Introduction to Human Biology Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Biology offers students a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts related to the structure and function of the human body. The course explores topics such as cell biology, genetics, anatomy, physiology, and the major organ systems, emphasizing how these systems interact to maintain health. Students also examine human development, diseases, and the impact of lifestyle choices on bodily functions. Designed for those new to the biological sciences, the course provides a foundation for further study in health-related fields and promotes an understanding of the biological principles that underlie human life.
Recommended Textbook
Structure and Function of the Body 15th Edition by
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58 Chapters
7639 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Kevin T. Patton PhD
Chapter 1: A: Organization of the Body
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106 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The release of oxytocin to stimulate labor during the birth of a baby is an example of negative feedback.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Superficial and inferior are opposite directional terms in humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The endocrine system includes the pancreas,pituitary,adrenals,and other glands.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) There can be as many as 10 trillion cells in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: B: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abdominal region in which the appendix is found is the:
A) hypogastric.
B) right iliac.
C) right lumbar.
D) right hypochondriac.
Answer: A
Q2) During a routine physical examination,a patient with an endomorphic somatotype with a large waistline and overall "apple shape" should be advised that such a distribution of fat may lead to what conditions?
A) Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, and colitis
B) Heart disease, stroke, high blood pressure, and diabetes
C) Heart disease, stroke, low blood pressure, and colitis
D) Prostate cancer, low blood pressure, and diabetes
Answer: B
Q3) Negative feedback control systems:
A) oppose a change.
B) accelerate a change.
C) have no effect on the deviation from set point.
D) establish a new set point.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: A: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because oxygen has 8 electrons,it has achieved its octet and will not react with other elements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Enzymes are proteins that function by the lock-and-key theory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Fifty percent or more of a normal adult's body weight is water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Catabolism and anabolism are major types of metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: B: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) value determined by adding the number of protons and neutrons in an atom
A)Proton
B)Neutron
C)Electron
D)Isotopes
E)Ionic bonds
F)Covalent bonds
G)Octet rule
H)Atomic number
I)Atomic mass
J)Hydrogen bonds
Q2) The type of chemical reaction most likely to require energy is _____ reaction.
A) synthesis
B) decomposition
C) exchange
D) All of the above reactions are equally likely to require energy.
Q3) If one side of a DNA molecule is A-T-C-G-G-T-C-A-G,what would the bases be on the other side of the molecule? On what do you base your answer?
Q4) Compare and contrast the structures of DNA and RNA.
Q5) Describe the Bohr model of the atom.
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Chapter 3: A: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Golgi apparatus helps to prepare material for export from the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heart muscle cells are joined by gap junctions to facilitate the movement of electrical impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chromosomes and chromatin are both forms of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An angstrom is larger than a nanometer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Peroxisomes contain enzymes that detoxify harmful substances.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Schleiden and Schwann were the first scientists to see cells.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 3: B: Anatomy of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell fiber is called the engine of the cell?
A) Centrosome
B) Microfilament
C) Microtubule
D) Intermediate filament
Q2) cell extension that lacks the center pair of microtubules and can function as sensory organelles; not found in blood cells,but most other cells have them
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q3) What is the function of the centrosome and by what other name is it known?
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Chapter 4: Physiology of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The measurement of potential osmotic pressure is easier to determine than actual osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through:
A) facilitated diffusion.
B) filtration.
C) osmosis.
D) active transport.
Q3) The size of the molecule is an important factor in both dialysis and filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After phagocytosis occurs,enzymes from which organelle can digest what is in the vesicle?
A) Lysosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondria
D) Cytoskeleton
Q5) Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes.
Q6) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis.
Page 9
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Chapter 5: Cell Growth and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A polyribosome is making several copies of the same protein molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) process that occurs when the double strands of a DNA segment separate and RNA nucleotides pair with DNA nucleotides
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)Transcription
D)RNAI
E)Traslation
Q3) A DNA codon consists of three nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) process that involves the movement of the mRNA with respect to the ribosome
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)Transcription
D)RNAI
E)Traslation
Q5) Describe the process of translation.What is RNAi?
Page 10
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Chapter 6: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper layer of stratified cuboidal epithelium can be keratinized for protection of the tissue below them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Microvilli are found on which types of cells lining of the intestine?
