Introduction to Human Biology Test Bank
Course
Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology offers a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. Students will explore key biological concepts, including cell biology, genetics, anatomy, physiology, and human development. The course emphasizes the relationship between body systems and their roles in maintaining health and homeostasis. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students will gain insights into topics such as nutrition, disease, reproduction, and the impact of lifestyle choices on human wellbeing, preparing them for further studies in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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25 Chapters
1653 Verified Questions
1653 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called
A) evolution.
B) homeostasis.
C) levels of organization.
D) biological classification.
E) acclimation.
Answer: A
Q2) Which organisms are most closely related to humans?
A) spiders
B) earthworms
C) parakeets
D) meerkats
E) snakes
Answer: D
Q3) Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membranes of cells are composed primarily of
A) phospholipids.
B) fats.
C) oils.
D) steroids.
E) triglycerides.
Answer: A
Q2) CaCl<sub>2</sub> is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond?
A) covalent
B) hydrogen
C) polar
D) nonpolar
E) ionic
Answer: E
Q3) After lunch,our digestive system will use the process of hydrolysis to break the food down into smaller subunits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During exocytosis,the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In a metabolic pathway,substrate Z is broken down to form products Y and X.Y is further broken down into products V and W.How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Answer: B
Q3) Explain what occurs during endocytosis.
Answer: During endocytosis a portion of the plasma membrane invaginates and forms a pouch in order to envelop a substance and fluiD As the membrane folds inward it will eventually pinch itself together,forming a vesicle containing the substance or fluid inside of the cell.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells have the greatest probability of developing into cancer?
A) brain cells
B) neurons
C) epithelial cells
D) muscle cells
E) liver cells
Q2) The three major components of connective tissue are
A) cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers.
B) cells, fat, and protein fibers.
C) cells, ground substance, and protein fibers.
D) cells, ground substance, and enzymes.
E) ground substance, enzymes, and protein fibers.
Q3) Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called
A) carcinomas.
B) sarcomas.
C) leukemias.
D) lymphomas.
E) blastomas.
Q4) List the functions of and the organs associated with the urinary system.
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center?
A) cerebrum
B) medulla oblongata
C) cerebellum
D) pons
E) frontal lobe
Q2) The innermost layer of an artery is known as what?
A) mesothelium
B) endothelium
C) exothelium
D) hyperthelium
E) hypothelium
Q3) If the left semilunar valve were blocked,where would blood accumulate?
A) lungs
B) right atrium
C) left atrium
D) right ventricle
E) left ventricle
Q4) Trace the path of blood flow through the heart and lungs,starting with the superior and inferior vena cava.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) After hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide,it is known as A) oxyhemoglobin.
B) beta hemoglobin.
C) carbaminohemoglobin.
D) alpha hemoglobin.
E) deoxyhemoglobin.
Q2) What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common?
A) A and B antigens
B) A antigens and Rh antigens, anti-B antibodies
C) anti-B antibodies and Rh antigens
D) A antigens, anti-B antibodies
E) A antigens
Q3) Jena and Seth could have a child with hemolytic disease of the newborn.Jena must be
A)Rh-negative.
B)Rh-positive.
C)a carrier for anemia.
D)blood type A.
E)blood type O.
Q4) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
8
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An allergic response is an overreaction of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen?
A) intact skin
B) mucous membranes
C) sebaceous secretions
D) acid pH of stomach
E) inflammatory response
Q4) Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) macrophages
E) red blood cells
Q5) List and describe the body's innate defenses.
Q6) Explain the presence and function of the IgA class of antibodies.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material?
A) matrix
B) capsid
C) nucleocapsid
D) protease
E) gp120
Q2) Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics?
A) discontinuing antibiotics when you feel better
B) not taking antibiotics for a viral infection
C) not saving unused antibiotics
D) not skipping doses of antibiotics
E) taking antibiotics only to treat the infection for which they were prescribed
Q3) There are normally one or two cases of measles per month in a particular city.However,in the month of September,there were 15 cases.Is this an epidemic?
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
Q5) Describe the structure of a typical virus.
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called
A) frenula.
