Introduction to Human Biology Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology provides a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body. The course covers basic biological concepts such as cell structure, genetics, metabolism, and organ systems, including the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration of these systems in maintaining health and homeostasis. Students will also explore topics related to human development, disease, and the impact of lifestyle choices on overall well-being. This course is designed for students with a general interest in biology and those preparing for advanced study in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?
A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism
B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism
D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system
E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
Answer: E
Q2) A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a(n) ________ section.
A) frontal
B) transverse
C) oblique
D) parasagittal
E) coronal
Answer: D
Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each.
Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helium (HE) has an atomic number of 2. It is chemically stable because it A) is neutral in electrical charge.
B) readily ionizes to react with other atoms.
C) has a full outer electron shell.
D) will form a covalent bond with another He atom.
E) lacks electrons, thus the He atom is stable.
Answer: C
Q2) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is A) 6.0.
B) 4.5.
C) 2.3.
D) 1.0.
E) 12.0.
Answer: E
Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
Q4) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between transcription and translation.
Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.
Q2) Endocytosis is a
A) method for transporting substances into the cell.
B) method for metabolizing within the cytosol.
C) form of anabolism.
D) viral infection.
E) method for packaging secretions.
Answer: A
Q3) The extracellular fluid in most tissues is called ________ fluid.
A) interstitial
B) cytosolic
C) cytoplasmic
D) outside
E) peripheral
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method of secretion destroys the cell? (Figure 4-8)
A) merocrine
B) apocrine
C) holocrine
D) endocrine
E) exocytosis
Q2) A tissue that provides strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions is
A) any connective tissue proper.
B) elastic or hyaline cartilage.
C) dense irregular connective tissue.
D) reticular connective tissue.
E) dense regular connective tissue.
Q3) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is called
A) plasma.
B) lymph.
C) blood.
D) humoral fluid.
E) plasmin fluid.
Q4) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of epidermis where keratohyalin crosslinks keratin fibers is the
A) stratum spinosum.
B) stratum corneum.
C) stratum granulosum.
D) stratum lucidum.
E) stratum basale.
Q2) Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?
A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly.
B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly.
C) There are fewer dendritic cells in the skin of the elderly.
D) Basal cell activity is reduced in the elderly.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The stratum corneum just under the free edge of a nail is the A) hyponychium.
B) lunula.
C) eponychium.
D) nail root.
E) cuticle.
Q4) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the total organic components in bone most of it is
A) collagen.
B) keratin.
C) keratohyalin.
D) elastin.
E) actin.
Q2) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitaminD3deficiency? Explain.
Q3) The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is calleda
A) head.
B) crown.
C) capitulum.
D) corona.
E) bulb.
Q4) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. A young resident suggests using a devicethat will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the healing process. Why might this possibly help?
Q5) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured?
A) ethmoid bone
B) zygomatic bone
C) temporal bone
D) mandible
E) parietal bone
Q2) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle-aged men, Joe carries most of this extra weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his "beer gut." During an annual physical, Joe's physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. Why is the curvature of Joe's spine changing, and what is this condition called?
Q3) The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
A) vomer
B) lacrimal
C) hyoid
D) atlas
E) ethmoid
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?
A) medial cuneiform
B) capitate
C) cuboid
D) navicular
E) talus
Q2) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the
A) olecranon fossa.
B) coronoid fossa.
C) radial fossa.
D) intertubercular groove.
E) radial groove.
Q3) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) ________ ligament.
A) radioulnar
B) interosseous
C) antebrachial
D) lateromedial
E) intrabrachial
Q4) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Q5) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can vary.
A) articular
B) intervertebral
C) costal
D) elastic
E) fibrous
Q2) An immovable joint is a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) diarthrosis.
C) amphiarthrosis.
D) syndesmosis.
E) symphysis.
Q3) Identify the type of joint at label "4."
A) hinge
B) gliding
C) condylar
D) saddle
E) pivot
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
A) muscle fatigue.
B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
C) muscle contraction.
D) muscle relaxation.
E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
Q2) Muscles that move the eyeball have ________ fibers.