A) Pseudostratified epithelium
B) Simple columnar epithelium
C) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
D) Simple cuboidal epithelium
Q3) Epithelial tissue attaches to connective tissue by means of a basement membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Areolar tissue usually contains which type of cell in the greatest number?
A) Macrophages
B) Fibroblasts
C) Mast cells
D) Phagocytes
Q5) Connective tissue is the most widespread and diverse tissue in the body.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 7: A: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary function of the dermal-epidermal junction is to "glue" together the dermis and the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hair follicles and skin glands,made up of epithelial tissue,extend from the epidermis into the reticular layer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You turn red when you blush because the color of blood is red.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When heat must be conserved to maintain a constant body temperature,the dermal blood vessels increase their diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The rule of palms and the rule of tens are two methods used in estimating the extent of body surface area burned.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: B: Skin and Its Appendages
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Sample Questions
Q1) The darkest of the skin pigments is:
A) beta-carotene.
B) pheomelanin.
C) eumelanin.
D) none of the above.
Q2) The process of digesting food requires work from the body.Why would you expect the body temperature to rise slightly after eating a big meal?
Q3) Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles.
A) papillary
B) cuticle
C) medullary
D) arrector pili
Q4) The special network of nerves deep in the dermis that is capable of detecting pressure on the skin surface is called:
A) free nerve endings.
B) Krause end bulbs.
C) tactile corpuscle.
D) somatic sensory receptors.
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Chapter 8: A: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) During childhood and adolescence,ossification and bone resorption occur at equal rates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Haversian systems are found only in compact bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bones are the organs of the skeletal system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Osteoclasts are large,multinucleate cells that erode bone minerals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cartilage rings in the trachea and the tip of the nose are elastic cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The occurrence of osteoporosis seems to be related to age and gender.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: B: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name,describe,and give the location of the different types of cartilage found in the body.
Q2) What condition results in vitamin D deficiency in children?
A) Rickets
B) Osteomalacia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Both A and B
Q3) The small spaces in the matrix that contain the bone cells are called:
A) lacunae.
B) canaliculi.
C) central canal.
D) lamellae.
Q4) central shaft of long bones
A)Periosteum
B)Endosteum
C)Epiphyses
D)Diaphysis
E)Medullary cavity
F)Articular cartilage
Q5) Explain all the ways parathyroid hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels.
Page 15
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a newborn,the face is a much smaller part of the skull than it is in an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q3) most superior part of the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
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Chapter 10: A: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intercarpal joints are arranged in two rows of four bones each.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The structural classification of a joint describes the type of movement the joint allows.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Closing ones mouth would be an example of the movement of elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Circumduction consists of pivoting a bone on its own axis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An articulation is a point of contact between bones.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The thumb contains the only saddle joint in the body-the joint between the metacarpal bone and the proximal phalange.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 10: B: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate among uniaxial,biaxial,and multiaxial joints.
Q2) Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in:
A) "housemaid's knee."
B) total hip replacement.
C) osteoporosis.
D) a "slipped disk."
Q3) The opposite of eversion is:
A) protraction.
B) depression.
C) retraction.
D) none of the above.
Q4) The condition of "housemaid's knee" is an inflammation of the:
A) menisci.
B) cruciate ligaments.
C) synovial membrane.
D) prepatellar bursa.
Q5) Define rotation and circumduction and give an example of each.
Q6) Dislocation of the hip can cause major damage to the hip joint,sometimes requiring surgical repair.Explain what the damage might be and why surgery might be required to repair the function of the joint.
Page 18
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Chapter 11: A: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fascia is a general term for the fibrous connective tissue found under the skin and around muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a lever system,the fixed pivot around which the rod moves is called the fulcrum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tendons and aponeuroses are both fibrous tissue extending from a muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Tendons are often continuous with the endosteum of bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The fascia found on the surface of the muscle is called the superficial fascia.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 11: B: Anatomy of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) tube-shaped structure of fibrous connective tissue
A)Endomysium
B)Tendon
C)Epimysium
D)Aponeurosis
E)Fascia
F)Perimysium
G)Tendon sheath
H)Fascicles
Q2) Which fibrous connective tissue structures have a lining of synovial membrane?
A) Tendon sheaths
B) Aponeuroses
C) Fascicles
D) Both B and C
Q3) The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm.
