Introduction to Human Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology provides an overview of the fundamental principles that govern the structure and function of the human body. This course explores key topics such as cellular organization, genetics, physiology, anatomy, and the major systems that sustain life, including the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and nervous systems. Emphasizing the relationship between human biology and health, students gain an understanding of how body systems interact, adapt, and respond to internal and external changes. The course also highlights common diseases, the impact of lifestyle choices, and current scientific advancements in human biology, equipping students with a basic foundation for further studies in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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2002 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) In science, graphs are often used to display data collected from an experiment. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding a graph?
A) Most graphs are plotted on three axes.
B) The dependent variable is plotted on the y-axis.
C) Independent variables are generally not included on a graph.
D) The horizontal axis is known as the ordinate.
E) Graphs always involve plots of individual data points.
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following is a CORRECT statement regarding metabolism?
A) Few living organisms require raw materials and a constant source of energy.
B) Plants get the raw materials they need for life processes entirely from the air.
C) Cells maintain life through the breakdown of molecules and energy by chemical and physical processes.
D) Cells do not require energy to change molecules from one form to another.
E) Animals use energy obtained directly from the sun and chemicals obtained from plants, other animals, air, and water.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isotopes of an element have the same ________, but different ________.
A) number of electron shells, numbers of protons
B) atomic number, atomic masses
C) number of neutrons, numbers of protons
D) atomic mass, atomic numbers
E) name, chemical symbols
Answer: B
Q2) Pancreatic cells make insulin, which is a type of protein. These cells use ________ in order to synthesize insulin by the process of ________.
A) oligosaccharides, hydrolysis
B) nucleotides, condensation
C) amino acids, dehydration synthesis
D) fatty acids and glycerol, hydrolysis
E) monosaccharides, dehydration synthesis
Answer: C
Q3) Molecules that are polar and attracted to water are ________; molecules that are nonpolar and therefore not attracted to water are ________.
Answer: hydrophilic, hydrophobic
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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose is the most commonly used energy source by human cells because A) this is the largest macromolecule available to cells for energy production
B) this monosaccharide yields the most energy of all macromolecules
C) fats and proteins yield too much energy for the cells to process
D) glucose is generally the most readily available substrate, derived from food or glycogen
E) no other macromolecule can be broken down enzymatically by cells to release energy
Answer: D
Q2) Muscle cells store energy in the form of ________ until it is used for the production of ATP.
A) glucose
B) starch
C) glycogen
D) fat
E) sucrose
Answer: C
Q3) The only way that cells can produce ATP in the absence of oxygen is through the process of ________.
Answer: glycolysis or fermentation
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Page 5
Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student in a histology class was asked to describe the structure of a stratified squamous epithelium. Which one of the following is the best description?
A) tissue composed of protein fibers in a ground substance and a few cells
B) tissue composed of one layer of flat cells located on a basement membrane
C) tissue composed of contracting protein fibers enclosed by plasma membranes
D) tissue composed of several layers of tall cells resting on a basement membrane
E) tissue composed of several layers of flat cells resting on a basement membrane
Q2) A group of cells that are similar in structure and work together to perform a common function are referred to as a(n)
A) organ system
B) tissue
C) organ
D) community
E) organism
Q3) A group of two or more tissues that function as a unit is a(n) ________.
Q4) A(n) ________ epithelium allows gas exchange in the lungs.
Q5) The toes are located ________ to the knee.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) location of trabeculae
Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding fibrous joints?
A) They are freely movable and can bend and rotate.
B) The bones are separated by a fluid-filled cavity that lubricates the joint.
C) Fibrous joints present at birth between bones of the skull develop into sutures in the adult.
D) The bones are held together by cartilage and tendons.
E) They include hinge joints and ball-and-socket joints.
Q3) epiphysis
Q4) The outer surface of a bone is covered with a tough connective tissue called the ________.
Q5) Individuals can prevent osteoporosis by including sufficient supplies of vitamin C and calcium in their diets and maintaining a consistent exercise program.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ bones are pierced by tiny openings through which the tear ducts drain.
Q7) The coccyx is classified as a(n) ________ structure because it no longer has a function.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for a muscle contraction to occur, cross-bridges must form between which one of the following structures within a muscle cell?
A) the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) troponin and tropomyosin
C) calcium and tropomyosin
D) acetylcholine and muscle cell receptors
E) actin and myosin
Q2) The electrical impulse generated by a muscle cell membrane is transmitted to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by ________.
