm.What is the first chamber of the heart the dye reaches?
A) right atrium
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle
Q2) Which part of the body is often diseased in alcoholics due to exposure to alcohol?
A) liver
B) stomach
C) mouth
D) esophagus
E) large intestine
Q3) Tissue fluid leaving the arterial end of the capillary is balanced by tissue fluid entering the venous end of the capillary.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Q1) Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by
A) keeping the blood within the vessels.
B) regulating body temperature.
C) destroying pathogens.
D) removing debris from the blood.
E) maintaining the pH of the blood.
Q2) The two major components of blood are
A) red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) plasma and serum.
C) plasma and red blood cells.
D) formed elements and plasma.
E) platelets and plasma.
Q3) Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to
A) produce antibodies.
B) destroy pathogens.
C) increase erythrocyte production.
D) stimulate thrombin.
E) produce platelets.
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8
Chapter 7: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the functions of the lymphatic system?
A) take up excess tissue fluid, return it to the bloodstream
B) absorb fats in the intestines
C) help the body defend against disease
D) production, maintenance ,and distribution of lymphocytes
E) calcium homeostasis
Q2) T cells can recognize antigens because they
A) have enzymes which react with antigens.
B) possess specific receptors.
C) produce antibodies.
D) possess fimbrae.
E) become plasma cells.
Q3) One set of the body's defenses are called "innate." In this context,this means
A) they act indiscriminately against all pathogens.
B) they work very, very quickly.
C) they only act internally.
D) phagocytosis is involved.
E) they are lost as we age.
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9
Chapter 8: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Q1) The major portions of the large intestine include
A) the duodenum, cecum, and rectum.
B) the jejunum, colon, and anus.
C) the cecum, colon, rectum, and anus.
D) the colon, duodenum, cecum, and rectum.
E) the colon, anus, duodenum, and jejunum.
Q2) Today,obesity is often defined as having a body mass index of 20 or greater.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with the stomach?
A) alcohol absorption
B) gastric glands
C) rugae
D) duodenum
E) pepsin
Q4) When a nutrition labels states that something has "0" grams of trans fat,this might not mean there are no trans fats in the food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Respiratory System
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Q1) The right lung is larger than the left lung.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the glottis becomes narrower,
A) the pitch of sound goes up.
B) the pitch of sound goes down.
Q3) Inhalation is another word for inspiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a lower respiratory infection?
A) tuberculosis
B) pneumonia
C) bronchitis
D) pulmonary fibrosis
Q5) Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange?
A) bronchus
B) larynx
C) nasal cavity
D) lungs
E) diaphragm
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Urinary System and Excretion
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Q1) ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage?
A) burning upon urination
B) extreme pain
C) albumin or formed elements in the urine
D) the absence of urination
E) edema
Q3) Which molecule is secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules?
A) water
B) salt
C) H<sup>+</sup>
D) nutrients
E) plasma proteins
Q4) An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Skeletal System
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Q1) When you nod your head "yes",what type of movement are you using?
A) flexion and extension
B) adduction and abduction
C) rotation
D) circumduction
E) inversion
Q2) The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When Phillip was little,he worked on the outside edge of his feet.This is what type of movement?
A) rotation
B) eversion
C) inversion
D) circumduction
E) adduction and abduction
Q4) Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Muscular System
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Q1) What does the word sarco mean?
A) large
B) short
C) muscle
D) tubule
E) smooth
Q2) One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do fibromyalgia and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis have in common?
A) The cause of both diseases is unknown.
B) In both diseases, antibodies destroy acetylcholine receptors.
C) Both are X-linked genetic diseases.
D) Both can be cured with antibiotics.
E) In both diseases, the protein dystrophin is absent.
Q4) If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nervous System
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Q1) The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following functions is not associated with the frontal lobe?
A) primary motor area
B) primary visual area
C) premotor area
D) motor speech (Broca's) area
E) prefrontal area
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
A) receive sensory input
B) cushion and protect soft tissue
C) perform information processing
D) perform integration
E) generate motor output
Q4) The spinal cord belongs to the
A) peripheral nervous system.
B) central nervous system.
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Chapter 14: Senses
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Q1) Many rod cells share one bipolar cell but cone cells do not.Certain cone cells synapse with only one ganglion cell.What are the consequences of this arrangement?
A) Rod cells distinguish color better than cone cells.
B) Cone cells are better up close, while rod cells are better far away.
C) Rod cells are better up close, while cone cells are better far away.
D) Rod cells distinguish more detail than cone cells.
E) Cone cells distinguish more detail than rod cells.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true concerning rod and cone cells?
A)Both have an outer segment jointed to an inner segment by a short stalk.