A) flex
B) extend
C) pronate
D) supinate
Q4) Explain the way in which you could deduce the action of a muscle.
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Chapter 12: A: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shorter a muscle prior to contraction,the more tension it will be able to generate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are two types of isometric contractions: concentric contractions and eccentric contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The longer the initial length of a muscle,the stronger the contraction of that muscle can be.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are three high energy bonds in an ATP molecule.
A)True B)False
Q5) Muscle fibers use creatine phosphate to restore their ATP population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: B: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how the treppe,or staircase,phenomenon applies to pre-exercise warm-up.
Q2) Both the skin,or integument,system and the muscle system are important in maintaining the body temperature.The skin function is homeostatic in nature.Explain why the muscle function is not.
Q3) A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n)_____ contraction.
A) tonic
B) isotonic
C) isometric
D) tetanic
Q4) Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction?
A) Isotonic
B) Flaccid
C) Treppe
D) Isometric
Q5) Explain isometric muscle contractions and the two types of isotonic contractions.
Q6) Describe the physiological process of muscle contraction.
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Chapter 13: A: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a myelinated fiber,the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Rapid succession stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by a synaptic knob is called an ipsilateral reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microglia are associated with the formation of the blood-brain barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to initiate an action potential.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gray fibers have no association with Schwann cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The endoneurium is deep to the epineurium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: B: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Along a neuron,the correct pathway for impulse conduction is:
A) dendrite, axon, cell body, and receptor.
B) dendrite, cell body, and axon.
C) axon, cell body, and dendrite.
D) receptor, axon, and cell body.
Q2) Astrocytes attach to:
A) neurons.
B) oligodendrocytes.
C) blood vessels.
D) both A and C.
Q3) What comprises the central nervous system?
Q4) fatty sheath around nerve fibers made by Schwann cells
A)Cell body
B)Axon
C)Nodes of Ranvier
D)Dendrite
E)Myelin
F)Neurofibrils
Q5) Name and briefly describe the different types of neurotransmitters used by the nervous system.
24
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Chapter 14: A: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The group of nerve roots that extend below the spinal cord are called the filum terminale.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of the motor tracts of the central nervous system do not decussate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ascending tracts carry only sensory information,whereas descending pathways carry only motor information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Formation of the cerebrospinal fluid occurs mainly in the choroid plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The spinal cord completely fills the spinal cavity in the vertebrae.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Meningitis refers to inflammation of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: B: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who is awake,alert,and attentive would have a predominance of _____ brain waves.
A) beta
B) theta
C) zeta
D) delta
Q2) The fourth ventricle is located:
A) in the left cerebral hemisphere.
B) in the right cerebral hemisphere.
C) below and medial to the lateral ventricles.
D) where the cerebellum attaches to the brainstem.
Q3) How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease?
Q4) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles,into the central canal and _____,and is absorbed back into the blood.
A) subarachnoid space
B) choroid plexuses
C) spinal cord
D) intraventricular foramen
Q5) Explain the functions of the thalamus.
Q6) Explain the functions of the hypothalamus.
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Chapter 15: Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) The first four lumbar nerves contribute to the lumbar plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The trigeminal nerve gives rise to the ophthalmic nerve,the maxillary nerve,and the zygomatic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gymnast is experiencing problems with balance and equilibrium.Which of the following cranial nerves may be causing this condition?
A) Accessory
B) Glossopharyngeal
C) Hypoglossal
D) Vestibulocochlear
Q4) Which of the following is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve?
A) Zygomatic nerve
B) Ophthalmic nerve
C) Maxillary nerve
D) Mandibular nerve
Q5) What is a dermatome? What is a myotome?
Q6) List the names,numbers,and functional classifications of the cranial nerves.
Page 27
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Chapter 16: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar in that they both have two efferent neurons between the central nervous system and the effector organ.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not true about parasympathetic postganglionic neurons?
A) They are usually shorter than the preganglionic neurons.
B) They produce acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter.
C) They produce norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter.
D) They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites.
Q4) Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion,the preganglionic fiber will always synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Some modified postganglionic sympathetic fibers act as endocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: A: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The photo pupil reflex is an accommodation process normally used to see objects that are close.
A)True B)False
Q2) Because rods only see in "black and white," they are equally responsive to the entire range of visible wavelengths.