Q3) Following running for a long distance, the muscle soreness that occurs the next day is due to chemicals released to repair damaged muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the absence of ATP, a contracted muscle can't relax.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The contractile proteins that are located in myofibrils are called ________ and ________.
Q6) The portion of a myofibril from one Z-line to the next is a(n) ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following occurs first in the process of hemostasis?
A) blood clotting
B) production of fibrin
C) formation of a platelet plug
D) vascular spasm
E) destruction of calcium ions
Q2) It is now possible for parents to bank the umbilical cord blood of their children; the cells in the cord would then be available for use later in the life of the child to treat a genetic disorder or cancer, should it develop.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mature red blood cells have no nucleus or mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The osmotic balance between blood and interstitial fluid is maintained by plasma proteins called ________.
Q5) Cell surface proteins that are foreign to the body and therefore cause a response from the immune system are known as ________.
Q6) The blood components in B include ________ and ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Veins carry blood away from the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sinoatrial node
A) is located in the left atrium
B) sends out a signal for contraction once every two minutes
C) regulates the rate of heart contraction
D) is also known as the atrioventricular node
E) receives signals from the atrioventricular node
Q3) The aortic semilunar valve opens when the
A) arterial pressure is lower than the ventricular pressure
B) right ventricle is in diastole
C) atrioventricular valves open
D) atrium is in systole
E) pulmonary semilunar valve closes
Q4) The heart muscle itself receives oxygen and nutrients from blood transported by the ________ arteries.
Q5) During electrical stimulation of the heart, the impulse pauses briefly at the ________ before continuing on to the ventricles.
Page 10
Q6) A cerebrovascular accident is another term for a(n) ________.
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is a list of steps involved in the process of phagocytosis. Which of the following answers indicates these steps in the CORRECT order? 1. Lysosome fuses with the vesicle containing a foreign cell.
2) Wastes from the foreign cell are removed.
3) Foreign cell is surrounded by the cell membrane of the phagocyte.
4) Lysosomal enzymes break down the foreign cell.
5) Foreign cell is contained within a vesicle.
A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
D) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
E) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
Q2) The first type of white blood cell to arrive at the site of an infection is the eosinophil.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
Q4) Microorganisms and cellular debris are removed from lymph by the ________ and from blood by the ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the cough reflex, the trachea ________ slightly to increase the velocity of air movement.
Q2) A little girl was playing in the snow one day and found that she was wiping her nose quite often. The "runny nose" that she was experiencing due to the cold temperatures resulted from
A) an insufficient production of mucus
B) an inadequate supply of blood to the nasal epithelium
C) the slowed activity of nasal cilia
D) a buildup of tears in the nasal septum
E) the inability of the sinuses to drain
Q3) The trachea is completely surrounded by rings of cartilage, resulting in an organ that is inflexible.
A)True B)False
Q4) The basic pattern of inhalation and exhalation is controlled by a region at the base of the brain called the ________.
Q5) The figure above depicts expiration.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) voltage threshold for membrane
Q2) The left and right cerebral hemispheres are interconnected by nerve tract network called the ________.
Q3) Control of smooth muscle and internal organs is the role of the ________ division of the nervous system?
A) sensory
B) autonomic
C) endocrine
D) somatic
E) postsynaptic
Q4) Convergence occurs when several presynaptic cells
A) depolarize simultaneously
B) depolarize sequentially
C) form a synapse with a single postsynaptic cell
D) activate the sodium-potassium pump of a Schwann cell
E) form a synapse with multiple postsynaptic cells
Q5) The phrase all-or-none response describes a neuron-generated action potential. Explain what is meant by this phrase.
Q6) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves are part of the ________ nervous system.
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Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain caused by a heart attack in men is often felt in the left shoulder and left arm. This phenomenon is known as ________ pain.
Q2) Mechanoreceptors include unencapsulated dendritic endings, Merkel disks, Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, and olfactory receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The structure shown in the figure above is found in which one of the following?
A) skin
B) inner ear
C) retina
D) middle ear
E) vestibulocochlear nerve
Q4) The structure of the cochlea that converts pressure waves to nerve impulses is the ________; it is composed of hair cells and a tectorial membrane.