A) fast
B) slow
C) intermediate
D) circular
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage and release site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening.
A) convergent
B) parallel
C) straight
D) pennate
E) circular
Q2) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his mouth, andbegins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions?
Q3) Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis.
B) transversus.
C) rectus.
D) oblique.
E) medialis.
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish hisgoal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) magnesium.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
A) They create a three dimensional framework for the CNS.
B) They maintain the blood-brain barrier.
C) They guide neuron development.
D) They rebuild injured neurons.
E) They adjust the composition of the interstitial tissue.
Q3) Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division.
A) ribosomes
B) endoplasmic reticula
C) a nucleus
D) centrioles
E) cytoplasm
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the A) central canal.
B) posterior gray horns.
C) gray commissures.
D) white columns.
E) anterior gray horns.
Q2) Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the ________ nerve.
A) saphenous
B) sciatic
C) femoral
D) obturator
E) genitofemoral
Q3) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the
A) perineurium.
B) epineurium.
C) endoneurium.
D) epimysium.
E) endosteum.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the
A) four cerebral lobes.
B) superior and inferior colliculi.
C) first four cranial nerves.
D) cranial nerve IV.
E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.
Q2) If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?
A) breathing
B) control of blood pressure
C) coordination
D) sleep patterns
E) judgment
Q3) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the A) tectum.
B) corpora quadrigemina.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) superior colliculi.
E) inferior colliculi.
Q4) Apatient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some neurons within the basal nuclei are known to
A) stimulate neurons with GABA.
B) inhibit neurons with GABA.
C) stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
D) stimulate neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
E) inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
Q2) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli thatexcite each type?
Q3) Identify the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord. (Figure 15-10)
A) anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, lateral spinothalamic
B) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar, lateral spinocerebellar
C) lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal,tectospinal, vestibulospinal
D) gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus
E) medial lemniscus, anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, anterior spinocerebellar,posterior spinocerebellar
Q4) What are differences and similarities between "crude" touch and "fine" touch sensations?
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest."
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) thoracolumbar
D) visceral
E) somatomotor
Q2) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata?
A) swallowing reflex
B) vasomotor reflex
C) coughing reflex
D) cardioacceleratory reflex
E) pupillary reflex
Q3) Nicotine poisoning differs from muscarine poisoning in that
A) it causes vomiting.
B) it causes salivation.
C) it causes sweating.
D) it causes skeletal muscle convulsions.
E) it causes diarrhea.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the A) iris.
B) cornea.
C) lens.
D) aqueous humor.
E) vitreous humor.
Q2) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as A) sweet.
B) umami.
C) salty.
D) peppery.
E) sour.
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding image formation?
A) The greatest amount of refraction occurs at the cornea.
B) The focal distance must equal the distance between the center of the lens and the retina to form a sharp image.
C) A round lens has a short focal distance.
D) Images arrive at the retina upside down and reversed.
E) To view a distant object the lens will become rounder.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follicle cells in the ovary secrete ________ when stimulated by FSH.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) inhibin
E) gonadotropins
Q2) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the
A) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm.
B) cell membrane becomes depolarized.
C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
D) cell becomes inactive.
E) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
Q3) Hypophyseal portal system capillaries are
A) lined by tight junctions.
B) lined by microglial cells.
C) fenestrated.
D) impermeable.
E) lined by podocytes.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other.
B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors.
C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Q2) Tissue factor is a factor in the ________ pathway.
A) extrinsic
B) intrinsic
C) common
D) retraction
E) fibrinolytic
Q3) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because
A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.
B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.
C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.
D) they usually have very strong immune systems.
E) they are usually Rh negative.
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries.
A) pulmonary
B) coronary
C) circumflex
D) carotid
E) subclavian
Q2) A fine tubular wire mesh called a ________ may be inserted into a coronary vessel, holding it open.
A) angioplast
B) stent
C) angiogram
D) keyhole
E) catheter
Q3) The ________ lines the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous with the endothelium.
A) epicardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) visceral pericardium
E) mediastinum
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers?