A)True B)False
Q3) Merkel disks and muscle spindles provide the body with information about muscle and the strength of muscle contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The function of the eustachian tube is to equalize all pressure on either side of the oval window.
A)True B)False
Q5) The external ear ends at the eardrum.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: B: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) thin membrane that separates the inner ear and middle ear; vibrates in response to sound waves
A)auricle
B)cerumen
C)external auditory meatus
D)tympanic membrane
Q2) humor found in the anterior chamber
A)Aqueous humor
B)Choroid
C)Cones
D)Cornea
E)Fovea centralis
F)Iris
G)Optic disc
H)Retina
I)Rods
J)Vitreous humor
Q3) Describe each of the receptor categories,based on the types of stimuli that activate them.
Q4) How does the ear differentiate between high- and low-frequency sound waves?
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Chapter 18: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of nonsteroid hormones are insulin,oxytocin,and epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the later effects of steroid hormones on the cell could be the:
A) transcription of RNA.
B) making of enzymes.
C) formation of cAMP.
D) activation of kinases.
Q3) Endocrine glands are located either in the head or the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thromboxanes and leukotrienes can be called tissue hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fixed-membrane-receptor model is used in describing the action of nonsteroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are prostaglandins? From what substance are they made? Name two effects prostaglandins have on the body.
Page 31
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Chapter 19: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Both functions of oxytocin are regulated by a positive feedback loop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sex hormones are produced by the ovaries,testes,and adrenal glands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The major mineralocorticoid is aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The principal thyroid hormone is:
A) tetraiodothyronine (T4 or thyroxine).
B) triiodothyronine (T3).
C) calcitonin.
D) PTH.
Q6) Growth hormone is also called insulin-like growth factor.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 20: Blood
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230 Verified Questions
230 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34164
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor in the clotting process is the antihemophiliac factor?
A) IV
B) VIII
C) IX
D) X
Q2) People with type O blood are considered universal donors because their blood has Rh antigen on their red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most lymphocytes and monocytes come from hematopoietic adult stem cells in lymphatic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The end product of both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathway is fibrin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood that clots too slowly and blood that clots too quickly are both problems for the body.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 21: Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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211 Verified Questions
211 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34167
Sample Questions
Q1) The epicardium and the visceral layer of the serous pericardium are the same structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Respectively,the right and left atrioventricular valves are also known as:
A) tricuspid, mitral.
B) bicuspid, tricuspid.
C) mitral, bicuspid.
D) bicuspid, mitral.
Q3) The "receiving chambers" of the heart are the atria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trace a drop of blood from the right atrium to the aorta.List the specific chambers,valves,blood vessels,and lungs in proper sequence.
Q5) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
Q6) The blood vessels that supply other blood vessels with blood are called the vaso vasorum.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the anatomical positioning of the heart.
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Chapter 22: A: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachycardia is normal during sleep and in conditioned athletes while they are awake (but at rest).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The drop in blood pressure is greater between the aorta and capillary bed than it is between the capillaries and the venae cavae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Venous valves would not be necessary in the jugular veins of the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an ECG,both the deflections themselves and the interval between deflections can provide information about the electrical conduction through the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An increase in ADH in the blood would have a tendency to increase total blood volume.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: B: Physiology of the Cardiovascular System
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34148
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding local control of arterioles?
A) Local vasodilation is also referred to as reactive hyperemia.
B) Nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction.
C) Endothelin causes vasodilation.
D) All of the above statements are true regarding local control of arterioles.
Q2) Blood in the veins of which organ is not considered part of the "blood reservoir" system?
A) Skin
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Spleen
D) Liver
Q3) What are two functions that circulation control mechanisms must accomplish?
Q4) The normal pattern of impulse conduction through the heart is:
A) AV node, SA node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers.
B) AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, and bundle of His.
C) SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, and bundle of His.
D) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers.
Q5) List two major factors that promote the return of venous blood to the heart.Explain how each facilitates venous return.
Q6) What part of the heart should serve as the normal pacemaker?
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Chapter 23: Lymphatic System
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196 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tonsils are in deep recesses called tonsillar crypts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The size of the thymus is the largest at:
A) birth.
B) 2 years of age.
C) puberty.
D) approximately 25 years of age.