B)Both contain a deep purple pigment called rhodopsin.
C)Both have pigment molecules embedded in the membrane of the outer segment.
D)Both contain retinal,a derivative of vitamin A.
E)Both have synaptic vesicles at the synaptic endings of the inner segment.
Q3) In farsightedness,
A) the cornea is uneven.
B) rays do not focus evenly.
C) rays focus in front of the retina.
D) the eyeball is shorter than normal.
E) a concave lens corrects vision.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Endocrine System
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Q1) The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary communicate via a portal system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Usually you are consciously aware of the governance of your internal organs by the nervous and endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) in the brain
B) in the neck
C) on top of the kidneys
D) near the ovaries/testes
E) near the small intestine
Q4) Which of the following secretes erythropoietin?
A) kidney
B) heart
C) small intestine
D) thymus
E) thalamus
Q5) Are there any systems that the nervous and endocrine systems do not control?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Q1) Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system?
A) bulbourethral gland
B) prostate gland
C) urethra
D) vas deferens
E) testes
Q2) All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
A) testes
B) bladder
C) epididymides
D) prostate gland
E) urethra
Q4) If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized,it never finishes meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?
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Chapter 17: Development and Aging
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Q1) The blood of the mother and the fetus mix in the placenta.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The white,greasy,cheeselike substance that covers the skin is called
A) lanugo.
B) fontanels.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) foramen ovale.
E) ductus arteriosus.
Q3) At the end of the embryonic period,the embryo is about 12 inches long.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow?
A) More neural cells are lost as we age.
B) Females undergo menopause.
C) Ventilation of the lungs is reduced.
D) The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before.
E) The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited.
Q5) Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer.Is she ready to give birth?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Q1) If a cell has 4 pair of chromosomes,after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Q2) In a karyotype,each chromosome contains two sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) anaphase I
D) anaphase II
E) telophase I
Q4) In a translocation,all of the DNA is present,and there is only one copy of each piece.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Cancer
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Q1) Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males?
A) prostate
B) lung and bronchus
C) colon and rectum
D) pancreas
E) esophagus
Q3) If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated,which of the following is not true?
A) Apoptosis is less likely to occur.
B) The cell cycle continues when it should not.
C) A "gain-of function" mutation has occurred.
D) Genes that encode enzymes that repair DNA are not turned on.
E) Genes that stop the cell cycle are not turned on.
Q4) Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation,such as the energy given off by cell phones,causes cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial?
A) alcoholism
B) suicide risk
C) cleft lip/palate
D) diabetes
E) ABO blood type
Q2) How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar?
A) Both exhibit a late onset in life.
B) Both are trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders.
C) Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis.
D) Both cause autism.
E) Both are found only in males.
Q3) If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads,for example),you use the
A) product rule.
B) sum rule.
Q4) Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?
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Chapter 21: DNA Biology and Technology
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Q1) Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins?
A) enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions
B) neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system
C) antibodies for the immune system
D) storage form for genetic information
E) hormones to change cellular activity
Q2) Which of the following is not an amino acid?
A) glycine
B) tryptophan
C) alanine
D) valine
E) uracil
Q3) Mitochondria also contain DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is not an important anatomical features for determining if a fossil is a hominin?
A) absence of sharp canines
B) bipedal posture
C) flat face
D) brain size
E) absence of a chin
Q2) What is the earliest fossil hominin?
A) Sahelanthropus tchadensis
B) Australopithecus robustus
C) Australopithecus africanus
D) Ardipithecus kadabba
E) Ardipithecus ramidus
Q3) Closer biochemical structures suggest a closer evolutionary relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish?
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Chapter 23: Global Ecology and Human Interferences
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Q1) Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) methane
D) nitrous oxide
E) hydrofluorocarbons
Q2) Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cultural eutrophication can be caused by
A) respiration and transpiration.
B) mercury from industrial sources.
C) bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste.
D) detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants.
E) biological magnification.
Q4) There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities?
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Q1) Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an indirect,as opposed to a direct,value of biodiversity?
A) medical use
B) food
C) consumptive use
D) ecotourism
Q3) Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true?
A) Globally, they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide.
B) They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and airconditioning.
C) In forests, they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater.
D) They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes.
E) They retain soil and prevent soil erosion.
Q4) The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like A) a pyramid.
B) an inverted pyramid.
C) a rectangle.
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Chapter 25: Infectious Diseases Supplement
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Q1) A disease is called an epidemic if people all over the world have the same disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is malaria spread?
A) via airborne droplets
B) by blood transfusions
C) sexual intercourse
D) breast feeding
E) mosquitoes
Q3) AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How long did it take for bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 4 years
D) 10 years
E) 25 years
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