Q5) Pressure in the middle ear is equalized with the external air pressure through the auditory tube.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyposecretion of ADH results in A) stimulation of protein synthesis
B) reduced uptake of blood glucose
C) diabetes insipidus
D) an increase in the mass and length of bones
E) overstimulation of cell division
Q2) Nonsteroid hormones differ from steroid hormones in that they
A) cause a change to occur in the target cell
B) bind to an intracellular receptor
C) are water insoluble
D) cannot be stored
E) bind to a receptor on the outer surface of the cell membrane
Q3) thyroid gland
Q4) Nonsteroid hormones cannot cross the plasma membrane of cells, yet still have the ability to influence cell activity. Explain how this is possible.
Q5) Although most of the estrogen and testosterone produced in the human body is made by the ovaries and testes, respectively, small amounts of these hormones are also produced by the ________.
Q6) Neuroendocrine cells are located in the ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The salivary glands include
A) the parotid and pancreatic glands
B) sublingual, submandibular, and pancreatic glands
C) parotid, submandibular, and subesophageal glands
D) sublingual, parotid, and submandibular glands
E) subesophageal, pancreatic, and sublingual glands
Q2) Explain the meaning of this statement: Fats are easy to absorb, but difficult to digest.
Q3) Water-soluble vitamins differ from fat-soluble vitamins in that water-soluble vitamins are
A) less readily absorbed from the GI tract
B) stored in fat tissue
C) stored for a brief period of time
D) rarely required as daily supplements to the diet
E) not excreted in urine
Q4) releases bile into the duodenum
Q5) Bile is an important enzyme that digests lipids.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Natural sugars such as those from fruit and honey are classified as ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each kidney is made up of a million ________, the functional units of a kidney.
Q2) When urine leaves the kidneys, it enters the A) urethra
B) liver
C) ureter
D) urinary bladder
E) nephron
Q3) The hairpin design of the loop of Henle allows events on one side of the loop to influence the events on the other side, by a process referred to as
A) paratubular movement
B) countercurrent exchange
C) bulk flow
D) glomerular filtration
E) tubular reabsorption
Q4) Osmotic concentration in the descending limb of the loop of Henle increases as water moves out.
A)True
B)False
Q5) filtrate in lumen contains solutes smaller than proteins
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If fertilization does not occur following release of the egg by the ovary, then which one of the following degenerates approximately two weeks after ovulation?
A) primary oocyte
B) oviduct
C) endometrium layer
D) corpus luteum
E) choices A through D are correct
Q2) Testosterone controls the rate of sperm production.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endometrial tissue sometimes migrates out of the uterus and attaches to other abdominal organs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vagina meets the uterus at the ________.
Q5) As a primary oocyte develops within a follicle of the ovary, it is nourished by ________ cells.
Q6) produces energy source used by sperm inside of a female's reproductive system
Q7) The oviduct is indicated by letter ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine whether each of the following events is characteristic of mitosis, meiosis, or both. Answers may be used more than once.
A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) mitosis and meiosis
13) preceded by replication of chromosomes during interphase
14) results in production of four genetically different daughter cells
15) yields haploid daughter cells
16) involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and crossing-over
17) involves chromosome movement and distribution to daughter cells
18) results in the production of gametes
19) involves two successive nuclear and cell divisions
20) results in the production of two genetically identical daughter cells
Q2) The specialization of stem cells into various cellular types is called ________.
Q3) Explain the importance of checkpoints to the cell cycle.
Q4) Meiosis in females is not complete until ________ occurs.
Q5) All cells that make up the body other than germ cells are referred to as ________.
Q6) A(n) ________ forms during cytokinesis as contractile filaments in the cell tighten.
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential damaging effects of free radicals to DNA can be averted by
Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding chemotherapy?
A) This technique is used in the diagnosis of cancer.
B) This procedure kills cancer cells and normal cells that divide rapidly.
C) This is the selected technique in the treatment of cancer because there are no side effects.
D) This is a procedure used to genetically engineer an individual so cancer will not develop.
E) Most chemicals used in this procedure affect only one organ of the body.
Q3) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding photodynamic therapy?
A) It involves the use of light-sensitive drugs to target a cancer.
B) It uses magnets to attract beads coated with a chemotherapeutic drug to a cancer.
C) It is used for the treatment of cancers of the breast and ovary.
D) It inhibits angiogenesis.
E) It involves the use of antibodies to deliver treatments to a cancer.
Q4) An X-ray of breast tissue used in the diagnosis of breast cancer is a(n) ________.