Q3) Which of the following is a function of lymph nodes?
A) Hematopoiesis
B) Filtration
C) Phagocytosis
D) All of the above
Q4) The spleen's two functions are defense of foreign microorganisms and provision of a blood reservoir.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Veins have more valves than do lymphatics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: A: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Natural killer cells are 15% of the total lymphocyte cell number.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antigens activate B cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first vaccination provided immunity against the chickenpox virus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phagocytosis is a nonspecific defense mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Passive immunity generally lasts longer than active immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The inflammatory response is the body's first line of defense.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: B: Immune System
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an antigen attaches to a naïve B cell,it becomes a(n)_____ cell.
A) memory
B) plasma
C) effector B
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) The antibody produced after initial contact with an antigen is:
A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgA.
Q3) Which is the best explanation of how complement-a group of about 20 inactive enzymes in the plasma and on cell surfaces-is activated and produces cytolysis?
A) Complement is "turned on" by the presence of bacteria.
B) Complement is activated by antibodies to "drill a hole" into foreign cells, thus causing cytolysis.
C) Complement causes vasoconstriction and inhibits phagocytosis.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q4) Explain how complement is activated and can produce cytolysis in the process of humoral immunity.
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Chapter 25: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Release of corticotropin-releasing hormone directly causes:
A) an increase in glucose, which corrects the hypoglycemia.
B) the posterior pituitary gland to release ACTH.
C) the release of cortisol.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Psychological stressors produce a syndrome consisting only of objective responses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stress is considered a tangible phenomenon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Increased _____ is characteristic of the alarm stage of stress.
A) lymphocytes
B) glucocorticoids
C) parasympathetic activity
D) eosinophils
Q5) Both social isolation and overcrowding can cause stress.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx are used to put tension on the vocal cords.
A)True
B)False
Q2) windpipe; extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi in the thorax
A)Larynx
B)Pleura
C)Turbinates
D)Respiratory membrane
E)Alveolus
F)Trachea
G)Pharynx
H)Bronchial tree
I)Respiratory mucosa
J)Paranasal sinus
K)Bronchiole
L)Nares
Q3) Name the structures through which air passes from the beginning of the trachea to the alveoli.
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Chapter 27: A: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the rate laws of chemistry,the more carbon dioxide in the blood,the more carbaminohemoglobin will be formed.
A)True B)False
Q2) The amount of air that could be forcibly expired after normal expiration is called the functional residual capacity.
A)True B)False
Q3) The chloride shift is an important step of oxygen transport in the blood.
A)True B)False
Q4) The pneumotaxic center is located in the pons of the brain. A)True B)False
Q5) The Hering-Breuer reflexes are activated by stretch receptors in the lungs that send messages to the inspiratory center.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 27: B: Physiology of the Respiratory System
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) the largest amount of air that can be inspired after tidal inspiration
A)Tidal volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Inspiratory reserve volume
D)Expiratory reserve volume
E)Residual volume
F)Minimal air
Q2) Assume the percent of oxygen in the air is constant (about 21%).What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the mountains where the atmospheric pressure is 725 mm Hg?
Q3) The symbol HbNCOOH- is used for:
A) carbonic anhydrase.
B) carbaminohemoglobin.
C) the heme group.
D) the bicarbonate ion.
Q4) Name and explain the pulmonary volumes and capacities.Which of these increase and decrease as a person moves from normal breathing to forceful inspiration and expiration?
Q5) Explain the terms ventilation and perfusion.Explain how they must work together to allow efficient gas exchange in the lung.
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Chapter 28: A: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the pancreas,alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the average adult,when full,the stomach can hold as much as 3.5 liters of food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The esophageal hiatus is the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The substances insulin and glucagon are both produced by the liver but have opposite effects on carbohydrate metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During deglutition and speech,the only muscles of the tongue that contract are the intrinsic muscles.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: B: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the location,structure,and function of the pancreas.
Q2) The myenteric plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall?
A) Mucosa
B) Submucosa
C) Muscularis
D) Serosa
Q3) The oral fissure divides the:
A) upper lip from the lower lip.
B) cheek muscle from the teeth.
C) right and left sides of the palate.
D) right side of the tongue from the left side of the tongue.
Q4) List the functions of the stomach.
Q5) The more common term for deglutition is:
A) chewing.