B) sphincters.
C) cannula.
D) anastomoses.
E) buccinators.
Q2) What is the major function of the colon?
A) to digest/absorb
B) to form feces
C) to churn food
D) to serve as a passageway only
E) to eliminate iron
Q3) Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is not correct?
A) nuclease-DNA
B) lipase-fat
C) pepsin-protein
D) amylase-starch
E) trypsin-carbohydrates
Q4) List the layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall,starting with the outer layer and moving inward.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An X-ray revealed that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid.What is the proper diagnosis of Josh's illness?
A) bronchitis
B) emphysema
C) asthma
D) pulmonary fibrosis
E) pneumonia
Q2) The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the
A) vital capacity.
B) tidal volume.
C) inspiratory reserve volume.
D) expiratory reserve volume.
E) residual volume.
Q3) You cannot increase the amount of air you exhale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Can you hold your breath until you die?
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage?
A) burning upon urination
B) extreme pain
C) albumin or formed elements in the urine
D) the absence of urination
E) edema
Q2) In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant,the kidneys are like
A) the trucks that take the waste out of town.
B) the people who produce the waste.
C) trash cans where the waste is stored.
D) the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant.
E) trucks that produce the waste.
Q3) ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the components of the glomerular filtrate and indicate where they can be found.
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13
Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you nod your head "yes," what type of movement are you using?
A) flexion and extension
B) adduction and abduction
C) rotation
D) circumduction
E) inversion
Q2) How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q3) Jason broke his finger playing football,while Sean tore the cartilage in his knee playing basketball.Which one will heal faster and why?
A) Jason, bones have a blood supply and heal faster
B) Jason, fingers bear less weight than knees do
C) Sean, cartilage has a blood supply and heals faster
D) Sean, knees can be immobilized easier than fingers
E) Jason, fingers require fewer nutrients to repair because they are small
Q4) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One motor neuron activates one muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Of the three pathways for obtaining ATP for muscle contraction,which one requires oxygen?
A) only the creatine phosphate pathway
B) only fermentation
C) only respiration
D) fermentation and respiration
E) the creatine phosphate pathway and fermentation
Q3) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Q4) Which of the following is not a phase of a single muscle twitch?
A) stimulation period
B) latent period
C) contraction period
D) relaxation period
E) None of these are phases of a muscle twitch.
Q5) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
Q6) Explain the structural differences between the thick and thin myofilaments.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the outside of a neuron positively charged?
A) because sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane
B) because calcium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane
C) because potassium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane
D) because sodium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane
E) because chloride ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane
Q2) Which conducts an action potential faster and why?
A) myelinated fibers; the action potential moves through the myelin which allows it to travel faster
B) myelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another C) unmyelinated fibers; the absence of myelin allows the action potential to travel faster
D) unmyelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another E) unmyelinated fibers; the ions can move in and out of the cell faster without the myelin coating
Q3) The brain stem contains the midbrain,the pons,and the medulla oblongata.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the brain is involved in sensory adaptation?
A) ventricles
B) cerebellum
C) medulla oblongata
D) pons
E) thalamus
Q2) When the ciliary muscle is relaxed,the suspensory ligament is
A) taut and the lens is flattened.
B) relaxed and the lens is flattened.
C) taut and the lens is rounded.
D) relaxed and the lens is rounded.
E) taut and the lens is oval.
Q3) Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply?
A) sclera
B) choroid
C) retina
D) lens
E) cornea
Q4) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.
Q5) Describe the steps involved in the action of a muscle spindle.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary communicate via a portal system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the function of melatonin?
A) regulate blood glucose levels
B) regulate blood calcium levels
C) aid in the differentiation of T lymphocytes
D) control the daily sleep-wake cycle
E) control the color of the skin
Q3) Although other animals produce pheromones,humans have not been shown to make them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The adrenal medulla controls the short term response to stress by
A) raising blood glucose levels.
B) breaking down protein and fat.
C) reducing inflammation.
D) suppressing immune cells.
E) increasing blood volume.
Q5) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true concerning hormonal control over the male reproductive system?
A) The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females.