Q5) If an entire tumor remains localized, it is said to be a(n) ________ cancer.
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A couple is planning to have a child. The female is a carrier for hemophilia; the male does not have hemophilia. What is the chance that a female child will never develop hemophilia?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 100%
Q2) A phenotypic trait is considered sex-linked when
A) a trait occurs only in males
B) the genes for the phenotype occur on X or Y chromosomes
C) the phenotype is expressed only after sexual intercourse
D) the phenotype occurs only in females
E) the phenotype is polygenic for both sexes
Q3) A phenotype is determined by ________ and ________.
Q4) The process by which a piece of a chromosome breaks off and then attaches to another chromosome is referred to as ________.
Q5) A deletion occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off and is lost.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea of manipulating DNA through cutting and splicing, essential to the science of recombinant DNA technology, is not necessarily a new process since nature has been recombining DNA for billions of years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Plants that have foreign DNA inserted into their genome for the purpose of producing products beneficial to humans are referred to as A) recombinants
B) mutated
C) transgenic
D) inferior
E) genetically spliced
Q3) Plasmid DNA from humans has been successfully inserted and expressed in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To create cows, sheep, and pigs that grow faster and larger, the gene for ________ has been inserted into their genomes.
Q5) The process of producing pharmaceuticals in farm animals is ________.
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insertion of a thin tube through the vagina into the uterus to sample fetal tissue is called ________.
Q2) The stages of labor, in order, include
A) dilation, contraction, and afterbirth
B) contraction, dilation, and afterbirth
C) dilation, contraction, and expulsion
D) dilation, expulsion, and afterbirth
E) amniotic rupture, contraction, and expulsion
Q3) During embryonic development, the second cavity that forms in the blastocyst becomes filled with amniotic fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During puberty, the secretion of GnRH causes the secretion of ________, which in turn stimulate(s) the production of sex hormones.
A) LH and FSH
B) oxytocin and prolactin
C) insulin
D) growth hormone
E) oxytocin and growth hormone
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Q1) In the early Earth, the development of ________ created oxygen gas in the atmosphere.
A) ozone
B) nitrogen fixation
C) cellular respiration
D) photosynthesis
E) eukaryotes
Q2) In the scientific process, the word ________ is reserved for those few major concepts that offer the best explanation to fit a broad range of established facts.
Q3) The process of producing energy from organic substrates in the absence of oxygen is called ________ metabolism.
Q4) The early atmosphere of Earth did not contain the gas ________; it is believed that life as we know it would not have evolved if this gas had been present.
Q5) The most direct hominid ancestor to Homo sapiens is called ________.
Q6) Homo habilis is considered to be the first of our human ancestors to make tools.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ________ was an early human ancestor thought to be among the first tool makers.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the nitrogen cycle?
A) Nitrogen fixation results in the production of nitrogen from carbon.
B) Atmospheric nitrogen cannot be used by living organisms because two nitrogen atoms are held tightly together by a triple covalent bond.
C) Plants rely on animals for their source of usable nitrogen.
D) Once nitrogen is "fixed," it must then be converted to nitrogen gas before it can be used by living organisms.
E) In a balanced ecosystem, denitrification occurs more often than nitrogen fixation.
Q2) Most primary producers are plants that generate simple, high energy carbohydrates through the process of photosynthesis. This biochemical event essentially captures sunlight and uses the energy to fuel pathways that lead to the production of useful products. How are plants able to capture sunlight to initiate this process?
Q3) A population is comprised of one or more species of organisms that may interact but do not interbreed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of location where a species lives is its ________.
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25
Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest hole in the ozone layer occurs in the stratospheric layer over A) the Amazon rainforests
B) the eastern coast of the United States
C) the western coast of the United States
D) Africa and South America
E) Antarctica
Q2) All of the following statements accurately describe eutrophication EXCEPT which one?
A) Eutrophication may be accelerated by agricultural runoff containing fertilizers.
B) Eutrophication is a part of a natural process that converts freshwater into marsh.
C) Eutrophication is beneficial and enhances the diversity of life-forms in a body of water.
D) Eutrophication accelerates plant and algal growth at the expense of animal diversity.
E) Sewage and other organic nutrient pollutants can enhance eutrophication.
Q3) The death of animal life in a shallow body of water in conjunction with a rapid increase in plant life is known as ________.
Q4) CFCs are the primary air pollutants that destroy the ________.
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