B) swallowing.
C) mechanical digestion.
D) vomiting.
Q6) List the tissue layers that make up the alimentary canal,beginning with the interior layer.
Q7) Name and give the location of the four parts of the colon.
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Chapter 29: A: Physiology of the Digestive System
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiration is inhibited for the 1 to 3 seconds required for food to clear the pharynx during each swallowing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contact digestion makes absorption more efficient because the end products are then physically near the point of absorption,not floating around somewhere in the lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To increase absorption time,the hormone cholecystokinin slows motility in the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most enzymes are able to work on more than one substance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Secretin causes the production of pancreatic fluid high in enzyme content but low in bicarbonate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: B: Physiology of the Digestive System
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122 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase(s)of gastric secretion is(are)stimulated by the sight,taste,and smell of food?
A) Intestinal phase
B) Cephalic phase
C) Gastric phase
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing?
A) Glottis
B) Epiglottis
C) Soft palate and uvula
D) Tongue
Q3) Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme for lipids?
A) Bile
B) Lipase
C) Phospholipase
D) All of the above are digestive enzymes for lipids.
Q4) Explain the physiological basis for diarrhea and constipation.
Q5) Explain the process of carbohydrate digestion.
Q6) What happens in the chemical process of hydrolysis?
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Chapter 30: A: Nutrition and Metabolism
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129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unsaturated fats are usually liquids at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fats have a "carbohydrate-sparing" effect,or more correctly,a "carbohydrate-storing" effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The hormone leptin is frequently given to people undergoing chemotherapy to stimulate their appetite.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fatty acids are broken down by a process of beta oxidation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Carbohydrates and fats have a lower thermic effect than do proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The acetyl group is carried to the citric acid cycle by coenzyme A. A)True
B)False
Page 48
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Chapter 30: B: Nutrition and Metabolism
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess glucose and amino acids are converted to:
A) fatty acids.
B) glycerol.
C) triglycerides.
D) phospholipids.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
A) It occurs in the mitochondria.
B) Glucose is split into two pyruvic acid molecules.
C) It is an anaerobic process.
D) A specific enzyme catalyzes each step of the reaction.
Q3) A term for substances such as sodium,chloride,calcium,and potassium is:
A) bulk nutrient.
B) trace element.
C) macromineral.
D) both A and C.
Q4) Name and explain three factors that influence the basal metabolic rate.
Q5) Explain the process of glycolysis.What is the starting material and what are the end products of the process of glycolysis?
Q6) What is glycogenesis? What cells in the body are able to store large amounts of glycogen?
Page 49
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Chapter 31: A: Urinary System
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interlobular artery carries blood directly to the glomerulus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The male urethra is about twice as long as the female urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The proximal tubule is called "proximal" because it is nearest to Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nitrogen wastes are removed only by the urinary system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glomerular filtration rate can never be zero.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The fenestrations increase the porosity of the glomerulus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: B: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reabsorption,as performed in the kidney,may be defined as the:
A) movement of molecules out of the tubule and into the peritubular blood.
B) movement of molecules out of the peritubular blood and into the tubule for excretion.
C) movement of water and solutes from the plasma in the glomerulus, across the glomerular-capsular membrane, and into the capsular space of Bowman capsule.
D) volume of plasma from which a substance is removed by the kidney per minute.
Q2) Which blood vessels empty into the glomerulus?
A) Interlobar arteries
B) Afferent arterioles
C) Lobar arteries
D) Arcuate arteries
Q3) In which parts of the nephron do all of the following functions occur: passive reabsorption,active reabsorption,passive secretion,and active secretion?
A) Proximal tubule and the renal corpuscle
B) Collecting duct and the distal tubule
C) Collecting duct and the ascending limb of Henle
D) Collecting duct and the descending limb of Henle
Q4) List functions of the urinary bladder.
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Chapter 32: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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201 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl,the positive electrode would attract:
A) cations.
B) sodium ions.
C) chloride ions.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q2) Which of the following body fluid compartments has the same volume (percentage of body weight)in the infant,the adult male,and the adult female?
A) Plasma
B) Interstitial fluid
C) Extracellular fluid
D) Intracellular fluid
Q3) Extracellular fluid depletion is the last line of defense against dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The milliequivalent is a measure of the weight of an electrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the functioning thirst center.Where is it located?