C) These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship.
D) Luteinizing hormone controls the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules.
E) The interstitial cells produce testosterone.
Q2) A human zygote contains 46 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During implantation,the zygote can be found
A) in the endometrium.
B) in the oviduct.
C) in the abdominal cavity.
D) in the labium majora.
E) in the labium minora.
Q4) Describe the six stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.
Q5) List and describe the five functions of the reproductive system.
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow?
A) Males become infertile.
B) Females undergo menopause.
C) Ventilation of the lungs is reduced.
D) The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before.
E) The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited.
Q2) The white,greasy,cheeselike substance that covers the fetus's skin is called
A) lanugo.
B) fontanels.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) foramen ovale.
E) ductus arteriosus.
Q3) Which of the following is not derived from the endoderm?
A) epithelial lining of the digestive tract
B) epithelial lining of the respiratory tract
C) glands of the digestive tract
D) lining of the urinary bladder
E) urinary system
Q4) Describe the steps of fertilizing an egg cell.
Q5) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?
A) elevated levels of purines in the blood
B) increased tendency toward leukemia
C) increased tendency toward cataracts
D) accelerated rate of aging
E) thickening of the muscles of the tongue
Q2) Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
Q5) List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene?
A) the gene for cyclin D
B) growth factor receptor genes
C) the gene that codes for Ras proteins
D) growth factor genes
E) the gene for p53
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the seven warning signs?
A) a cut that bleeds
B) change in bowel or bladder habits
C) thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
D) indigestion or difficulty swallowing
E) obvious change in wart or mole
Q3) What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer?
A) RB
B) RET
C) p53
D) cyclin D
E) BRCA1
Q4) List the characteristics of cancer cells that make them different from noncancer cells.
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) An allele is to a gene as a locus is to a
A) gamete.
B) phenotype.
C) chromosome.
D) genotype.
E) unit of heredity.
Q2) Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?
A) ff x ff
B) Gg x gg
C) AAbb x Aabb
D) AAbb x aaBB
E) Ss x ss
Q3) Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous dominant or heterozygous?
A) Aa x aa
B) AA x AA
C) aa x aa
D) Aa x AA
E) Aa x Aa
Q4) Describe the term "polygenic traits."
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Chapter 22: Dna Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many different amino acids are found in proteins?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 50
E) over 100
Q2) What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication?
A) It unzips the double-stranded DNA.
B) It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together.
D) It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing.
E) It folds the DNA into a coiled structure.
Q3) CRISPR was first discovered in fungi,where it acts as a form of immune defense against invading bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In vivo gene therapy has been used to help patients suffering from cystic fibrosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton?
A) The human foot has an arch, while the ape foot does not.
B) The human femur angles inward to the knees, while the ape femur angles out a bit.
C) The human spine is S-shaped, while the ape spine has a slight curve.
D) The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee.
E) The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans, but are free-floating in apes.
Q2) Biological evolution is the process whereby
A) humans descended from apes.
B) species change through time.
C) living cells arose from nonliving chemicals.
D) prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells.
E) only the strongest survive.
Q3) Chinese cabbage,brussels sprouts,and kohlrabi are all derived from a single species via artificial selection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Ecology and the Nature of Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are no reservoirs of carbon for the carbon cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hail and snow are examples of
A) evaporation.
B) precipitation.
C) runoff.
D) transpiration.
E) aquifers.
Q4) Which is an exchange pool for the carbon cycle?
A) the ocean
B) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C) limestone
D) fossil fuels
E) soil
Q5) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.
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Chapter 25: Human Interactions With the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint?
A) drive an energy-efficient car
B) eat more beef
C) live in a smaller home
D) turn down the thermostat in the winter
E) refrain from watering the lawn
Q2) At least 40% of the world population lives within 100 km (60 miles)of a coastline.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do hydropower and wind power have in common?
A) Both require the building of dams.
B) Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions.
C) Both are renewable energy sources.
D) Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels.
E) Both require the use of photovoltaic cells.
Q4) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
Q5) Reducing your personal meat consumption would be beneficial to the environment.
A)True
B)False
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