A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa
Q2) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the tunica
A) intima.
B) externa.
C) media.
D) interna.
E) adventitia.
Q3) The left and right coronary arteries originate at the A) aortic arch.
B) carotid sinus.
C) brachiocephalic trunk.
D) aortic sinus.
E) aortic valve.
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria,and bacterial toxins are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Q2) Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule.
A) sinus regions
B) germinal center
C) cortical layer
D) capsular space
E) stroma
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) deep cortex
B) capsule
C) subcapsular space
D) trabeculae
E) medullary cord
Q4) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the structure labeled "8"?
A) forces air into the lungs
B) causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
C) prevents food from entering the larynx
D) acts like a supplementary air pump
E) adjusts tension of vocal folds
Q2) Information from chemoreceptors travels to the brain via the ________ nerves.
A) trigeminal
B) hypoglossal
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
E) vagus and glossopharyngeal
Q3) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cricoid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) epiglottic
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Q5) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds.
A) mucosa
B) submucosa
C) submucosal neural plexus
D) muscularis mucosa
E) adventitia
Q2) Parietal cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) enteropeptidase.
Q3) Identify the stomach region labeled "12."
A) cardia
B) pyloric part
C) body
D) fundus
E) rugae
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major cation in cytoplasm is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) magnesium.
E) iron.
Q2) How many net ATP molecules are produced by the complete metabolism (all pathways) of one glucose molecule?
A) 2-4 ATP
B) 6 ATP
C) 30-32 ATP
D) 100-120 ATP
E) 150 ATP
Q3) Glycolysis produces how many pyruvate molecules and how many ATP molecules? (Figure 25-2)
A) 1 pyruvate molecule with a net gain of 1 ATP molecule
B) 2 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 2 ATP molecules
C) 2 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 4 ATP molecules
D) 4 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 4 ATP molecules
E) 4 pyruvate molecules with a net gain of 2 ATP molecules
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three main pressures. From the list below, what are these three main pressures? 1. glomerular hydrostatic pressure
2) capsular hydrostatic pressure
3) capsular colloid osmotic pressure
4) blood colloid osmotic pressure
5) urinary bladder hydrostatic pressure
A) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C) 3, 4, and 5 are correct.
D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
E) 2, 4, and 5 are correct.
Q2) The ________ test is often used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate. A) inulin
B) glucose tolerance
C) CBC or complete blood count
D) specific gravity
E) creatinine clearance
Q3) What is the creatinine clearance test? How can it be used to estimate GFR? How accurate is it?
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus will develop
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) acute respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
E) chronic respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) Amino acids in solution contain both a negative and positive charge and thus are termed a(n)
A) anion.
B) cation.
C) acid.
D) base.
E) zwitterion.
Q3) ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
A) respiratory
B) volatile
C) metabolic
D) inorganic
E) fixed
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Q1) If the prostate stopped secreting fluid, this would result in semen
A) that lacked sperm.
B) with a higher than normal pH.
C) with less fructose.
D) with no mucus.
E) that was rich in prostaglandins.
Q2) The portion of the urethra that penetrates the urogenital diaphragm is the
A) membranous urethra.
B) penile urethra.
C) corpus spongiosum.
D) spongy urethra.
E) vascular urethra.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) testis
B) prostate gland
C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
D) epididymis
E) ductus deferens
Q4) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
Q5) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gene for normal skin pigment (A) can also code for the recessive trait of albinism (a). An albino manand a homozygous normal pigmented woman marry and have four children. What is the phenotype of the children?
A) 75% normal skin pigment and 25% albino
B) 100% normal skin pigment
C) 50% normal skin pigment and 50% albino
D) 25% normal skin pigment and 75% albino
E) 100% albino
Q2) The ectoderm forms
A) muscle.
B) blood.
C) neural tissues.
D) the lining of the digestive tract.
E) the urinary system.
Q3) What is the developmental fate of "9"?
A) forms the embryo
B) forms the trophoblast
C) forms the chorion
D) forms the placenta
E) forms the parietal decidua
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31