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Chapter 33: Acid-Base Balance
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190 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose?
A) Aerobic metabolism produces lactic acid.
B) Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid.
C) Anaerobic metabolism produces carbonic acid.
D) Both A and C are true about the metabolism of glucose.
Q2) Rhubarb is said to be a direct base-forming food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) CO entering venous blood gives it a slightly lower pH than arterial blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Citrus fruits are mainly acid-forming when metabolized.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A rare but very serious complication of metformin therapy is:
A) hyperkalemia.
B) lactic acidosis.
C) uncompensated acidosis.
D) uncompensated alkalosis.
Q6) Explain the methods the kidney uses to help control the pH of the blood.
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Chapter 34: Male Reproductive System
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213 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Androgen-binding protein is a substance produced by the Sertoli cells that increases the concentration of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The perineum is an accessory organ of the male reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Secretions from the seminal vesicles contribute about 60% of the seminal fluid volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The urethra passes through an opening in the prostate gland. A)True B)False
Q5) Sperm cells are functionally incomplete at the time of ejaculation. A)True B)False
Q6) An enlargement of the prostate may cause urinary retention. A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: A: Female Reproductive System
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124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of the fetus in a location other than the uterus is called an ectopic pregnancy.
A)True B)False
Q2) The peristalsis of the muscle layer in the uterine tube moves the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.
A)True B)False
Q3) A function of the female reproductive system is to ensure the continued existence of the genetic code.
A)True B)False
Q4) A line drawn between the two ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into a urogenital and anal triangle.
A)True B)False
Q5) Ovulation always occurs on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle. A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: B: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the least predictable method of determining ovulation time?
A) The measurement of LH in the urine
B) The length of previous cycles
C) The change in basal body temperature
D) All of the above methods are equally accurate in determining ovulation time.
Q2) An episiotomy is an incision made:
A) through the body of the uterus.
B) through the cervix of the uterus.
C) in the perineum.
D) None of the above correctly describes an episiotomy.
Q3) The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is called the:
A) parietal peritoneum.
B) myometrium.
C) endometrium.
D) symphysis pubis.
Q4) Discuss the ideas behind predicting the time of ovulation.
Q5) Explain the physiological basis of why a pill containing estrogen and progesterone can prevent pregnancy.
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Chapter 36: A: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The science of the development of the individual before birth is prenatology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sperm are attracted to the warmer temperatures of the uterine tubes; this attraction is called thermotaxis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only slightly more than 1% of the sperm deposited in the vagina reach the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The only thing contributed to the egg by the fertilizing sperm is the nucleus of the sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Adult stem cells can be found in the skin,nervous tissue,and muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The prenatal period begins at conception and continues until the end of infancy.
A)True
B)False
Page 57
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Chapter 36: B: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) aging; older adulthood
A)Parturition
B)Chorion
C)Neonate
D)Zygote
E)Organogenesis
F)Blastocyst
G)Gestation
H)Morula
I)Senescence
J)Primary germ layers
K)Histogenesis
L)Embryology
M)Implantation
N)Fertilization
Q2) Compare and contrast spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Q3) Compare and contrast the two different processes that can result in twinning.
Q4) Name the three primary germ layers and name several structures or systems that develop from each.
Q5) Select four systems and explain the effects of aging on each system.
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Chapter 37: A: Genetics and Heredity
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130 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fortunately,individuals with Klinefelter syndrome generally are not sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term pedigree refers to the entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You would expect the p-arm of a chromosome to carry more genes than the q-arm of the chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Theoretically,the best chance for producing a girl infant would be for insemination to occur on the day of ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One form of gene therapy uses bacteria-like DNA plasmids to carry therapeutic genes to a cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: B: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The syndrome that results from the genotype "XXY" is:
A) Turner.
B) Klinefelter.
C) Down.
D) Parkinson.
Q2) If a man had Leber hereditary optic neuropathy,a mitochondrial DNA-carried disease,what is the probability of him passing the trait on to his offspring?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 0%
D) There is not enough information to determine the probability.
Q3) the entire collection of genetic material in a typical cell
A)Proteome
B)Ideogram
C)Genome
D)Genomics
E)P-arm
F)Proteomics
G)Q-arm
Q4) Explain the principle of independent assortment.
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